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IFR 6190D > Pilots Cafe > Flashcards

Pilots Cafe Flashcards

1
Q

When is an IR required?

A

-When acting as PIC under IFR or in IMC
-When flying in class A airspace
-When flying for hire at night or 50 NM from home airport
-When flying special VFR at night

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2
Q

Minimum Aeronautical experience for an IR

A

-50 hours XC PIC
-40 hours sim or actual IFR
-15 of those with a CFII
-XC 250 NM under IFR, an approach at every airport with at least 3 approach types
-3 hours instrument time in last 2 months

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3
Q

IFR currency

A

-Flight review in last 24 calendar months or a checkride
-3 takeoffs and landings in previous 90 days (for passengers)
-those are done at night if you want to fly passengers at night
-To fly IFR, within the last 6 months, you must complete 6 Approaches, holding, intercepting, and tracking of radials

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4
Q

What happens if you lose your instrument currency?

A

You have 6 months to regain your instrument currency by flying with a safety pilot and completing “6 HITS”

If you don’t regain your currency within that timeframe, you must complete an IPC with a CFII, a DPE or someone else approved to do it

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5
Q

How to you determine if you’re safe to fly?

A

IMSAFE
PAVE

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6
Q

How do you make decisions and mitigate risk in the cockpit?

A

DECIDE

Detect
estimate
consider
identify
do
evaluate

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7
Q

What documents do you need with you for you to fly?

A

Pilots License
Govt issued Id
Medical

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8
Q

What are the required aircraft documents to fly?

A

Supplemental type certificate
Placards
Airworthiness
Registration
Radio station license
Operating limitations
Weight and balance info

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9
Q

What maintenance needs to have been done on the aircraft

A

Annual
VOR- every 30 days if IFR
I 100 hour for commercial ops, annual can sub
AD’s
Transponder - 24 calendar months
E - 12 months, battery replaced after 1 hour or half life use
Static/pitot system - 24 calendar months

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10
Q

Passenger Preflight Briefing

A

SAFETY

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11
Q

Preflight Info required for IFR

A

NWKRAFT

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12
Q

How do you file an IFR flight plan

A

with ATC through tower or phone
Online 1800wxbrief.com
call 1-800-wxbrief
foreflight

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13
Q

How do you cancel an IFR flight plan

A

Tower does it automatically when landing at a towered airport
you can cancel any time in flight in VMC below FL180
Landing at an untowered airport, contact ATC or FSS

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14
Q

What are the minimum fuel requirements for flying IFR

A

Fuel to get to destination, then filed alternate (if alternate required) then 45 mins at cruise

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15
Q

How do you know if you need an alternate airport?

A

1-2-3 rule

between 1 hour before and 1 hour after your arrival time, weather must be at least 2000 ft ceilings and 3 sm VIS

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16
Q

What are the requirements to file an airport as your alternate?

A

8-2 6-2 rule

800 ft ceiling and 2 sm vis if airport has a non precision approach

600 ft ceiling and 2 sm vis if airport has a precision approach

must be able to descend from MEA while VFR and make an approach to land if there is no IAP

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17
Q

Can you have a GPS approach as your approach at an alternate airport?

A

If you’re non-waas, either your primary or alternate must have a non GPS approach, if you’re WAAS, they can both be GPS based but if you don’t have Baro-LNAV, flight plan must be filed on LNAV or circling minimums

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18
Q

what are IFR takeoff minimums?

A

Part 91 doesn’t have takeoff minimums, but for part 121 or 135, 1-2 engine aircraft require 1 sm vis and 3+ engine aircraft require 1/2 sm vis

some airports have nonstandard takeoff minimums

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19
Q

When do DP’s ensure obstacle clearance?

A

Aircraft crosses the departure end of the runway at at least 35 ft AGL
climbs at at least 200 fpnm
doesn’t turn until 400 ft agl

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20
Q

What are the different types of DP’s?

A

ODP - textual or graphical
SID - always graphical, simplifies ATC workload

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21
Q

Do you have to accept a DP?

