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Pilots Cafe (Instrument Training) Flashcards

1
Q

When is an instrument rating required?

A
  • When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than prescribed for VFR (61.3)
  • When carrying passengers for compensation or hire on cross country flights in excess of 50nm or at night (61.133)
  • Flight in class A airspace (91.135)
  • Special VFR between sunset and sunrise (91.157)
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2
Q

To act as PIC

A

To act as PIC (61.56)
- Flight review 24 calendar months before the month of flight. Consists of 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training
- can be substituted by a proficiency check, practical test, WINGS program, flight instructor renewal
- A flight simulator or FTD may be used to meet the flight review requirements (part 142, same aircraft)

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3
Q

To carry passengers as PIC (61.57)

A

-3 takeoffs and landings in the same category, class, and type in the last 90 days
- Night, 3 takeoffs and landings 1 hour after sunset, 1 hour before sunrise. Full stop.

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4
Q

To act as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than VFR minimums (61.57(c))

A
  • Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of flight, you performed or logged (in actual or simulated)
    ‘6HITS’
    6 instrument approaches
    Holding procedures and tasks
    Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems.
  • Additional 6 months to regain currency with safety pilot
  • If past additional 6 months Instrument proficiency check (IPC)
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5
Q

When can you log instrument time?

A

61.57
- A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operate the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions
- An authorized instructor may log instrument time when conducting flight instruction in actual instrument flight conditions

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6
Q

What must be in an IPC?

A
  • Air traffic control clearances and procedures
  • Flight by reference to instruments
  • Navigation systems
  • Instrument approach procedures
  • Emergency operations
  • Post flight procedures
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7
Q

Logging Instrument Approach Procedures - Requirements

A
  • operate solely by reference to instruments
  • Be established on each required segment of the IAP down to its published minimums. (IE initial, intermediate, and final approach segments unless vectored to the approach
  • If in simulated, down to minimums
  • if in actual just need to start the FAF in IMC or go through a cloud on descent.
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8
Q

Personal documents required for flight

A

Medical
ID
Certificate

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9
Q

Aircraft documents required for flight

A

ARROW
Airworthiness certificate
Registration certificate
Radio station license
Operating limitations and information (AFM)
Weight and balance

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10
Q

Aircraft Maintenance inspections required

A

AAVIATES

Annual
ADs
Vor check (30 days)
100 hour inspection for hire
Altimeter and static system (24 calendar months)
Transponder (24 calendar months)
ELT (12 calendar months, 1 hour, 50% useful life)
STC (supplemental type certificate

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11
Q

When is an IFR flight plan required?

A

When under IFR in a controlled airspace.
Must file and receive appropriate clearance.

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12
Q

How to file an IFR flight plan?

A

FSS
phone (1800 wx brief)
over the radio (GCO/RCO)
in person
—–
Online
1800wxbrief.com
www.fltplan.com
—–
EFB
foreflight or garmin
—-
ATC
radio or phone
Pop up IFR clearance
—-
File 30 minutes before departure
Scheduled flights file 4 hours before departure

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13
Q

Pop Up IFR Clearance

A

-Can ask for one in VFR conditions
-Subject to ATC workload
-Must be at or above minimum IFR altitude or climb to it under VFR

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14
Q

How to cancel flight plans (AIM 5-1-15)

A

Towered - Automatically
Non-towered - Contact ATC/ FSS to cancel
A pilot may cancel IFR flight anytime out of IMC and out of Class A

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15
Q

Preferred IFR routes

A

Published in the Chart Supplement. The AIM recommends filing a preferred route if one is available. (AIM 5-1-6)

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16
Q

How do you know if an alternate destination is required? (91.169)

A

1-2-3 rule
A destination alternate is always required unless:
An instrument approach is published and available for the destination AND
1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA
Ceilings 2000 ft
Visibility 3 sm

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17
Q

Minimum weather conditions required at an alternate

A

91.169
Precision - 600 ft ceilings, 2 sm
Non-precision - 800 ft ceilings, 2 sm
No instrument approach at alternate - ceiling and visibility must allow descent from MEA approach and landing under VFR

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18
Q

GPS considerations for filing an alternate

A

WAAS without Baro-VNAV - LNAV or circling minimums at the alternate

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19
Q

IFR cruising altitudes

A

91.179
Direction based on Magnetic Course
——
Below FL290
0-179 - odd thousand or flight level
180 - 359 - even thousand or flight level
——
Above FL290 (non RVSM)
0-179 - flight levels at 4k ft intervals starting at FL290 (290, 330, 370)
180 - 359 - Flight levels at 4k intervals starting at FL 310 (310, 350, 390)
——
FL 290 - FL 410 (in RVSM)
Becomes the same as below fl 290

