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AAInstrument Check RIde > Pilotscafe Review > Flashcards

Pilotscafe Review Flashcards

1
Q

VDP Visual Descent Point

A

A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straightin approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin provided adequate visual reference is established.

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2
Q

Standard VOR Service volumes Terminal:

A

Terminal: 1000ft to 12000 ft 25 NM

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3
Q

Standard VOR Service volumes LOW

A

1000ft to 18000 40 NM

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4
Q

Standard VOR Service volumes HIG

A

1000-14.500: 40 14.500-18.000: 100 18.000-45.000: 130 45.000-65.000: 100

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5
Q

VOR limitations:

A

􏰀 Cone of confusion. 􏰀 Reverse sensing.(if used incorrectly) 􏰀 Requires line of site to station.

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6
Q

VOR receiver checks: (§91.171) Every 30 calendar days.

A

􏰀 VOT ±4° 􏰀 Repair station ±4° 􏰀 VOR ground checkpoint ±4° 􏰀 VOR airborne checkpoint ±6° 􏰀 Dual VOR cross-check ±4° 􏰀 Above a prominent groundlandmark on a selected radial at least 20 NM from a VOR, flying at a “reasonably low altitude” ±6°

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7
Q

VOR check signoff: (§91.171)

A

D.E.P.S 􏰀 D- Date 􏰀 E- Error 􏰀 P- Place 􏰀 S- Signature

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8
Q

What is cone of confusion?

A

VOR cone of silence/confusion is where the signal is too small to be correctly interpreted by the VOR receiver,

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9
Q

Explain reverse sensing on VOR

A

Reverse sensing occurs when the current heading is on the bottom half of the VOR.

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10
Q

What is HAT?

A

Hight above touchdown zone. MDA

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11
Q

NAVAID

A

A navaid is a physical device on the ground that airplanes can detect and fly to. Modern examples include NDBs and VORs

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12
Q

What is EFC?

A

Expect-Further-Clearance

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13
Q

What are the components of ILS approach?

A

LocalizerGlide-slopeMarker Beacons

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14
Q

Error of glide slope

A

False glide slope above normal glide slope.

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15
Q

Approach Light System (ALS)

A

􏰀 Helps the transition between radio-guided flights into a visual approach. 􏰀 Can help in estimating flight visibility if you know the dimensions of the specific ALS configuration.

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16
Q

what is Marker beacons

A

􏰀 Provides range information over specific points along the approach. Transmits at 75 MHz.

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17
Q

What are the types of marker beacons?

A

Outer Marker Middle MarkerInner MarkerBack Course Marker

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18
Q

What is outer marker

A

􏰀 Outer marker: 4-7 miles out. Indicate the position at which the aircraft should intercept the GS at the appropriateinterception altitude ±50ft. BLUE. “- - -“

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19
Q

what is Middle Marker

A

􏰀 Middle marker: ~3500ft from the runway. Indicates the approximate point where the GS meets the decision height.Usually 200ft above the touchdown zone elevation. AMBER. “. - . -”

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20
Q

what is Inner Marker

A

􏰀 Inner marker: between the MM and runway threshold. Indicates the point where the glide slope meets the DH on a CAT II

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21
Q

what is Back Course Marker

A

ILS approach. WHITE. “. . .”􏰀 Back course marker: Indicates the FAF on selected back course approaches. Not a part of the ILS approach. WHITE. “.. ..”

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22
Q

What are the Types of altitudes?

A

􏰀 Indicated altitude – 􏰀 Pressure altitude – 􏰀 Density altitude 􏰀 True altitude 􏰀 Absolute altitude –

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23
Q

Indicated altitude –

A

Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting (QNH).

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24
Q

Pressure altitude –

A

Altitude above the standard 29.92. Hg plane. (QNE)

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25
Q

Density altitude

A

– pressure alt. corrected for nonstandard temperature. Used for performance calculations.

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26
Q

True altitude

A

– Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL).

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27
Q

Absolute altitude –

A

Height above airport elevation (QFE).

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28
Q

What is approach light system ALS

A

􏰀 Helps the transition between radio-guided flights into a visual approach.􏰀 Can help in estimating flight visibility if you know the dimensions of the specific ALS configuration.

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29
Q

Rate of decent for a 3° glide slope:

A

ground speed X 5 = vs to maintain; Or,10 X ground speed / 2 = VSExample: 120 KT X 5 = 600 fpm or,10 X 120 KT / 2 = 600 fpm

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30
Q

How far out to start a descent?

