Pilots Cafe Flashcards

1
Q

When is an Instrument Rating Required?

A

•When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than prescribed for VFR.
•When Carrying Passengers for compensation or hire on xc-country flights in excess of 50 NM at night.
•For Flight in class A airspace.
• For special VFR between sunset and sunrise.

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2
Q

To carry passengers as PIC under IFR or weather conditions less than VFR minimums?

A

6 calendar months to achieve…

6- 6 Instrument approaches
H- Holding Procedures
I- Intercepting courses
T- Tracking courses
S- Electronic Systems (Navigational)

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3
Q

No 6 HITS logged in last 6 months?

A

Given an additional 6 months (grace period) to regain currency by performing 6 HITS with a safety pilot.

Can be conducted in a simulator.

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4
Q

Safety Pilot Requirements

A

•Holds at least a private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class.
•Have adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft.
•Aircraft must have dual control system.

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5
Q

No IFR flights, during Grace period?

A

An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required.
Administered by:
•CFII
•Examiner
• or other approved person.
Some IPC tasks, but not all, can be conducted in a FTD or ATD.

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6
Q

To meet recent instrument experience requirements, the following information must be recorded in the persons logbook…

A

•Location and each type of instrument approach accomplished.
•And, the name of the safety pilot.

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7
Q

The IPC must cover…

A

• Air traffic control clearances and procedures.
•Navigation Systems
•Instrument approach procedures
•Emergency operations
•Post-Flight Procedures

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8
Q

Pre-Flight Self Assessment: “IMSAFE”

A

I- illness- Do I have any symptoms?
M- Medication- Have I taken a prescription or over-the-counter-drug?
S- Stress- Am I under psychological pressure, worried about finances, health or family discord?
A- Alcohol- No drinking within 8 hours. No more than .04% alcohol.
F- Fatigue- Am I tired/ adequately rested?
E- Emotion- Am I emotionally upset?

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9
Q

Risk Management and Personal Minimums- PAVE

A

P- Pilot- General health. Physical/mental/ emotional state. Proficiency. Currency.
A- Aircraft- Airworthiness. Equipment. Performance.
V- Environment- Weather hazards. Terrain. Airports/ runways to be used and other conditions.
E- External Pressure- Meetings. People waiting at destination.

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10
Q

Decision Making- “DECIDE”

A

D- Detect that a change has occurred.
E- Estimate the need to counter the change.
C- Choose a desirable outcome.
I- Identify solutions.
D- Do the necessary actions.
E- Evaluate the effects of the actions.

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11
Q

Passenger Briefings- SAFETY

A

S- Seat belts fastened for taxi, takeoff landing. Shoulder harness fastened for takeoff landing. Seat position adjusted and locked.
A- Air vent location and operation. All environmental controls are discussed. Action in case of any passenger discomfort.
F- Fire extinguisher location and operation.
E- Exit doors (how to secure and open). Emergency evacuation plan. Emergency/survival kit (location and contents).
T- Traffic (Scanning, spotting, notifying pilot). Talking (sterile cockpit during taxi, takeoff, landing).
Y- Your questions? Speak up.

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12
Q

Preflight Info required, before arriving at airport.

A

NWKRAFT

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13
Q

When is an IFR flight plan necessary?

A

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has:
•Filed an IFR plan
•And, received an appropriate ATC clearance.
•91.173

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14
Q

How to file an IFR flight plan?

A

File at least 30 minutes prior to estimated departure. Non-scheduled flights above FL230 should be filed at least 4 hours before est. departure time.

FSS:
• by phone (1-800-WX-BRIEF)
•over the (GCO/RCO)
•In person

Online
•www.1800wxbrief.com
•www.flyplan.com

EFB
•Foreflight

With ATC: over radio, or phone if no other means available.

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15
Q

Flight plan cancellation? (AIM 5-1-8)

A

Towered airports- automatically canceled by ATC upon landing.

Non-towered airports- Pilot must contact ATC/FSS to cancel (by radio or phone)

Can cancel anytime in flight if out of IMC and out of Class “A” airspace.

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16
Q

IFR Minimum Fuel Requirements (91.167)

A

Should include:

•Fuel from departure to destination airport.
• Fuel from destination to most distant alternate.
• Additional 45 minutes calculated at normal cruise ( 1 hour for the school).

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17
Q

Need a destination alternate? (1-2-3 rule) (91.169)

A

A destination alternate is always required, unless:

• An instrument approach is published and available for the destination, and
• For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA: ceilings will be at least 2000’ above airport elevation, and visibility will be at least 3 sm.