A

no, state “No SID” in your remarks when filing

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22
Q

What is a Diverse Departure procedure

A

Airports with an IAP but no DP are surveyed to have no obstacles from 200 ft/nm up until minimum IFR altitudes, no turns are permitted until 400 ft agl

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23
Q

what is a VCOA?

A

Visual Climb Over Airport is essentially a climb directly over the airport until reaching the climb to altitude

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24
Q

What basic information is given on an IFR clearance?

A

Cleared to, either a fix or an airport
Route
Altitude
Frequency (Departure)
Transponder code

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25
Q

What information will be given in an IFR clearance specifically if given at a nontowered airport?

A

A clearance void time, if you do not depart, you must alert ATC within 30 mins after that time

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26
Q

What is a release time?

A

The earliest time an aircraft can takeoff when flying IFR

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27
Q

What is an EDCT?

A

Expect departure clearance time is given at some busy airports, you must be ready to depart within 5 minutes of either side of that time.

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28
Q

What is a standard terminal arrival route?

A

STARs serve as connectors between the enroute phase of flight to the approach phase, they have transition routes to allow for STARS to be started from multiple fixes that lead into the main route

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29
Q

What are the basic minimum IFR altitudes

A

minimum depicted along the route or 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of route in nonmountainous areas or 2000 ft in mountainous areas

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30
Q

Define “DA/H”

A

Decision altitude/Height, the altitude where you must decide whether or not to continue your approach on an approach with vertical guidance

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31
Q

Define “MAA”

A

Maximum allowed altitude

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32
Q

Define “MCA”

A

Minimum crossing altitude, minimum altitude an aircraft may cross a fix when flying in the direction of a higher MEA

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33
Q

Define “MDA/H”

A

Minimum descent altitude/height is the minimum altitude you can descend to on an approach without vertical guidance without identifying part of the runway environment

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34
Q

Define “MEA”

A

Minimum enroute altitude, the altitude between two fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and obstacle clearance

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35
Q

Define “MOCA”

A

Minimum obstacle clearance altitude, provides obstacle clearance and VOR signal up to 22 nm from the VOR, you may descend below the MEA to the MOCA as long as signal coverage is acceptable

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36
Q

Define “MRA”

A

Minimum reception altitude is the lowest altitude along an airway where an intersection can be determined using radio navigational aidds

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37
Q

Define “MTA”

A

Minimum turning altitude, which gives vertical and lateral limits for turning over certain fixes, typically when going from one airway to another

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38
Q

Define “MVA”

A

Minimum vectoring altitude is the lowest altitude that you can be vectored outside of approaches and departure procedures, these can be below MEA’s or MOCA’s

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39
Q

Define “OROCA”

A

Off route obstacle clearance altitude is the altitude required to maintain 1000 ft obstacle clearance in nonmountainous areas and 2000 ft mountainous

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40
Q

What is a cruise clearance?

A

A cruise clearance is a clearance in a block of altitude between the minimum altitude (MEA, MOCA) and the specified altitude, once you begin descending from an altitude in your block, you cannot go back to that altitude. It also allows you to start an approach without hearing “cleared approach”

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41
Q

How does your attitude indicator work?

A

Rather than having a standard vacuum driven attitude indicator, our aircraft has a garmin g5, it gets its attitude information using the same gyroscopes as a standard attitude indicator and still operates on the concept of rigidity in space, but it’s electrically driven, with a battery life of 4 hours.

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42
Q

What errors can your attitude indicator have?

A

Attitude indicators are susceptible to the same somatogravic illusions that humans are. It can detect a pitch up during an acceleration or a pitch down during deceleration

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43
Q

How does you heading indicator work?

A

We have a g5 instead of the standard vacuum driven heading indicator, the g5 acts as an HSI, which gives heading information, and can also be used to track VOR or GPS radials. The HSI is slaved to the compass, so we don’t have to adjust it for precession like we would with a HI

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44
Q

How does the turn coordinator work?

A

The turn coordinator senses rate of turn, the dashes below wings level on either side indicate a standard rate turn (3 deg/sec) The ball portion of the instrument indicates whether or not your turn is coordinated

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45
Q

How does the altimeter work?

