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Lana'i Air PC-12NG/47E > PIM > Flashcards

PIM Flashcards

1
Q

wingspan

A

53’4”

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2
Q

height

A

14’

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3
Q

length

A

47’3”

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4
Q

landing gear width

A

14’10”

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5
Q

ground turning clearance using rudder - wing tip radius

A

57’5”

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6
Q

ground turning clearance using brake - wing tip radius

A

35’7”

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7
Q

engine model number

A

PT6A-67P

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8
Q

takeoff power (shp)

A

1200

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9
Q

propeller speed (Np rpm)

A

1700

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10
Q

approved fuels

A

Jet a, jet-a-1, jet b, jp4

any other fuel which complies with the latest revision of pratt & Whitney service bulletin

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11
Q

Total fuel capacity

A

406.8 gal, 2736.5 lbs

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12
Q

usable fuel

A

402 gal, 2703.6 lbs

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13
Q

total oil capacity

A

3.6 gal

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14
Q

oil operating range

A

1 gal

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15
Q

maximum ramp weight

A

10495 lb

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16
Q

maximum takeoff weight

A

10450 lb

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17
Q

maximum landing weight

A

9921 lb

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18
Q

maximum zero fuel weight

A

9039 lb

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19
Q

maximum cargo weight - baggage area

A

400 or 265 lb

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20
Q

maximum cargo weight - cabin area
(maximum freight load)

A

3300 lb

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21
Q

with the exception of circuit breakers on which bus, and if not detailed otherwise in procedures, all tripped open circuit breakers are not allowed to be reset in flight

A

essential bus

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22
Q

circuit breakers on which bus, if tripped, may be reset how many times in flight providing what?

A

essential bus, once,
1. at least one minute has elapsed from the time of the circuit breaker trip
2. there is no remaining smoke or burning smell

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23
Q

Vmo

A

240 kias

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24
Q

Mmo

A

0.48 mach

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25
Q

Vo at 10450 lb

A

166 kias

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26
Q

Vo at 9921

A

161 kias

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27
Q

Vfe flaps 15

A

165 kias

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28
Q

Vfe flaps greater than 15

A

130 kias

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29
Q

Vlo

A

180 kias

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30
Q

Vle

A

240 kias

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31
Q

SHP - takeoff and climb

A

1200 SHP

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32
Q

SHP - cruise

A

1000 SHP

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33
Q

SHP - max reverse

A

900 SHP

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34
Q

Torque PSI - Takeoff and climb

A

44.34 PSI

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35
Q

Torque PSI - cruise

A

36.95 PSI

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36
Q

Torque PSI - max reverse

A

34.25 PSI

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37
Q

Max ITT - takeoff

A

850° C

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38
Q

Max ITT - climb and cruise

A

820° C

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39
Q

Max ITT - starting (limited to how many seconds maximum)

A

1000° C, 5 seconds

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40
Q

Max ITT - transient

A

870° C

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41
Q

Max ITT - max reverse

A

760° C

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42
Q

Ng - takeoff, climb, cruise and transient

A

104 %

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43
Q

Ng - min idle (G.I & F.I)

A

50.7 %, 64 %

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44
Q

Np RPM - Takeoff, climb, and cruise

A

1700 RPM

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45
Q

Np RPM - Transient (limited to how many seconds maximum)

A

1870 RPM

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46
Q

Np RPM - max reverse

A

1650 RPM

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47
Q

Oil pressure PSI - takeoff, climb, cruise, and max reverse

A

90 to 135 PSI

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48
Q

Oil Pressure PSI - min idle

A

60 PSI MIN

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49
Q

Oil pressure PSI - starting

A

200 PSI MAX

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50
Q

Oil pressure PSI - Transient (limited to how many seconds maximum)

A

40 to 200 PSI, 20 seconds maximum

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51
Q

Oil temp C - takeoff

A

10° to 110° C

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52
Q

Oil temp C - climb, cruise, and max reverse

A

10° to 105° C

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53
Q

Oil temp C - min idle and transient

A

-40° to 110° C

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54
Q

Oil temp C - starting

A

-40° C MIN

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55
Q

Oil pressure under what PSI are undesirable?