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20
Q

IFR takeoff minimums (91.175)

A

Part 91 no minimus
for part 121, 125, 129, 135
- prescribed t/o minimums for the runway
If none
- 1-2 engines 1 sm visibility
- more than 2 engines 1/2 sm visibility

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21
Q

Departure Procedures (BASIC) (AIM 5-2-9)

A

Ensure obstacle clearance provided the aircraft
-crosses the departure end of the runway at least 35 agl
-reaches 400 agl before turning
climbs at least 200 ft/nm or as published on the chart
- Pilots are encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, during MVFR or in IMC

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22
Q

How do you convert FT/NM to FT/MIN

A

(Ground speed/ 60) * FT/NM = FT/MIN

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23
Q

What are the 2 types of DP

A

ODP (Obstacle Departure Procedure)
- provides obstacle clearance
- printed textually or graphically
- graphic ODP’s are titled OBSTACLE

SID (Standard instrument Departure)
- provides obstacle clearance and reduces pilot/ controller workload
- may include lost comms procedures
- always published graphically

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24
Q

What are the categories of DP’s based on required equipment

A

Non- RNAV DP
- Uses ground based navigation
RNAV DP
- Require at least RNAV 1 performance
- Identified with the word RNAV in the title
RADAR DP
- Uses ATC radar vectors to a roue, NAVAID, or fix after departure
- Annotated RADAR REQUIRED

25
Q

Diverse Departure Procedures

A
  • If a runway fails to meet the diverse departure criteria, An ODP is developed
    Criteria:
    -40:1 (152 ft/nm)
    -expands until reaching 1,000 or 2,000 ft (non mountainous or mountainous
  • limited to 25 NM (NM)or 46 NM(MOUNTAINOUS)

When departing with no ODP
-35 ft at threshold
-400 departure end of runway altitude before turning
-Continue climbing to Minimum IFR altitudes

26
Q

Diverse Vector Area

A
  • Locations with an ODP
  • Available to allow radar vectors in lieu of the pilot flying the ODP
  • Allows atc to vector below Minimum vectoring altitude, or minimum IFR altitude immediately after takeoff
  • Found in “takeoff minimums and ODP” section of the TPP. It includes a statement that initial headings are provided by ATC and any applicable climb gradients
27
Q

Climb Over Airport (VOCA)

A
  • In VMC
  • Visually conducts climbing turns over the airport up to the published ‘climb to’ altitude, from which he proceeds to the instrument portion of the departure.
  • Designed to avoid obstacles beyond 3sm from the departure end of the runway as an alternative to complying with climb gradients greater than standard 200 ft/nm
  • advise ATC as early as possible of intentions
  • Published in the “Takeoff minimums and ODP” section of the TPP
    -May appear as an option on graphic ODPs
28
Q

IFR Departure Clearance (AIM 5-2-6)

A

CRAFT
Clearance limit
Route
Altitude
Frequency
Transponder Code

Clearance Void Time- Time at which your clearance is void. Must notify ATC within 30 minutes after void time if not departed

Hold for release - you may not take off until being released for IFR departure

Release time - The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR

Expect departure clearance time (EDCT) - A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart on earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT

Abbreviated departure clearance - “cleared ….. as filed …”

29
Q

Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)

A
  • Serves as a transition between enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made.
  • Transition routes connect enroute fixes to basic STAR procedure
  • uses conventional navaid or RNAV
  • Reduce pilot/controller workload
  • Minimize radio comms
  • Simplify clearance delivery
  • Do not descend until authorized by ATC (descend via)
30
Q

Climb/Descent Clearances

A

Climb Via (SID name)
-follow sid’s altitudes and course (AIM 5-2-9
- comply with speed restrictions
—–
Descend Via (STAR’s name)
- When IFR clearance includes a STAR maintain last assigned altitude until receiving authorization
- Descend at pilot’s discretion to meet all altitude and course restrictions
- comply with all speed restrictions
——
Expect
- not a clearance, used for planning purposes
——
Maintain
- begin the climb or descent immediately when given a clearance to climb and maintain or descend and maintain.
—–
Cross (fix) at (altitude)
- climb/descend at pilot’s discretion and comply with crossing restrictions