A

A set of sealed aneroid wafers expand and contract as outside pressure around them changes. Mechanical linkages between the wafers and the gauges allow the dial to spin to correctly indicate the altitude. You can adjust the pressure for the local altimeter setting using the Coleman window.

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46
Q

What are the different types of altitudes?

A

Indicated- what the dial says
Absolute- AGL
True- MSL
pressure- what the dial says at 29.92
density- performance calculations (pressure corrected for nonstandard temp)

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47
Q

How does the VSI work?

A

The VSI is connected to a diaphragm with a calibrated leak that connects it to the outside air. As air pressure changes, there is a differential between the pressure inside the diaphragm and outside because the air can only leak out at a certain speed. The VSI uses the pressure differential to determine how fast the pressure is changing, and therefore how fast you are climbing or descending.

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48
Q

How does the airspeed indicator work?

A

The airspeed indicator measures the difference in Ram air pressure being delivered directly into the pitot tube and the static air pressure to determine airspeed

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49
Q

What are the different types of airspeed?

A

Indicated Airspeed (IAS)- what the dial says
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)- IAS corrected for nonstandard position and instrument error
Equivalent Airspeed (EAS)- CAS corrected for compressibility error
True Airspeed (TAS)- EAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure
Groundspeed (GS)- speed over the ground, TAS corrected for wind

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50
Q

Va (max gross weight)

A

97 KIAS

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51
Q

Vne

A

160 KIAS

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52
Q

Vno

A

128 KIAS

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53
Q

Vfe

A

85 KIAS

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54
Q

Vs0

A

41 KIAS

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55
Q

Vs1

A

47 KIAS

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56
Q

Vx

A

60 KIAS

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57
Q

Vy

A

73 KIAS

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58
Q

How will your instruments be affected if the static port is blocked?

A

The airspeed indicator will only give accurate readings at the altitude of the blockage and will indicate fast at lower altitudes and slow at higher altitudes

The altimeter will freeze at the altitude it was at during the blockage

The VSI will show 0

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59
Q

How will your instruments indicate differently if you use the alternate static port?

A

Airspeed will indicate fast

The altimeter will indicate high

VSI will show a momentary climb

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60
Q

What happens if your pitot tube clogs?

A

If just the RAM inlet freezes, airspeed will indicate 0

If the static release valve also freezes, it will operate as an altimeter

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61
Q

What is your instrument check before takeoff

A

While turning:
Compass is swinging correct direction
Attitude indicator is wings level or less than 5 degrees bank
Heading indicator is swinging in the right direction
Turn coordinator shows the wing down in the direction of the turn
the ball should swing away from the direction of the turn

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62
Q

Compass errors

A

UNOS
ANDS

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63
Q

Requirements for DAY VFR flight (91.205)

A

Airspeed indicator
Tachometer
Oil pressure gauge
Manifold pressure gauge (Constant speed prop)
Altimeter
Temperature gauge (liquid-cooled engines)
Oil temperature gauge
Fuel gauges
Landing gear position lights
Anti-collision lights (planes after 1996)
Magnetic compass
ELT
Safety belts

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64
Q

VFR Night requirements (91.205)

A

ATOMATOFLAMES +
Fuses (circuit breakers)
Landing light
Anti collision lights
Position lights (nav lights)
Source of power (battery)

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65
Q

For hire over water beyond power off gliding distance requirements

A

Pyrotechnic signaling device (flare gun)
floatation devices

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66
Q

Requirements for flying at or above FL240

A

DME or RNAV, if using VOR for navigation

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67
Q

IFR Day requirements

A

ATOMATOFLAMES +
Generator or alternator
Radio (2 way)
attitude indicator
Ball (slip skid indicator)
Clock
Altimeter (with a Coleman window)
Directional gyro (heading indicator)

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68
Q

IFR night requirements

A

ATOMATOFLAMES + FLAPS + GRABCARD

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69
Q

If an aircraft has an MEL, how do you know if you can fly it with inop equipment?