A

90 PSI

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56
Q

Under emergency conditions, to complete a flight, a lower oil pressure of what PSI is permissible at reduced power level not exceeding what Torque PSI

A

60 PSI, 23.9 PSI

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57
Q

Oil pressure below what PSI are unsafe and require that either the engine be shut down or a landing be made as soon as possible using the minimum power required to sustain flight

A

60 PSI

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58
Q

Anti-icing additive must be used for all flight operations in ambient temperatures below what temperature

A

0° C

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59
Q

Additive concentration must be between a minimum of what % and a maximum of what % by volume

A

0.06% to 0.15% by volume

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60
Q

The engine starting cycle shall be limited to the following intervals:

A
  1. sequence, 60 seconds OFF
  2. sequence, 60 seconds OFF
  3. sequence, 30 minutes OFF
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61
Q

Generator 1 max continuous load

A

300 AMP

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62
Q

Generator 1 max load for 2 minutes*

A

450 AMP *maximum load permitted for a 2 minute period per each one hour of operation

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63
Q

Starter/generator 2 max continuous load

A

300 AMP

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64
Q

Starter/generator 2 max load for 2 minutes *

A

450 AMP *maximum load permitted for a 2 minute period per each one hour of operation

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65
Q

Power control lever operation aft of the idle detent is prohibited:

A
  1. When the engine is not running
  2. During flight. Such operation may lead to a loss of airplane control and total power loss
  3. When the engine is controlled by the Manual Override System. Such operation may lead to a loss of airplane control or may result in an engine/propeller overspeed condition and consequent loss of engine power
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66
Q

Takeoff is not approved with what cation annunciator illuminated

A

ENGINE CHIP

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67
Q

Maximum floor loading - on seat rails

A

205 lb/ft squared

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68
Q

Maximum floor loading - on cabin floor

A

125 lb/ft squared

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69
Q

Forward CG limit at 10450 lb

A

232.2”

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70
Q

Aft CG limit at 10450 lb

A

240.43”

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71
Q

Forward CG limit at 9921 lb

A

232.2”

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72
Q

Aft CG limit at 9921 lb

A

240.94

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73
Q

Flight load limits with flaps up

A

+3.3 g, -1.32 g

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74
Q

Flight load limits with flaps down

A

+2.0 g, -0.0 g

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75
Q

The pneumatic deice system boots are required to be installed for what flights?

A

all flights

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76
Q

A preflight test of the pneumatic deice system boots are required before takeoff and flight into what conditions

A

known icing conditions

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77
Q

The pneumatic deice system boots is required to function properly for flight into what conditions

A

known icing conditions

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78
Q

Operation of the pneumatic deice system boots in ambient temperatures below and above what temperatures may cause permanent damage to the boots?

A

-40° C and +40° C

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79
Q

The wing and tail leading edge pneumatic deicing boot system must be activated at the first sign of what?

A

ice formation anywhere on the aircraft

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80
Q

The wing and tail leading edge pneumatic deicing boot system may be deactivated only after what?

A

leaving icing conditions and after that the aircraft is determined to be clear of ice

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81
Q

Flight in icing conditions is only approved with

A

all ice protection systems, generator 1 and generator 2 serviceable

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82
Q

flight in icing conditions is prohibited when what caution is active

A

Propeller de ice

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83
Q

during flight in icing conditions or flight with any visible ice accretion on the airframe, the following flap maximum extension limitations apply:

A
  • with operational airframe pneumatic deice boots: 15° FLAP
  • after failure of the airframe pneumatic deice boots: 0° FLAP
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84
Q

In the event of a balked landing go-around with residual ice on the airframe, the flaps should or should not be retracted from the 15° position

A

should not

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85
Q

The aircraft must be clear of all deposits of snow, ice and frost adhering to the lifting and control surfaces immediately prior to

A

takeoff

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86
Q

What light must be operative prior to flight into known or forecast icing conditions at night

A

Left wing inspection light

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87
Q

Total unusable fuel

A

4.8 gal, 32.9 lb

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88
Q

maximum fuel imbalance

A

26.4 gal, 178 lb

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89
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

30,000 ‘

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90
Q

Minimum outside air temperature

A

-55° C (-67° F)

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91
Q

Maximum outside air temperature

A

+50° C (122° F)

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92
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential

A

5.75 PSI

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93
Q

pressurized landing is approved up to

A

0.7 PSID

94
Q

Maximum number of occupants

A

9 plus pilots

95
Q

What is required of the Stall warning/stick pusher before takeoff

A

preflight function test

96
Q

The stall warning/stick pusher system is required to function properly in normal mode for all