31
Q

Cruise clearance

A
  • allocates a block of airspace to the flight. (minimum IFR altitude to specified clearance)
  • you are free to climb and descend, but you must verbally report leaving altitude on descent and you can’t return to it unless cleared.
  • Cruise clearance allows you to begin an approach at the destination without receiving an additional “cleared for approach” clearance.
  • IT does not allow descent in IMC under IFR minimum altitudes, nor does it imply ATC is exercising control over aircraft in class G airspace.
32
Q

Minimum IFR altitudes (obstacle clearance)

A

(91.177)
Except for takeoff or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below
- Minimum altitude prescribed for the flown segment, or if none
- Mountainous areas: 2k feet above highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4nm from the course
- Non-mountainous areas: 1k feet above the highest obstacle within 4nm course

33
Q

IFR minimum fuel requirements

A

(91.167)
departure => destination => alternate (if required) + 45 min cruise

34
Q

DA / DH

A

On a vertically guided approach, the altitude above the threshold at which the pilot decides to continue or go around

35
Q

MAA

A

Maximum authorized altitude

36
Q

MCA

A

Minimum crossing altitude
-the lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA

37
Q

MDA / MDH

A

Minimum Descent Altitude
- the LOWEST height above the runway threshold which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot can have visual contact with the airport environment

38
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude
-The lowest altitude (MSL) between radio fixes which assures ACCEPTABLE NAVIGATIONAL SIGNAL COVERAGE and meets the OBSTACLE CLEARANCE requirements.
- a MEA gap established an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated “MEA GAP” on IFR charts

39
Q

MOCA

A

*11000
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (on a route)
-Lowest published altitude that meets obstruction clearance and assures acceptable signal coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR

40
Q

MORA

A

Minimum off route altitude (JEPPESEN)
- Route MORA provides obstruction clearance within 10 NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10nm radius at the ends of airways
- Grid MORA provides obstruction clearance within a latitude/longitude grid block

40
Q

MRA

A

Minimum Reception Altitude
- The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection can be determined using radio navigational aids

41
Q

MTA

A

Minimum Turning Altitude
-Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes annotate with the MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction

42
Q

MVA

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude
- The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorised for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches.
- MVA’s may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs

43
Q

OROCA

A

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude
- Provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer (non mountainous) or 2,000 ft (mountainous)
- May not provide navigation or communication signal coverage

44
Q

Indicated Altitude

A

Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure settings

45
Q

Pressure Altitude

A

Altitude above the standard 29.92 datum plane. (QNE)
- Used when flying above the transition altitude (FL 180)

46
Q

Density Altitude

A

Pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperatures

47
Q

True Altitude

A

Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL)

48
Q

Absolute Altitude

A

Height above airport elevation (QFE)

49
Q

Indicated Airspeed

A

(IAS)
- Indicated on the airspeed indicator

50
Q

Calibrated Airspeed

A

(CAS)
Indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position errors

51
Q

Equivalent Airspeed

A

(EAS)
Calibrated corrected for compressibility error

52
Q

True Airspeed

A

(TAS)
Actual speed through the air.
-TAS and calibrated airspeed corrected for non standard temperature and pressure.

53
Q

Ground Speed

A

Actual airspeed over the ground
-True Airspeed corrected for wind conditions

54
Q

Additional required equipment for IFR flight

A

GRABCARDD

-Generator
-Radio (and suitable navigation equipment for route to be flown)
-Altimeter (sensitive)
-Ball Inclinometer (slip skid)
-Clock (h, m, s, fixed to cockpit)
-Attitude indicator
-Rate of turn indicator
-Directional Gyro (Heading Indicator)
-Dme or suitable Rnav equipment above fl 240

55
Q

VOR (basic facts)

A

Very High Omni directional Range

  • Full scale deflection is 10 degrees
  • Standard service volumes do not apply to published routes
  • must verify correct and usable VOR station with morse ID before using it
  • The MON is always available within 100 NM anywhere in the US
  • Limitations
    Cone of confusion, Reverse Sensing, Line of Sight
56
Q

VOR Receiver Checks

A

Every 30 calendar days
+- 4
+- 6 airborne checkpoints
Above prominent ground landmark on a selected radial at least 20 nm from a vor flying at a “reasonable low altitude” +- 6

-DEPS
Date
Error
Place
Signature

57
Q

VOR Service Volumes

A

Terminal (T)
1k - 12k 25 NM radius
Low (VL)
1k - 18k 40 NM radius
(new) 5k- 18k 70 NM radius
High (VH)
1k - 14.5k 40 NM radius
(new) 5k - 14.5k 70 NM radius
14.5k - 18k 100 NM radius
18k - 45k 130 NM radius
45k - 60k 100 NM radius

58
Q
A

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