A

Refer to the MEL

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70
Q

If an aircraft doesn’t have an MEL, how do you know if you can fly with inop equipment?

A

Check the equipment list, 91.205, and AD’s, if any of those require the inop equipment, you need a special flight permit (ferry permit). Otherwise, you may fly it if the equipment is disabled and labeled inop

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71
Q

What is the VOR frequency band?

A

108.0-117.95

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72
Q

What is a full-scale VOR deflection?

A

10 deg

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73
Q

What is the VOR MON?

A

The minium operation network is a plan to maintain VOR’s so that an airport with a VOR approach is available within 100 NM of anywhere in the CONUS

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74
Q

Different VOR receiver tests and tolerances

A

VOR ground checkpoint - 4 deg
VOT - 4 deg
repair station - 4 deg
VOR airborne checkpoint - 6 deg
Dual Vor check - 4 deg
prominant landmark above an airway at least 20 NM from station - 6 deg

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75
Q

What goes in the log when you record a VOR check

A

Date
Error
place
Signature

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76
Q

What are a VOR stations limitations?

A

Requires line of sight to aircraft
cone of confusion
reverse sensing if tuned backwards

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77
Q

What is a full scale deflection on a localizer?

A

2.5 deg to either side

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78
Q

What is a full scale deflection on a glide slope?

A

.7 deg to either side

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79
Q

what is a typical glide slope range?

A

10 NM

80
Q

What angle is a typical ILS glide slope?

A

3 deg

81
Q

What error is common with an ILS?

A

A false glide slope above the actual glide slope, you may also pick up a false glide slope when flying the LOC BC

82
Q

What is the purpose of the ALS

A

The approach Lighting system provides a way to transition from flight by instruments to a visual approach to the runway

83
Q

How far does the ALS extend beyond the threshold?

A

2,300-3,000 ft precision runways
1,400-1,500 ft non-precision runways

84
Q

What are the different types of RNAV routes?

A

T routes are below FL180 and Q routes are at or above FL180

85
Q

What are the minimum number of satellites in the GPS system at any given time, and how many can be viewed from any point on earth

A

24 satellites in the system
5 in view at any time

86
Q

How does GPS work?

A

The satellite sends a signal to the aircraft receiver, and the atomic clock onboard the satellite determines how long it takes for the signal to go to the aircraft and back to determine the distance from the satellite, using multiple satellites allows for a precise location

87
Q

How many satellites are needed for a 3D location position

A

4

88
Q

What is RAIM?

A

Reciever autonomous integrity monitoring uses either a fifth satellite or Baro-aiding from the altimeter to determine if a satellite is giving the GPS false information (fault detection) It can also eliminate a satellite from it’s system and operate normally (fault exclusion) with 6 satellites or 5 + baro aid

89
Q

What is a full scale deflection while flying with GPS?

A

1 NM while enroute or .3 NM while in approach mode to either side

90
Q

What is WAAS?

A

The Wide Area Augmentation System is a system of ground-based reference stations that are connected to satellites, they know their location on the ground, and if satellites believe the location to be off slightly, they can correct the aircraft’s GPS position by correcting slight GPS errors

91
Q

What is RNP?

A

Required Navigation performance is a statement of navigation equipment and service performance, it monitors RNAV performance and gives alert monitoring

92
Q

What is required for an approach titled as “RNAV (RNP)”?

A

They are “AR” approaches, which require authorization by the FAA for the crew and aircraft to fly them

93
Q

What allows your GPS to give LPV DA or LP MDA minima when flying an RNAV approach?

A

WAAS RNP

94
Q

What allows your GPS to give LNAV/VNAV MDA minima when flying an RNAV approach?

A

VNAV approved WAAS or Baro-VNAV

95
Q

What allows your GPS to give LNAV MDA minima when flying an RNAV approach?

A

Non-augmented IFR GPS

96
Q

What are the RNP values for each phase of flight?