A

(3° glide) Altitude to lose / 300 Example: 6000’ to lose, start descent 20 NM out. (6000/300 = 20 NM)

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31
Q

Convert climb gradient from ft/NM to fpm

A

ft/nm requirement X NM per Minute Ex.: DP requires 300 ft/NM climb. Your ground speed is 120KT, which is 2NM per minute (120 KT / 60 min = 2 NM per min). 300 x 2 = 600 fpm

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32
Q

Class A Weather Minimums

A

IFR only

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33
Q

Class E above 10,000’ MSL Class G above 10,000’ MSL 1,200’ AGL

A

5SM, 1000’ above, 1000’ below, 1SM horizontal

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34
Q

Class G above 1200’ AGL but below 10,000’

A

1SM, 1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal.

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35
Q

Class E below 10,000’ MS

A

3SM, 1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal

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36
Q

G below 1200’ AGL Day

A

Day: 1SM clear of clouds

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37
Q

G below 1200’ AGL Night

A

3SM, 1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal or 1SM clear of clouds if in a traffic pattern within 1⁄2 SM from the runway.

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38
Q

Class D and C weather minimums

A

3SM, 1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal.

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39
Q

Class B Weather Minimums

A

3SM visibility & stay clear of clouds

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40
Q

Types of speeds

A

􏰀 Indicated airspeed (IAS) – 􏰀 Calibrated airspeed (CAS) – 􏰀 Equivalent airspeed (EAS) – 􏰀 True airspeed (TAS) – Ground speed –

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41
Q

􏰀 Indicated airspeed (IAS) –

A

indicated on the airspeed indicator

42
Q

􏰀 Indicated airspeed (IAS) –

A

IAS corrected for instrument & position errors.

43
Q

􏰀 Equivalent airspeed (EAS) –

A

CAS corrected for compressibility error.

44
Q

􏰀 True airspeed (TAS) –

A

Actual speed through the air.

45
Q

Ground speed –

A

Actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind

46
Q

Static port blockage:Airspeed indicator –

A

Airspeed indicator – Shows correct airspeed as long as you maintain the same altitude at which the blockage occurred. At higher altitudes airspeed will indicate lower than it should. At lower altitudes – higher than it should.

47
Q

Static port blockage: Altimeter and VSI

A

Altimeter – will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked. VSI – freezes on zero. After verifying a blockage in the static port, you should use an alternate staticsource or break the VSI window (in that case, expect reverse VSI information).

48
Q

Static port blockage: and alternate static source is used

A

Airspeed indicator – indicate faster than it should. Altimeter – indicate higher than it should. VSI – momentarily show a climb.

49
Q

Pitot blockage:

A

–The only instrument affected is the airspeed indicator.Ram air inlet is clogged and drain hole open – Airspeed will drop to zero.Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged – The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable. –When you suspect a pitot blockage, consider the use of pitot heat to melt ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube.

50
Q

What are the gyroscopic instruments?

A

Attitude indicator Heading indicator Turn indicators

51
Q

What does turn coordinator show?

A

Rate-of-turn and rate of roll.

52
Q

What are the Magnetic compass errors & limitations:?

A

D- Deviation V- Variation M- Magnetic dip O- Oscillation N- North/south turn errors

53
Q

What are the turn errors of compass?

A

(Northern hemisphere: UNOS Undershoot North/ Overshoot South) A- Acceleration errors (Northern hemisphere: ANDS Accelerate North/ Decelerate South)

54
Q

Instrument checks while taxi?

A

1) Airspeed – 0 KIAS. 2) Turn coordinator – ball centered and wings level when not turning. On turns: shows turn in correct direction, ball goes to opposite direction of the turn. 3) Attitude – Correct pitch attitude and bank angle ±°5 within 5 minutes. 4) Heading indicator – Set and shows correct headings. Altimeter – Set to local altimeter settings or field elevation. Shows correct field elevation ±75 feet. 5) VSI – 0 fpm. 6) Magnetic compass – swings freely, full of fluid, shows known headings and deviation card is installed. Marker beacons – Tested. 7) NAV & Comm – Set. 8) GPS – Checked and set. 9) EFIS cockpits – Check PFD/MFD/EICAS for ‘X’s, messages and removed symbols.

55
Q

What are the en-route weather information sources?

A

En route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) DATALINK 􏰀 Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) 􏰀 Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS) 􏰀 Automated Weather Observation System (AWOS) 􏰀 ATC - Center weather advisories are issued by ARTCC

56
Q

En route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS)

A

122.0 MHz at 5,000-17,500 MSL

57
Q

What is a Convective SIGMET (WST) - Contains either an observation and a forecast or only a forecast. Severe thunderstorms due to:

A

An inflight advisory of convective weather significant to all aircraft.