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18
Q

Minimum wx conditions required at an airport to list it as an alternate?

A

The alternate airport minimums published in the procedure charts, or, if none:

Precision approach- 600’ ceiling and 2sm

Non-precision approach- 800’ ceiling and 2sm

No instrument approach available at the alternate ceiling and visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR.

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19
Q

Filing an Alternate- GPS considerations

A

•Equipped with a non-WAAS GPS: You can flight plan based on GPS approaches at either the destination or the alternate, but not at both.

•WAAS without baro-VNAV: May base the flight plan on use of LNAV approaches at both the destination and alternate.

• WAAS with baro-VNAV: May base the flight plan on use of LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 at both the destination and the alternate.

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20
Q

IFR Cruising Altitudes?

A

In controlled airspace: IFR cruising altitudes are as assigned by ATC!

Based on magnetic course:

Below FL290:
Below 18000’ or FL at or above FL180:
• 0-179 degrees, is ODD thousands (3,5,7, etc).
•180-359 degrees, EVEN thousands

Above FL290 in (non-RVSM):
•0-179 degrees. Flight levels at 4000’ increments starting at FL290. (290,330,370)
•180-359 degrees. Flight levels at 4000’ increments starting at FL310. (310,350,390)

Above FL290-FL410 (in RVSM):
•0-179 degrees. Flight levels at 2000’ intervals starting at FL290. (290,310,330)
•180-359 degrees. Flight levels at 2000’ increments starting at FL300 (300,320,340)

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21
Q

IFR Take-off minimums

A

No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations.

Part 121,125,129,135:
•Prescribed T/O minimums for the runway, or, if none:
1-2 engines airplanes, 1sm visibility
More than 2 engines, .5 sm visibility

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22
Q

Departure Procedures (DP)

A

Ensures obstacle clearance, provided:
• the airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35AGL
•reaches 400ft AGL before turning
•climbs at least 200’ per nautical mile (FPNM), or as published otherwise on the chart.
Pilots are encouraged to file a DP at night, during marginal VMC or IMC.

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23
Q

Two types of DP’s

A

Obstacle Departure Procedure:
•Provides only obstacle clearance.
•Printed either textually or graphically.
• Graphic ODPs are titled (OBSTACLE)

Standard Instrument Departure:
• In addition to obstacle clearance it reduces Pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearances and minimizing radio communications.
•May depict special radio failure procedures.
•SIDS are always printed graphically.

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24
Q

DPs categorized by equipment:

A

Non-RNAV DP- for use by aircraft equipped with ground-based navigation.

RNAV DP- for aircraft equipped with RNAV equipment (GPS, VOR/DME, DME/DME). Require at least RNAV 1 performance. Identified with the word “RNAV” in the title.

RADAR DP- ATC radar vectors to an ATS route, NAVAID, or fix are used after departure. RADAR DPs are annotated “RADAR REQUIRED.”

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25
Q

Are you required to accept a DP?

A

You are not required to accept a DP. To avoid it, state “NO SIDs” in the flight plans remarks section.

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26
Q

Transition Routes

A

Transition routes connect the end of the basic SID procedure to the new route structure.

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27
Q

Diverse Departure Procedure

A

All US airports with a published IAP but with no published DP meet the “Diverse Airport Criteria.”

•This criteria requires that an airport has been evaluated for no obstacles within 200ft altitude/NM up to a minimum IFR altitude.

•Diverse Airport Departure provide obstacle clearance when a DP is not published.

Turns are allowed only after reaching 400’ AGL.

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28
Q

Diverse Vector Area (DVA)

A

Allows ATC to provide radar vectors instead of an ODP, while meeting the diverse departure criteria.
•DVA information is found in the US terminal procedures publication.
•It includes a statement that initial headings are provided by ATC and any applicable climb gradients.

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29
Q

Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)

A

A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC.
•The pilot visually conducts climbing turns over the airport up to the published “climb to” altitude, from which he proceeds to the instrument portion of the departure.
•Designed to avoid obstacles beyond 3SM from the departure end of the runway (DER), as an alternative to complying with climb gradients greater than the standard 200ft/NM.
•Advise ATC as early as possible, prior to departure, of the intent to fly a VCOA.
•Published in the “Take-Off minimums and (obstacle) Departure Procedures” section of the TPP.
•May appear as an option on graphic ODPs.

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30
Q

How are IFR Departure Clearances given by ATC? “CRAFT”

A

C- Clearance limit
R- Route
A- Altitude
F- Frequency (for departure)
T- Transponder code

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31
Q

Clearance void time

A

The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart.