A

Enroute- Accurate within 2.0 NM 95% of the time
Terminal and departure- Accurate within 1.0 NM 95% of the time
Final approach- Accurate within .3 NM 95% of the time

97
Q

What are the basic attitude instrument flying skills?

A

Cross check
instrument interpretation
aircraft control

98
Q

What are the common errors when flying by reference to the instruments?

A

Fixation
Omission
Emphasis

99
Q

What is the control and performance method of attitude instrument flying?

A

You use the control instruments (Tachometer and attitude indicator) to configure the plane the way you wan tit, then use the performance instruments (HSI, airspeed, Altimeter, VSI, and TC) to ensure that the aircraft is behaving as intended

100
Q

What is the Primary and supporting method of attitude instrument flying?

A

The instruments are split into those for Pitch, bank and power.
Pitch- Attitude, airspeed, VSI, altimeter
Bank- Atttitude, HSI, TC, compass
Power- Tach, Airspeed

When completing a maneuver, one of the instruments for each of those is the most important, and others give secondary information

101
Q

Required reports under IFR

A

Missed approach
Airspeed off by 10 KIAS or 5% (whichever is greater)
Reaching a holding fix
VFR on top altitude change
ETA change by 2 mins
Leaving a holding fix
Outer marker
Unforecasted weather
Safety of flight
Vacating an altitude
final approach fix
Radio/Nav/approach equipment failure
Compulsory reporting point
500 ft/min climb/descent unable

102
Q

Required reports when IFR in a non radar environment

A

A PTA TEN R

Aircraft ID
Position
Time
Altitude
Type of flight plan
ETA and name of next fix
Name of next succeeding
Remarks

103
Q

When do you begin timing the outbound leg of a hold?

A

When crossing over/abeam the fix or when wings level completing the turn, whichever is last.

104
Q

How long should the inbound leg of a standard hold take?

A

1 min @ or below 14,000 ft
1.5 min above 14,000 ft

105
Q

Non-charted holding items

A

Direction of hold from the fix
Holding fix
Radial, airway, etc to hold on
Leg length (miles or mins)
Direction of turns
EFC time

106
Q

Charted holding items

A

Direction of hold
Fix
EFC time

107
Q

When should you start your speed reduction prior to holding?

A

3 mins before arrival at the fix

108
Q

What should you do at each turn point during a hold?

A

Turn
Time
Twist (needle on CDI)
Throttle (turning requires more power)
Talk

109
Q

What do you do if you lose two way radio communication while in VFR conditions under IFR?

A

Maintain VFR and land as soon as practicable

109
Q

What is the Maximum holding speed?

A

200 Kts - 6,000 ft & below
230 Kts - 6,001 ft -14,000
265 Kts - 14,001 ft +

110
Q

What altitude should you fly if you lose two-way radio communications in IFR conditions?

A

MEA

highest of:
MEA
Expected
Assigned

111
Q

What route should you fly if you lose two-way radio communications in IFR conditions

A

AVEF

In order of precedence:
Assigned
Vectored
Expected
Filed

112
Q

If you lose two way radio communications and fly to your clearance limit, what should you do at the EFC time?

A

If the clearance limit is a fix at which an approach starts, fly the approach, if not, fly to a fix where an approach starts and fly that approach

112
Q

What is the purpose of a procedure turn?

A

Course reversal
inbound course interception
Descent from an IAF

113
Q

What is the maximum speed you can fly a procedure turn?

A

200 Kts

114
Q

How far can you fly from an IAF when completing a procedure turn?

A

typically 10 miles, although it is charted on the Instrument approach procedure

115
Q

What leeway is given as to what shape you can maneuver in for a procedure turn?

A

If there is a hold in lieu of pt or teardrop entry charted, you must fly that entry, if not, only the direction of the turn is mandatory

116
Q

When should you not fly a procedure turn?

A

SHARP TT

Straight in clearance
Holding in lieu of PT
dme Arc
Radar vectors to final
Pt not depicted on chart
Timed approach from a hold fix
Teardrop course reversal

117
Q

What is the difference between a precision and non-precision approach?

