IFR Regulations Requirments Flashcards

1
Q

Instrument Rating Requirements

A
  1. current private pilot certificate
  2. Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language.
  3. At least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command. At least 10 of these hours must be in airplanes for an instrument-airplane rating.
  4. A total of 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time on the areas of operation listed in 61.65(c).
  5. At least 15 hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in the aircraft category for the instrument rating sought.
  6. Cross-country flight
  • A distance of at least 250 nm along airways or ATC-directed routing.
  • An instrument approach at each airport.
  • Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems (Example: ILS, VOR, GPS, etc)

7) At least 3 hours of instrument training in preparation for the checkride within two calendar months before the examination date.

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2
Q

Aircraft documents required for flight:

A

A- Airworthiness certificate

R-Registration certificate

R-Radio station license (for international flights)

O-Operating limitations & AFM

W-Weight & Balance data

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3
Q

Aircraft maintenance inspections required for IFR

A

A- Annual inspection every 12 cal. Months

V- VOR every 30 days

I- 100 hour inspection

A- Altimeter, altitude reporting and static system every 24 cal. months

T- Transponder every 24 months

E- ELT every 12 months

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4
Q

Preflight info required for IFR: (§91.103)

A

W- Weather reports and forecasts

K- Known traffic delays as advised by ATC.

R- Runway length of intended use.

A- Alternatives available if flight cannot be completed as planned.

F- Fuel requirements 

T- Takeoff and landing performance data.

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5
Q

Preflight self-assessment:

A

I- Illness

M- Medication

S- Stress

A- Alcohol (“8 hours bottle to throttle”; no more than .04% of alcohol in blood)

F- Fatigue

E- Emotion

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6
Q

P.A.V.E. Checklist

A

P- Pilot (general health, physical / mental / emotional state, proficiency, currency)

A- Aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance)

V- EnVironment (weather hazards, terrain, airports / runways to be used & other conditions)

E- External pressure (meetings, people waiting at destination, etc.)

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7
Q

In PAVE Explain Pilot

A
  • IMSAFE
  • Scuba Diving
  • Currency
  • Documents
  • MY PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS
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8
Q

In Pave explian: Aircraft

A

ARROW

AVIATES

ATOMATO FFLAMES

FLAPS (Night flight)

AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS

EMERGENCIES

CAN I FLY WITH INOPERATIVE EQUIPMENT?

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9
Q

In PAVE explain environment.

A

Density Altitude

Do I need oxygen?

Are we flying at night?

Airport concerns

Airspace

Weather

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10
Q

What is the Acohol requirment?

A

Alcohol - No alcohol in the least 8 hours

  • Below 0.04% limit
  • No hangover, no impairment, no drugs
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11
Q

Scuba Diving Regulation

A

For non-controlled ascent wait 12 hours to 8000 feet -

For controlled ascent or flights above 8000 ft wait at least 24 hours

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12
Q

How can you log instrument time?

A

under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions and hood

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13
Q

Instrument PIC recency of experience:

A

1) Last 6 calendar months (under actual/simulated instrument or Flight Training Device/simulator, in the same aircraft category), logged: (“6 HITS”)
2) 6 instrument approaches.
3) Holding procedures & tasks.
4) Intercept & Track courses through the use of electronic navigation Systems.

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14
Q

Recency with ATD (basically an approved PC-based flight simulator + hardware)

A

in the last 2 calendar months prior to the flight:

1) 3 hours instrument experience.
2) Holding procedures & tasks.
3) 6 instrument approaches.
4) 2 unusual attitude recoveries in a descending Vne condition.
5) 2 unusual attitude recoveries in an ascending stall speed condition.

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15
Q

Not Current back in 6 months. Next?

A

6 HITS with and safety pilot.

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16
Q

Requierment for the safety pilot

A
  1. Vision forward to each side of the planedual controls
  2. At least a Private pilot for the appropriate class and category
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17
Q

Not current in pass 12 calendar months

A

Instrument proficiency check by a CFI II or examiner.

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18
Q

Requirement to carry passengers

A
  1. 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days in the same category, class and type.
  2. At periods between 1 hours after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise, 3 take-offs and landings to a full stop during 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour sunrise last 90 days.
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19
Q

requirement to act as a PIC

A

Flight review in the last 24 calendar month

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20
Q

What does the IFR plan is required?

A
  1. IFR Conditions to controlled airspace
  2. Class A
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21
Q

How to file IFR plan?

A
  1. FSS
  2. DUATS (Online)
22
Q

How long a IFR plan is stored?

A

1.5 hours from the proposed time of departure

23
Q

Cancelation of an IFR flight plan?

A
  1. Towered airports –Automatically canceled by ATC upon landing.
  2. Non-towered airports – you must contact ATC/FSS to cancel.
  3. Can cancel anytime not in IMC and outside class A airspace.
24
Q

When Do you need an alternate?