58
Q

how often convective SIGMET is issued?

A

Issued hourly at 55 minutes past the hour. Valid for 2 hours.

59
Q

how often convective SIGMET is issued?

A

Issued hourly at 55 minutes past the hour. Valid for 2 hours.

60
Q

When does a Convective SIGMETs are issued?

A

1) Surface winds greater or equal to 50 knots 2) Hail at the surface greater than 3/4 inch in diameter 3) Tornadoes 4) Embedded thunderstorms 5) A line of thunderstorms at least 60 miles long affecting 40% of its length 6) Thunderstorms producing heavy or greater precipitation affecting more than 40% of an area of at least 3000 square miles. 7) Convective SIGMETs always implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, or low level wind shear.

61
Q

how often a SIGMET issued?

A

A non-scheduled inflight advisory with a maximum forecast period of 4 hours.

62
Q

When does a SIGMETs are issued?

A

Advises of non-convective weather potentially hazardous to all types of aircraft. A SIGMET is issued when the following is expected to occur: o Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms o Severe or extreme turbulence or Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms. o Dust storms, sandstorms lowering surface visibility below 3 miles. o Volcanic ash

63
Q

What does AIRMET (WA) tell us?

A

An advisory of significant weather phenomena at lower intensities than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs

64
Q

How often Airmet is valid?

A

6 hours

65
Q

AIRMET (T) -

A

1) Moderate turbulence, 2) sustained surface winds of 30 knots or 3) greater, and/or non-convective low-level wind shear.

66
Q

AIRMET (Z) -

A

1) moderate icing and provides freezing level heights.

67
Q

AIRMET (S) -

A

1) IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations.

68
Q

What is TAF?

A

TAF – Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

69
Q

What is the coverage of TAF and home many times issues in a day

A

5SM radius area around the station. Issued 4 times a day, every six hours and normally cover a 24 hours

70
Q

Aviation Area Forecast (FA)

A

1) A forecast of weather condition over an area of several states. 2) When there isn’t a TAF available for your route, check the FAs together with SIGMETs, AIRMETs and other information. 3) Area forecasts are issued 3 times a day (or 4 times for the Caribbean, Alaska and Hawaii regions)

71
Q

Surface analysis chart

A

1) Shows pressure systems, isobars, fronts, airmass boundaries (such as: drylines and outflow boundaries) and 2) station information (such as: wind, temperature/dew point, sky coverage, and precipitation). Issued every 3 hours.

72
Q

Weather depiction chart

A

Depicts areas of VFR (at least 3000’ ceiling and 5SM visibility), Marginal VFR IFR (less than 1000’ ceiling and/or 3SM visibility, shown as shaded areas).

73
Q

Radar summary chart (SD

A

Depicts precipitation type, intensity, coverage, movement, echoes, and maximum tops. Issued hourl

74
Q

Wind & temp aloft forecasts (FB)

A

1) Issued 4 times daily for different altitudes and flight levels. 2) Winds within 1500’ AGL and temperatures within 2500’ AGL are not shown. 3) Light and variable winds: 9900. 4) Winds between 100-199 Kt are coded by adding 5 to the first digit of the wind direction. Examples:1312+05 = 7525-02 = winds 250 at 125 kt temperature -02° C. A

75
Q

Low level significant weather chart

A

1) Forecasts significant weather conditions for a 12 and 24 hour period from the surface to 400 mb level (24,000 ft). Issued 4 times a day. 2) Depicts weather categories (IFR, MVFR and VFR), turbulence and freezing levels.

76
Q

Mid-level significant weather chart

A

1) Depict forecasts of significant weather at various altitudes and flight levels from 10,000’ MSL.to FL450. 2) Shows: thunderstorms, jet streams, tropopause height, tropical cyclones, moderate and severe icing conditions, moderate or severe turbulence, cloud coverage and type, volcanic ash and areas of released radioactive materials. Issued 4 times a day for the North Atlantic Region.

77
Q

High-level significant weather charts –

A

1) Depicts forecasts of significant weather phenomena for FL250 to FL630. 2) Shows: coverage bases and tops of thunderstorms and CB clouds, moderate and severe turbulence, jet streams, tropopause heights, tropical cyclones, severe squall lines, volcanic eruption sites, widespread sand and dust storms. Issued 4 times a day.