A

precision approaches have lateral and vertical guidance and are flown to a DA and use ground based

Nonprecision approaches either do not have vertical guidance, or are not based on ground based navigation

118
Q

Name the different types of Precision approaches

A

ILS
MLS - Microwave landing system
PAR - precision approach radar
GLS - GBAS landing system

119
Q

Name the different types of non-precision approaches

A

VOR
RNAV
LOC
NDB
LDA - Localizer type directional aid
SDF - simplified directional facility
ASR- Airport surveillance radar

120
Q

What is an LDA?

A

A localizer type directional aid is an approach identical to a Localizer, but it is not aligned from the runway. A localizer becomes an LDA with more than a 3 degree misalignment between the runway and the approach course.

The LDA can have straight in minimums, providing the approach course is within 30 degrees of the runway

121
Q

What is an SDF?

A

Essentially a LOC but with a 6 to 12 deg width

122
Q

What is an ASR approach?

A

Airport surveilience radar uses airport radar to allow controllers to talk an aircraft down. The approach only offers lateral guidance.

123
Q

What are the different types of APV approaches?

A

RNAV (ie. LNAV/VNAV and LPV)
LDA with GS

124
Q

What is an APV approach?

A

An approach with vertical guidance is an approach similar to a precision approach, but it doesn’t meet the requirements to technically be precision

125
Q

When can you descend to the next segment on an instrument approach procedure?

A

When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach

126
Q

What is a contact approach?

A

Contact approaches can be flown when a visual approach isn’t possible (maybe you can’t find the airport or the plane to follow) You need 1 sm visibility and to remain COC, while having it be reasonably likely you can remain in those conditions

127
Q

What are the requirements for a contact approach?

A

It must be initiated by the pilot
You need at least 1 sm vis and to remain COC
It can only be flown at airports with an IAP
The pilot is responsible for obstacle avoidance

128
Q

What is a visual approach?

A

A visual approach requires 1,000’ ceilings and 3 sm visibility, you must have either the airport or the traffic in front of you in sight, and it an approach to land using visual ques rather than instrument navigation

129
Q

When do you initiate a missed approach procedure?

A

When you reach MDA at the MAP or DA and don’t have sufficient visibility of the runway environment
When a safe approach isn’t possible
When instructed to do so by ATC

130
Q

When can you descend below MDA/DA?

A

When you can make a stabilized approach to land
When you have sufficient flight visibility for the approach
When you have the runway environment in sight:
1 of:
The ALS (can come down to 100 ft)
VGSI
REIL
Threshold, or it’s markings/lights
touchdown zone, or it’s markings/lights
Runway, or it’s markings/lights

131
Q

What is the VDP?

A

On a non-precision approach, the last point where you can descend from MDA and make a stabilized approach to land

132
Q

How do you calculate a VDP if there isn’t one published?

A

MDA (In NM from threshold) = MDH/300

133
Q

What is a VDA?

A

Vertical descent angle

Angle on a non-precision approach from the FAF to the threshold

typically 3 deg

134
Q

What is the required rate of descent for a 3 degree glide path?

A

5 X GS

90 KIAS x 5 = 450 fpm

135
Q

VFR weather minimums in class B

A

3 SM vis COC

136
Q

VFR weather minimums in class E above 10,000 ft?

A

5111

137
Q

VFR weather minimums in class G above 10,000 ft MSL & 1,200 AGL

A

5111

138
Q

VFR weather minimums in class E below 10,000 ft MSL

A

3152

139
Q

VFR weather minimums in class G airspace below 10,000 ft MSL and above 1,200 ft AGL during the day

A

1152

140
Q

VFR weather minimums in class G airspace below 10,000 ft MSL and above 1,200 ft AGL at night

A

3152

141
Q

VFR weather minimums in class G airspace below 1,200 ft AGL at night

A

3152, unless within 1/2 sm of a runway while in a traffic pattern, then it is 1 sm vis COC

142
Q

VFR weather minimums in class G airspace below 1,200 ft AGL during the day

A

1 SM vis COC

143
Q

VFR weather minimums in class C airspace

A

3152

144
Q

VFR weather minimums in class D airspace

A

3152

145
Q

What is special VFR?