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32
Q

“Hold for release”

A

You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure.

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33
Q

Release time

A

The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR.

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34
Q

Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)

A

A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft’s are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.

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35
Q

Abbreviated departure Clearance

A

“Cleared as filed”

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36
Q

Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR)

A

Serves as a transition between the w route structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made.

•Transition routes connect en route fixes to the basic STAR procedure.

•Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins.

• As with a SID, you can state “NO STARs” in the remarks section of the flight plan, to avoid getting a clearance containing a STAR.

•RNAV STARs require RNAV1 performance.

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37
Q

Minimum IFR Altitudes

A

Except for takeoff or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below:

• Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment, or if none:

•Mountainous areas: 2000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4nm from the course.

•Non-mountainous areas: 1000’ above the highest obstacle within 4NM from the course

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38
Q

DA/H - Decision Altitude/Height

A

The altitude (MSL)/ height (above the runway threshold), on a vertically guided instrument approach procedure (ILS,LNAV/VNAV, LPV, etc) at which pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or to go-around.

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39
Q

MAA

A

Maximum authorized altitude.

Annotated “MAA—17000” (17000 feet as an example) on IFR charts.

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40
Q

MCA

A

Minimum Crossing Altitude.
•The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA.

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41
Q

MDA/H

A

Minimum Descent Altitude/ height.

The lowest altitude (MSL)/ height (above the runway threshold) to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing.

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42
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude

The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. An MEA gap establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage.

Annotated: MEA GAP on IFR charts

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43
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude.

Provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage only up to 22NM (25 SM) of the VOR.

•If both an MEA and MOCA are prescribed for a particular route segment, a person may operate an aircraft lower than the MEA down to, but not below the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22NM of the VOR.

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44
Q

MORA

A

Minimum Off-Route Altitude.
•Route MORA provides obstruction clearance within 10NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10NM radius at the ends of airways.
•Grid MORA provide obstruction clearance within a latitude/longitude grid block.

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45
Q

MRA

A

Minimum Reception Altitude.
The lowest altitude on an airway segment where instersection can be determined using radio navigational aids.

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46
Q

MTA

A

Minimum Turning Altitude.
Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes.

Annotated with the “MCA X” icon and a not describing the restriction.

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47
Q

MVA

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude.
•The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches.

•MVAs may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs and MOCAs.

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48
Q

OROCA

A

Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude.
Provides obstruction clearance with a 1000’ buffer in non-communication signal coverage.

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49
Q

Cruise Clearance

A

A “cruise clearance” can be issued by ATC to allocate a block of airspace to the flight. This airspace begins at the minimum IFR altitude and extends to the altitude (including) specified in the clearance. Within this block, you are free to climb and descend. However, once you start descending and verbally report leaving an altitude, you may not return to it without additional ATC.

•A cruise clearance also allows you to begin an approach at the destination without receiving an additional “cleared for approach” clearance.

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50
Q

Block Altitude

A

A block altitude assigned by ATC to allow altitude deviations within it.

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51
Q

Two principles of a gyroscope?

A

Rigidity in space, and precession.

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52
Q

Attitude indicator (AI) (Gyroscopic Instrument)

A

Operates on the principle of rigidity in space.
•Shows the bank and pitch information.
•Older AIs may have a tumble limit.
•Should show correct attitude within 5 minutes of starting the engine.
•May have small acceleration/Deceleration errors. (Accelerate=pitch up, Decelerate=pitch down.
•Roll-out errors following a 180 degree turn shows a slight turn to the opposite direction.

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53
Q

Heading Indicator (HI) (Gyroscopic Insturment)

A

Operates on the principle of rigidity in space.
•It only reflects changes in heading, but cannot measure the heading directly.
•You have to calibrate it with a magnetic compass in order for it to indicate correctly.
•HIs may be slaved to a magnetic heading source, such as flux gate, and sync automatically to the present heading.
•Normally powered by the vacuum system in general aviation aircraft.

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54
Q

Turn Indicators (Gyroscopic Instrument)

A

Operates in the principle of precession.
•Turn coordinators show rate-of-turn and rate of roll.
•Turn-and-slip indicators show rate-of-turn only.

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55
Q

Altimeter

A

Is an aneroid barometer that shows the height above a given pressure level, based on standard pressure lapse rate of 1000’ per inch of mercury.

•A stack of sealed aneroid wafers extend and contract with changes in atmospheric pressure received from the static port.