A

flights and in ice mode for flight into known icing conditions

97
Q

To allow adequate cooling of the wheels and brakes the aircraft must remain on the ground for at least how many min following the two events:

A

45 min,

  • rejected takeoff with brake on speed greater than Vr -20 its and heavy brake usage
  • 0° flap full stop landing and heavy brake usage
98
Q

which trim systems must function properly for all flights

A

stabilizer normal and alternate, and rudder trim systems

99
Q

which heated windshields must function properly for all flights, and what is the exception

A

left hand and right hand
for IFR flights conducted into no known or forecast icing conditions at least one heating zone of the windshield on the side of the pilot in command must function properly

100
Q

what is required of the fire detection system for takeoff

A

preflight function test and system must function properly for all flihts

101
Q

what is required of the engine ice protection for takeoff

A

preflight function test

102
Q

A minimum oxygen supply of how many minutes duration for each occupant is required for dispatch for pressurized flight above what FL

A

10 minutes, FL250

103
Q

Flaps system cycle limits up to 25° C OAT

A

10

104
Q

Flaps system cycle limits from 25° C to 50° C OAT

A

8

105
Q

Minimum engagement height after takeoff of the autopilot is

A

400’ AGL

106
Q

with the exception of approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged below

A

1000’ AGL

107
Q

For non-precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged below

A

400’ AGL

108
Q

For approach procedures with vertical guidance in VGP mode, the autopilot must be disengaged below

A

200’ AGL

109
Q

For autopilot coupled ILS approaches up to 4° the autopilot must be disengaged below

A

200’ AGL

110
Q

Maximum approved glide slope angle for all coupled approaches is

A

4°

111
Q

The luggage area maximum load is

A

500 lb

112
Q

Vg - 10450 lb (propeller feathered)

A

119 KIAS

113
Q

Vg - 9920 lb (propeller feathered)

A

116 KIAS

114
Q

Landing approach speeds (minimum approach speed) with ice accretion on the airframe:
After failure of: Pneumatic Deice Boots (flaps limit 0°)

A

130 KIAS

115
Q

Landing approach speeds (minimum approach speed) with ice accretion on the airframe:
After failure of:

AOA probe deice

Pitot and static probe deice

Pusher ice mode (flaps limit 15°)

A

105 KIAS

116
Q

Balked landing (go around) speed after failure of:

Pneumatic deice boots (flaps limit 0°)

A

130 KIAS

117
Q

on the ground immediately after engine start if there is a rapid increase in ITT towards 1000° C, then:

A

Cutoff/feather

Dry motoring run

118
Q

on the ground immediately after engine start If Ng stays below 50% then:

A

flight idle

back to ground idle or

cutoff/feather
starter interrupt
after 30: dry motoring run

119
Q

Vr - flaps 15° (10450 lb)

A

82 KIAS

120
Q

Vr - flaps 30° (10450 lb)

A

76 KIAS

121
Q

Vx (10450 lb)

A

120 KIAS

122
Q

Vy (10450 lb) - Sea level to FL200

A

130 to 120 KIAS

123
Q

Recommended climb speed with flaps retracted and pusher ice mode (10450 lb)

A

135 KIAS

124
Q

Landing approach speed - flaps 0° (9921 lb)

A

120 KIAS

125
Q

Landing approach speed - flaps 15° (9921 lb)

A

99 KIAS

126
Q

Landing approach speed - flaps 30° (9921 lb)

A

89 KIAS

127
Q

Landing approach speed - flaps 40° (9921 lb)

A

85 KIAS

128
Q

Landing approach speed - flaps 15° pusher ice mode with residual ice on the airframe (9921 lb)

A

105 KIAS

129
Q

Balked Landing (Go around) speed - flaps 15° - gear down

A

98 KIAS

130
Q

Balked Landing (Go around) speed - flaps 30° - gear down

A

89 KIAS

131
Q

Balked Landing (Go around) speed - flaps 40° - gear down

A

85 KIAS

132
Q

Balked Landing (Go around) speed - flaps 15° - gear down, pusher ice mode

A

105 KIAS

133
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing (not a limitation) - flaps 0°

A

30 kts

134
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing (not a limitation) - flaps 15°

A

25 kts

135
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing (not a limitation) - flaps 30°

A

20 kts

136
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing (not a limitation) - flaps 40°

A

15 kts

137
Q

What kind of flight control system is used

A

conventional, using push-pull rods and carbon steel cables

138
Q

what drives the aileron, rudder, and elevator trim

A

electrical

139
Q

What type of flaps

A

Fowler

140
Q

If the flap lever is not at one of the four preset positions, what will drive the flaps to where?