A

You may fly special VFR, when cleared, in controlled airspace within the lateral boundaries of an airport, as long as there is 1 sm visibility and you remain clear of clouds

146
Q

What are the different types of special use airspace?

A

Prohibited area
Restricted Area
MTR
Alert area
Warning area
MOA
ADIZ
CFA
TFR
SFRA

147
Q

What is an ADIZ?

A

an Air defense identification zone, primarily found along U.S. borders, allows for the rapid identification of aircraft, aircraft flying through an ADIZ require:
Altitude encoding transponder
Two way radio communication
File an IFR or DVFR flight plan
departure within 5 mins of planned departure time

148
Q

What is a SFRA

A

Airspace with special flight rules, examples include the D.C. SFRA. You often need additional training to enter a SFRA

149
Q

How do you identify MTR routes?

A

MTR’s that stay below 1,500 ft AGL have 4 digits (IR2256 or VR1558) while those that go above 1,500 ft AGL have 3 digits (IR214 or VR199)

MTR’s that are flown IFR start with IR while those that are flown VFR start with VR

150
Q

What is the maximum aircraft airspeed in the U.S.?

A

MACH 1.0
250 Kts below 10,000 ft MSL
200 kts under class B or in a Class B vfr corridor
200 kts at or below 2,500 ft agl within 4 nm of a class C or D airport

151
Q

To what altitude does class B airspace typically extend to?

A

10,000 ft

152
Q

What is required to enter a Class B mode-c veil?

A

A mode-C transponder and ADSB-out equipment

153
Q

What is the typical height and radius of the inner layer of a class C airspace?

A

5 nm radius 4,000 ft agl ceiling

154
Q

What are the different types of weather briefings?

A

Standard
Abbreviated
Outlook
In flight

155
Q

What are the different types of Airmets?

A

T (turbulence)- moderate turbulence, sustained 30 knot surface winds and nonconvective LLWS
Z (Icing) - Moderate icing with freezing altitudes
S (IFR conditions) - IFR conditions or extensive mountain obscurations

156
Q

Where do you go for your preflight weather?

A

I prefer to use AWC for forecasting and then I call a weather briefer and utilize ForeFlight when making a go/no-go decision about 2 hours before the flight. Immediately before the flight, I;ll check Foreflights briefing again, and if there are any anomalies or questions from that, I’ll double-check with a briefer

157
Q

What does AWOS stand for?

A

Automated Weather Observation Station

158
Q

What does ASOS stand for?

A

Automated Surface Observation Station

159
Q

What is an Airmet?

A

Significant weather that can be relevant to all aircraft but hazardous to less capable aircraft

160
Q

What is a Sigmet?

A

Nonconvective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft

161
Q

How long are Airmets valid for?

A

6 hours

162
Q

How long are Sigmets valid for?

A

4 hours

163
Q

What can a Sigmet be issued for?

A

Severe icing
Severe turbulence or CAT
Dust/Sand storms that lower surface visibility below 3 sm
Volcanic ash

164
Q

What is a Convective Sigmet?

A

Inflight advisory for significant convective weather for the safety of all aircraft

165
Q

How long are Convective Sigmets valid?

A

2 hours

166
Q

What can a Convective Sigmet be created for?

A

Thunderstorms with 50 Knot surface winds or hail 3/4 inch in diameter
Tornados
Embedded thunderstorms
A line of thunderstorms at least 60 NM long with at least 40% of that line having thunderstorms
Thunderstorms creating Heavy or greater precipitation affecting 40% of an area of at least 3000 NM

167
Q

What is an international Sigmet?

A

Sigmets issued outside of the U.S. use ICAO naming standards and are applicable in Alaska, Hawaii, and the Oceans around the U.S.

168
Q

What are the criteria for an international sigmet?

A

Thunderstorms in lines, embedded thunderstorms, or in a large area producing hail or tornados
tropical cyclones
Severe Icing
Severe turbulence
Dust/sand storms reducing vis to 3 miles at surface
volcanic ash

169
Q

Surface analysis charts!