78
Q

Convective outlook (AC)

A

1) Available in both graphical and textual format. 2) A 3-day forecast of convective activity. Convective areas are classified as slight (SLGT), moderate (MDT), and high (HIGH) risk for severe thunderstorms. 3) Issuance: day 1 – 5 times a day, day 2 – twice a day, day 3 – once a day

79
Q

Conditions necessary for the formation of thunderstorms

A
  1. Sufficient water vapor (humidity) 2. An unstable temperature lapse rate 3. An initial uplifting force (such as: front passage, mountains, heating from below, etc.)
80
Q

Thunderstorm hazards -

A

Limited visibility, wind shear, strong updrafts and downdrafts, icing, hailstones, heavy rain, severe turbulence, lightning strikes and tornadoes.

81
Q

Life cycle of a thunderstorm

A

􏰀Cumulus stage (3-5 mile height) – lifting action of the air begins. Growth rate may exceed 3000 fpm. 􏰀Mature stage (5-10 miles height) – begins when precipitation has become to fall from the cloud base. Updraft at this stage may exceed 6000 fpm. Downdrafts may exceed 2500 fpm. All thunderstorm hazards are at their greatest intensity at the mature stage. 􏰀Dissipating stage (5-7 miles height) – characterized by strong downdrafts and the cell is dying rapidly.

82
Q

Fog –

A

A cloud that begins within 50 ft of the surface. Occurs when the air temperature near the ground reaches its dew point, or when the dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture to the air.

83
Q

Types of Fogs

A

1) Radiation fog – 2) Advection fog – 3) Ice fog 4) Upslope fog 5) Steam fog

84
Q

􏰀Radiation fog

A

Occurs at calm clear nights when the ground cools rapidly due to the release of ground radiation.

85
Q

􏰀Advection fog

A

Warm, moist air moves over a cold surface. Winds are required for advection fog to form.

86
Q

􏰀Ice fog

A

Forms when the temperature is much below freezing and water vapor turns directly into ice crystals.

87
Q

Upslope fog

A

Moist, stable air is forced up a terrain slope and cooled down to its dew point by adiabatic cooling.

88
Q

Steam fog

A

Cold, dry air moves over warm water. Moisture is added to the airmass and steam fog forms.

89
Q

Types of Icing

A

Structural ice Clear ice Rime ice Mixed ice Intake ice Carburetor ice Frost Ice

90
Q

Structural ice –

A

Two conditions for formation: 1.Visible moisture (clouds, fog, precipitation) 2. Aircraft surface temperature below freezing.

91
Q

Clear ice–

A

most dangerous type. Heavy, hard and difficult to remove. Forms when water drops freeze slowly as a smooth sheet of solid ice. Usually occurs at temperatures close to the freezing point (-10° to 0° C) by large supercooled drops of water

92
Q

Rime ice

A

Opaque, white, rough ice formed by small supercooled water drops freezing quickly. Occurs at lower temperatures then clear ice does.

93
Q

Mixed ice –

A

Clear and rime ice formed simultaneously.

94
Q

Intake ice

A

Blocks the engine intake.

95
Q

Carburetor ice

A

May form due to the steep temperature drop in the carburetor venturi. Typical conditions are outside air temperatures of -7° to 21° C and a high relative humidity (above 80%).

96
Q

Frost

A

Ice crystals caused by sublimation when both the temperature and the dew point are below freezing.

97
Q

Instrument ice

A

structural ice forming over aircraft instruments and sensors, such as pitot and static. 􏰀Induction ice – ice reducing the amount of air for the engine intake.

98
Q

Oxygen requirements (§91.211)

A

1) Cabin pressure altitudes 12,500-14,000ft - crew must use supplemental O2 for periods of flight over 30 minutes at these altitudes. 2) Cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000ft – crew must be provided with and use supplemental O2 the entire flight time at these altitudes. 3) Cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000ft – each occupant must be provided with supplemental O2.

99
Q

What are the 2 options if VDP is not established?

A

If not equipped to identify the VDP, fly the approach as if no VDP was published. When a VDP is not published you can use this formula to calculate it: VDP (in NM from threshold) = HAT/300, or10% of HAT = seconds to subtract from time to MAP

100
Q

What is MEL?

A

Minimum Equipment List

101
Q

Who need to approve MEL?

A

FAA

102
Q

What airplanes are can be operated with inoperative equipment?

A

Rotorcraft, non-turbine-powered airplane, glider, lighter-than-air aircraft,

AAInstrument Check RIde (12 decks)

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