A
  1. (“1-2-3” or “1-2003” rule) §91.169
  2. If within 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA forecasted weather is less then:2000 ft ceiling and/or3 SM visibility
25
Q

IFR minimum altitudes

A
  1. Mountainous areas: 2,000ft above highest obstacle within 4NM
  2. Non-mountainous areas: 1,000ft above highest obstacle within 4NM of course. (§91.177)
26
Q

IFR cruising altitudes(Based on Magnetic Course)

A
  1. 180-359: Even Thousands or flight levels
  2. 0-179: Odd thousands or flight levels
27
Q

IFR minimum fuel requirements

A

to destination + alternate +45 minutes

28
Q

IFR takeoff minimums

A
  1. No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations
  2. Part 121, 125, 129, 135: Prescribed T/O minimums for specific runway, or, if none: 1-2 engines: 1 SM visibility More than 2 engines: ½ SM visibility
29
Q

Basic IFR departure clearance items

A

C-Clearance Limit 

R-Route 

A-Altitude 

F-Frequency (for departure )

T-Transponder code

30
Q

Clearance void time

A
  1. The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff.
  2. You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart.
31
Q

Holding pattern timing

A
  1. At or below 14,000’ MSL – 1 minute
  2. Above 14,000’ MSL – 1.5 minutes
  3. DME/GPS holds – fly the outbound leg to the specified distance from the fix/waypoint.
32
Q

“Hold for release” – Release time –

A

You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure.

The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR.

33
Q

Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)

A

– A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports.

Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.

34
Q

Mandatory Report under IFR

A

M-Missed approach

A-Airspeed ±10kt / 5% change of filed

R-Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude

V-VFR on top

E*-ETA change ±3 min

L-Leaving a holding fix/point

O*-Outer marker

U-Unforecasted weather

S-Safety of flight

V-Vacating an altitude/FL

F*-Final approach fix

R-Radio/Nav failure

C*-Compulsory reporting points

500-unable climb/descent 500 fpm *required only in a non-radar environment (including ATC radar failure)

35
Q

When do you need to report, what information do you need to give?

A

1) Aircraft ID
2) Position
3) Time
4) Altitude/flight level
5) Type of flight plan (except for communicating withARTCC/approach control)
6) ETA
7) The name only of the next succeeding reporting point along the route of flight
8) Any pertinent remarks

36
Q

Max holding speeds

A

Up to 6000’ MSL – 200 KIAS

6001’-14,000’ MSL – 230 KIAS

Above 14,000’ MSL – 265 KIAS

37
Q

Lost Communication Altitude to fl

A

M – Minimum altitude prescribed for IFR

E – Expected (e.g. “expect 5000ft after 10 minutes”)

A – last altitude Assigned by ATC

38
Q

Lost Communication Route to fly

A

A.V.E.F – select route by the following order:

A –Assigned route, if none:

V –Vectored (fly to the fix/route/airway last vectored to), if none:

E –last Expected route by ATC, if none:

F – Filed route

39
Q

What is clearance limit?

A

The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control

40
Q

Is the clearance limit a fix from which an approach begins?

A

YES: Start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC, or ETA (if no EFC give

NO: At EFC or clearance limit (if no EFC given), proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start the approach

41
Q

Do not fly a procedure turn when:

A

S- Straight in approach.

H- Holding in lieu of a procedure turn.

A- Arc

R- Radar vectored to final app course.

P- NoPT depicted on chart.

T- Timed approach.

T- Teardrop course reversal.

42
Q

Instrument Approach Types

A
  1. Precision
  2. Non Precision
43
Q

When can you descend to next instrument approach segment

A

When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route.

44
Q

Standard rate turn angle of bank calculation

A

TAS / 10 + 5

Example: 120 KTAS-

120/10+5=17° of bank

45
Q

When can you descend below MDA/ DA?

A

All three conditions must be met: 1. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. 2. The flight visibility (or the enhanced flight visibility, if equipped) is not less than thevisibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used. 3. At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (except for CAT II & III approaches)a. The approach light system, except you may descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone only if the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable. b. The threshold. c. The threshold markings. d. The threshold lights. e. The runway end identifier lights. f. The visual approach slope indicator. g. The touchdown zone or its markings. h. The touchdown zone lights. i. The runway or runway markings. j. The runway lights.Aircraft approach categories

46
Q

Category 1 and A B C D E

A

CAT 1.3Vso(Knots) maneuver A <90 B 91-120 C 121-140 D 141-165 E >165

47
Q

Approach clearances

A

􏰀 Contact approacho Must be specifically requested by the pilot.(It cannot be initiated by ATC) o Requires at least 1SM reported ground visibility and the aircraft to remain clear of clouds. o Available only at airports with approved instrument approach procedures.􏰀 Visual approacho Initiated by either ATC or the pilot. o Requires at least 1000’ ceiling and 3SM visibility. (IFR under VMC) o Pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to follow in sight.

48
Q

Minimum equipment required for flight For VFR day flight:

A

T- Tachometer for each engine. O- Oil temp indicator for each engine M- Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine A- Airspeed indicator T- Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine O- Oil Pressure gauge for each engine F- Fuel quantity gauge for each tank L- Landing gear position lights (if retractable gear) A- Anticolision lights (aircraft certificated after March 11, 1996) M- Magnetic direction indicator E- ELT, if required by §91.207 S- Safety belts / shoulder harnesses

49
Q

For VFR night flight:

A

All VFR day equipment + F.L.A.P.S- F- Fuses (spare set) L- Landing light (if for hire) A- Anticolision light P- Position lights (navigation lights) S- Source of power (such as battery)

50
Q

For IFR day: all VFR day+ equipment

A

G- Generator/alternator R- Radios (two way and navigational equipment appropriate for the ground facilities to be used) A- Altimeter(sensitive) adjustable for barometric pressure B- Ball (slip-skid indicator) C- Clock (shows hours minutes and seconds and installed as part of aircraft equipment.) A- Attitude indicator R- Rate of turn indicator D- Directional gyro (Heading indicator)