Go look at the current surface analysis chart for the U.S. on Foreflight and decode it

A
170
Q

What are the requirements for a thunderstorm to form?

A

A source of lift
moisture in the atmosphere
unstable air

171
Q

What is a trough?

A

An elongated line of low pressure that can cause turbulence and form clouds

172
Q

What are the stages of a thunderstorm?

A

Cumulous
Mature
Dissipating

173
Q

How does fog form?

A

When the temperature of the air is lowered to the dewpoint
or
When the dewpoint is raised to the temperature of the air by adding moisture to the air

174
Q

What are the different types of fog?

A

Radiation fog
Advection fog
upslope fog
steam fog

175
Q

Define Radiation fog

A

Radiation fog occurs on calm, clear nights, when the cool ground radiates to the air, cooling the air to the dewpoint

176
Q

Define Advection fog

A

Advection fog occurs when warm, moist air travels over cooler ground, which cools the air to the dewpoint.
Requires wind

177
Q

Define upslope fog

A

Upslope fog occurs when warm, stable air is pushed upwards by terrain like a mountain, it is then adiabatically cooled

178
Q

Define steam fog

A

Steam fog occurs when cold, dry air moves over warm water, moisture is added to the air, which raises the dewpoint and creates fog

179
Q

What are the requirements for Ice to form?

A

Visible moisture and sub-freezing aircraft surface temps

180
Q

What are the three kinds of structural icing?

A

Rime
Mixed
Clear

181
Q

What are the different kinds of icing?

A

Structural
Carburator
Induction
instrument

182
Q

What are the four different types of hypoxia?

A

Hypoxic - not enough oxygen in the air
Hystotoxic - blood cells are unable to use oxygen, often due to alcohol or drugs
Hypemic - inability for the blood to carry oxygen, due to c02 or anemia
Stagnant - g forces, constricted blood vessels, or heart problems can keep blood from flowing

183
Q

What is hyperventilation?

A

excessive elimination of c02 due to breathing too fast, it can have similar symptoms to hypoxia. This can be fixed by talking aloud or breathing into a bag

184
Q

What is decompression sickness?

A

Low pressure in the body released nitrogen from the blood solution and it forms gas bubbles. The most common version of decompression sickness is “The bends” (joint paint)

185
Q

How can you avoid decompression sickness affecting you while flying?

A

After Scuba Diving, wait 12 hours to fly if flying under 8,000 ft MSL after a dive that did not require a decompression stop, and 24 hours to fly after any other dive

186
Q

What are the oxygen requirements in a nonpressurized cabin?

A

12,500 for 30 mins
14,000 at all
15,000 passengers must be provided oxygen

187
Q

What is the vestibular system?

A

A series of 3 semicircular inner ear canals that sense pitch, roll, and yaw. The canals are filled with fluid that moves against hairs in the canals. The odolith organs are also inside the inner ear and have fluid to sense acceleration

188
Q

What are the different vestibular and optical illusions you may encounter in flight?

A

ICEFLAGS

Inversion illusion
Coriolis illusion
Elevator illusion
False horizon
Leans
Autokenisis
Graveyard spiral
Somatogravic illusion

189
Q

What is an inversion illusion?

A

Going from pitching up to level flight can make you feel like you’re tumbling backward

190
Q

What is Coriolis illusion?

A

After a prolonged turn (roll), if you move your head along another axis (pitch or yaw) can give a false sensation of acceleration or turning

191
Q

What is a graveyard spiral?

A

After a prolonged turn, the pilot can lose the sensation of turning, and attempt to turn more to reestablish that turn. As the turn steepens, more back elevator pressure is required to maintain altitude, and this can compound to more turning until a tight spiral is entered

192
Q

What is Elevator illusion?

A

A sudden upward movement, like turbulence, can feel like you are pitching up

193
Q

What is Somatogravic illusion?

A

Accelerating can instead feel like pitching up, or decelerating can feel like pitching down

194
Q
A

IFR 6190D (8 decks)

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