A

the flap control and warning unit, to the nearest preset position

141
Q

how are the flaps actuated

A

electrically

142
Q

what drives the flaps

A

Power drive unit (PDU)

143
Q

If a failure (twisting) of the flaps is detected, what disconnects the power to the PDU and what CAS caution will be shown? can this condition be reset by pilot action?

A

the Flap control and warning unit (FCWU),

a Flaps caution

no

144
Q

When flaps are set to 15°, flap panel asymmetry occurs when the difference between the left and right flap angle exceeds the angle of

A

1.6°

145
Q

When flap position is between 15° and 30°, flap panel asymmetry occurs when the difference between the left and right flap angle exceeds the angle of

A

4.3°

146
Q

When flap position is between 30° and 40°, flap panel asymmetry occurs when the difference between the left and right flap angle exceeds the angle of

A

5°

147
Q

what will cause pusher safe mode to activate

A

if flap asymmetry or twist is detected and the flap angle is greater than 2° after ten seconds

148
Q

what will cause a takeoff configuration CAS advisory

A

If any of the trims or the flap position are not in the takeoff range with the engine running

149
Q

what will cause a NO TAKEOFF warning on the PFD and an aural no takeoff callout

A

if any of the trims or the flap position are not in the takeoff range or the condition lever is not at flight idle and the engine torque is increased more than 20 PSI with an airspeed of less than 50 KIAS

150
Q

how is the landing gear extended and retracted

A

hydraulic pressure produced by an electrically powered hydraulic

151
Q

how is hydraulic pressure maintained to hold the gear in the retracted position in normal operation and following a hydraulic system failure

A

a nitrogen charged accumulator

152
Q

how can the gear be lowered if required

A

manually through a combination of free-falling and the emergency landing gear hand pump

153
Q

how is nose wheel steering accomplished

A

mechanical nose wheel steering and by differential braking

154
Q

what assists the nose gear in free fall during emergency extension

A

A spring attached to the nose gear

155
Q

how long will the nitrogen charged accumulator hold the gear up after power pack failure

A

200 minutes

156
Q

what will may happen 200 minutes after power pack failure

A

the landing gear may start to extend due to loss of system pressure

157
Q

why would the CAS show a hydraulics caution on ground after landing

A

the power pack has been automatically initiated in flight more than 6 times in an hour

158
Q

what will cause the FAS to initiate a gear warning message on the PFD and an aural warning

A

if the landing gear is not down and locked whilst in the air with:
- an airspeed of less than 130 KIAS and the PCL at idle
- the flaps set to 30° or 40°
- a radar altitude of less than 200’ and a power setting of less than 10 PSI

159
Q

what airspeed to manually extend the landing gear

A

110 KIAS (hydraulic)
120 KIAS (electric)

160
Q

if the landing gear Does not completely extend and show three green -

A

pull the emergency landing gear hand pump handle out and pump 60-80 times. Yaw the airplane to assist if necessary

161
Q

If the pilot and copilot simultaneously apply pressure to the same side brake pedal, which one will control the braking

A

the one applying the greatest pressure

162
Q

What type of engine is the PT6a-67P

A

reverse flow, free turbine engine

163
Q

how is engine inter turbine temperature measured

A

between the compressor and power turbine

164
Q

the MOR controls the engine power in case of a

A

pneumatic failure of the engine fuel control or in case of a PCL system failure

165
Q

what Ng must be maintained when using the MOR

A

do not permit the Ng to fall below 65 %. in descent and until touchdown 75 % or above

166
Q

what is the prohibited RPM range of the PCL

A

350 to 950 RPM

167
Q

when starting the engine when will the starter automatically disengage and the green starter annunciator go off

A

when the engine Ng reaches 50% or 80 seconds after the start sequence.

168
Q

what is the starter engagement time limited to for air starts

A

60 seconds

169
Q

Which battery provides the electrical power to maintain the essential systems during engine start

A

battery 1

170
Q

what does battery 1 provide electrical power to maintain during engine starts

A

essential systems

171
Q

what occurs at either 10% Ng or ten seconds after starter activation

A

Battery one is connected to the starter circuit to further enhance starter capability

172
Q

At what temperature should you follow procedure for starting with a cold engine

A

below +5° C

173
Q

what is the starting procedure for a cold engine (below +5° C)

A

Flight idle above 13% Ng, then ground idle when Ng is above 50%

174
Q

how to resolve lower than normal engine rpm (Ng) or propeller RPM (Np) after engine start

A

flight idle, beta, or inhibiting ACS

175
Q

when will ignition activate when set to auto

A

it will activate when ITT is less than 500° C and the Ng is 10% or more, and stops 10 seconds after the ITT is more than 500° C and when the Ng is less than 10%

176
Q

when should ignition manually be switched to on

A

when operating in heavy precipitation

177
Q

what causes the CAS warning “engine fire” red

A

the release of hydrogen gas causing a pressure rise

178
Q

In case that neither the CSU nor the overspeed governor limit the propeller speed, what will limit the engine power to not exceed what %/RPM

A

the Nf governor will limit the engine power to not exceed (Np 109 %) 1853 rpm

179
Q

should the CSU governor fail, what will limit the engine power and to what Np/RPM

A

the overspeed governor will limit the propeller speed (Np) to 106 % (1802 RPM)

180
Q

what type of de-ice does each propeller blade have

A

an electrically heated boot on the inboard upper and lower leading edge

181
Q

how does the propeller deice timer unit select the appropriate cycle

A

automatically depending on IOAT

182
Q

which propeller deice boot will activate first

A

all inner zones followed by all outer zone

183
Q

describe the 3 modes of the propeller deice

A

mode 1 (warmer than 0° C) - timer in standby

Mode 2 (0° C or colder but not colder than -16° C) -
45 sec - all inner zones are heated
45 sec - all outer zones are heated
90 sec - blade heating OFF

Mode 3 (colder than -16° C)
90 sec - all inner zones are heated
90 sec - all outer zones are heated

184
Q

when the propeller deice system is powered on the deice timer first performs a test which lasts how long

A

20 seconds

185
Q

what balances the fuel level in each wing

A

electric booster pumps

186
Q

how is fuel symmetry maintained

A

automatically by the Fuel control and monitoring unit (FCMU)

187
Q

what pump transfers fuel from the wing tank to the collector tank

A

the transfer jet pump

188
Q

when will the electric booster pump automatically operate to balance fuel

A

when fuel asymmetry exceeds 68 lbs

189
Q

at what degree of fuel asymmetry must the fuel be balanced manually

A

267 lbs

190
Q

what amount of fuel is represented by one segment of the analogue gauge

A

50 lbs

191
Q

at what degree of fuel imbalance is takeofff prohibited

A

more than 178 lbs

192
Q

what does PGDS stand for and what are its components

A

Power Generation Distribution System

Generator 1 - 28V, 300A
Generator 2 - 28V, 300A
Battery 1 - 24V, 42A
Battery 2 - 24V, 42A
EPS - 24V, 5A

193
Q

What monitors the condition of the generators for under and over voltage and the batteries for under and over voltage and over current (discharge)

A

the Modular Avionics Unit (MAU)

194
Q

what range must the external power VDC be in

A

22 to 29.5

195
Q

how long will the EPS provide power in case of a dual generator and dual battery loss

A

30 min

196
Q

What buses are powered by Generator 1

A

Essential, Avionics 1,

197
Q

what buses are powered by generator 2

A

Main, Avionics 2, non essential, cabin

198
Q

What buses power the PFD’s and MFD’s

A

E
M
S
A2

essential - pilots PFD
main - upper MFD
standby - lower MFD
avionics 2 - copilots PFD

199
Q

what is on the EPS bus

A

ESIS, CPCS, OXYGEN

200
Q

what lights will turn on when the switch on the forward edge of the passenger door is pressed and how long will they stay on

A

for 45 seconds
cockpit overhead panel
dome light
passenger door light
stair lights -for 4 minutes longer
cabin flood lights
(stair lights

201
Q

what is the environmental control system (ECS) comprised of

A

ACS
Auxiliary heaters
Vapor Cycle Cooling System (VCCS)

202
Q

What does the Air cycle cooling system (ACS) do

A

cools engine bleed air for pressurization and ventilation

203
Q

ACS bleed air will be taken exclusively from which bleed port during normal operation

A

P2.5

204
Q

The cabin Pressure Control System comprises:

A

-Cabin pressure control unit (CPCU)
-Cabin pressure control & monitoring unit (ECMU)
-electrically driven Outflow Valve (OFV)
-pneumatic safety pressure relief valve (PRV)
-2 negative pressure relief valves (NPRV)

205
Q

what does the CPCU/ECMU do

A

controls rate of exhaust that ACS supplies for ventilation and maintains cabin pressure

206
Q

what does low cabin mode do

A

uses Landing field elevation as the target cabin altitude up to a maximum pressure differential of 5.75 PSI

207
Q

at what cabin altitude will the CPCS automatically select the passenger oxygen to ON when the passenger oxygen control valve selector is set to AUTO

A

13500’

208
Q

location of fire extinguisher

A

behind copilots seat

209
Q

which pitot system supplies pitot pressure to the ESIS

A

the No. 2 (right side) pitot system

210
Q

how many of the stall warning/stick pusher computers are required to provide stall warning (shaker & warning) vs activation of the pusher

A

1 for warning/shaker, both for pusher

211
Q

how long is the pusher inhibited for after takeoff

A

5 seconds

212
Q

when are the shaker and stall warning operative after lift off

A

immediately after lift off

213
Q

when operated in pusher ice mode all the shaker and pusher actuating points measured by the angle of attack vanes are reduced by how much

A

8°

214
Q

pusher ice mode is set when

A

the propeller de-icing system is switched to ON and the inertial separator is set to OPEN

215
Q

what occurs when you perform the pusher test in the air by pressing and holding the test switch

A

pusher ice mode advisory
“stall” warning with shaker for 2 sec
1 sec pause
“stall” warning with shaker for 2 secs

216
Q

as the airplane approaches stall (how many knots before pusher actuation) the stick shaker and the “stall” warning will activate when

A

(5-10 knots before pusher actuator)
when one of the AOA pusher computers senses the defined angle of attack for stall warning/stick shaker activation.

217
Q

if the “stall” warnings are ignored and the approach to stall is continued, the stick pusher will activate when

A

when both AOA pusher computers sense the defined angle of attack for pusher activation

218
Q

will the activation of the shaker disengage the autopilot

A

yes

219
Q

what activates pusher safe mode

A

flap asymmetry greater than 2° for 10 seconds or more

220
Q

what does pusher safe mode do

A

the stall warning trigger thresholds operate at the 0° flap position settings irrespective of the flap position

221
Q

which bleed air is used for the pneumatic deice boots on the leading edges of the wings and the horizontal stabilizer

A

P3

222
Q

in what order are the deicing boots inflated and for how many seconds

A

8 seconds each (40 sec total)
horizontal stabilizer
lower portion of inboard wing
upper portion
lower portion of the outboard wing
upper portion

223
Q

how long is the deice boots dwell period between inflations when set to the 1 minute or 3 minute cycle

A

(20 sec dwell period in case the switch was selected by accident)
repeated immediately in the one minute cycle
140 seconds in the 3 minute cycle

224
Q

if the deice boots control system is deactivated during a deicing cycle, will the cycle be completed before system shutdown

A

yes

225
Q

ELT location

A

rear feuselage

226
Q

AGM 1 drives which PFD and MFD

A

pilit PFD and upper MFD

227
Q

AGM 2 drives which PFD and MFD

A

copilots PFD and lower MFD

228
Q

DU 1 through 4 drive which PFD and MFD’s

A

DU 1 - pilots PFD
DU 2 - upper MFD
DU 3 - lower MFD
DU 4 - copilots PFD

229
Q

what indication is there in the event of AGM failure and what is the appropriate response

A

RED X’s across the pilots or copilots PFD

twist AGM knob to opposite AGM

230
Q

static and pitot pressure inputs to the ESIS which pitot/static system

A

the right hand No. 2 pitot/static system and a separate magnetometer in the right wing

231
Q

tire pressure

A

60 (+3 -0) PSI

232
Q
A

Lana'i Air PC-12NG/47E (3 decks)

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