•A mechanical linkage between the aneroid and the display translates the sensed pressure to an altitude indication.

•An altimeter setting knob (on a “sensitive altimeter”, which are most Aircraft altimeters) allows the pilot to adjust the current pressure to the current altimeter setting published locally (available from ATIS, METAR, or ATC).

•The pressure setting is displayed in the “Kollsman Window” in min and/or inches of mercury.

•In the US, when operating below 18000’ MSL regularly set the altimeter to a station within 100NM. Above 18000’ MSL the altimeter should be set to the standard sea level pressure of 29.92 Hg, and operate in Flight Levels.

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56
Q

“High to Low, Watch out below”

A

Use caution when flying from high pressure to low pressure areas. If altimeter setting is not updated, altitude will indicate higher, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired.

•Flying from hot to cold areas results in the same error!!

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57
Q

Indicated altitude

A

Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting.

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58
Q

Pressure altitude

A

Altitude above the standard 29.92 ahh plane. Used when flying above the transition altitude (18000’ in US).

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59
Q

Density Altitude

A

Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature. (Performance calculations)

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60
Q

True altitude

A

Actual altitude above MSL

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61
Q

Absolute altitude

A

Height above ground level

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62
Q

Vertical Speed Indicator

A

Indicates rate of climb in FPM, and rate trend (immediately with rate change.)
• A diaphragm inside the instrument is connected directly to the static source.
•The area outside the diaphragm also receives static pressure, but via a calibrated leak.
•This configuration essentially responds to static pressure change over time.
•As the diaphragm expands or contract, a mechanical linkage moves the pointer needle to display the current rate of climb.

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63
Q

IVSI

A

Instantaneous VSI
Solves the lag issue with the addition of vertical accelerometers.

64
Q

Airspeed Indicator

A

The airspeed indicator measures the difference between (ram) air pressure from the pitot tube and ambient pressure from the static port.
•The result is called dynamic pressure and corresponds to airspeed.
•A diaphragm in the instrument receives ram pressure from the pitot tube.
•The area outside the diaphragm is sealed and connected to the static port.
•A mechanical linkage converts the expansion and contraction of the diaphragm to airspeed shown on the display dial.

65
Q

Indicated airspeed

A

Indicated on the airspeed indicator

66
Q

Calibrated airspeed

A

IAS corrected for installation error and instrument error.

67
Q

True airspeed

A

CAS corrected for altitude and nonstandard temperature

68
Q

Mach Number

A

The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound.

69
Q

Ground Speed

A

Actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions.

70
Q

Airspeed indicator markings

A

White Arc- Flap operating range.
•Starts at Vs0 ends at Vfe

Green Arc- Normal operating range. Starts at Vs1 ends at Vno

Yellow Arc- Caution Range. Fly only in smooth air and only with caution.

Red Arc- Vne

71
Q

Attitude Heading Reference System

A

Provides more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional separate gyro systems.
•The first AHRS units were very expensive and relied on laser gyros and flux valves.
•Today they are based on solid state technologies (no moving parts) and are cheaper, smaller and easier to maintain.

72
Q

Air Data Computer

A

•Replaces the mechanical pitot-static instruments.
•The ADC receives inputs from the pitot, static, and outside temperature ports and computes airspeed, true airspeed, vertical airspeed and altitude.

73
Q

Flight Director

A

Computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot flying selected heading, course or vertical speed.

74
Q

Flight Management System

A

•Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director throughout the flight.
• The FMS also automatically monitors and selects the most appropriate navigation source for accurate positioning. (GPS, VOR/DME, INS)

75
Q

Electronic Flight Instrument System

A

Glass cockpit

76
Q

Multifunction display

A

Displays a variety of information such as moving maps, aircraft system status, weather and traffic. It may also be used as a backup for other displays, such as the PFD or EICAS.

77
Q

DME (Distance Measuring Equipment)

A

• Normally tuned automatically with a paired VHF (VOR/LOC) station.
• The airborne DME unit transmits an interrogation signal.
• The ground DME facility receives and replies to the interrogation.
• Airborne unit calculates the slant range distance to the station based on the reply time.
•Due to slant range error, when flying overhead the station, DME indicates greater than zero.
• Slant range error is negligible at 1NM DME station per 1000ft height. For example, at 5000’, slant range error is negligible when further than 5 Nm of station.

78
Q

Approach Lighting System

A

Provides basic visible means to transition between instrument-guided flight into a visual approach.
• AlS extends from the landing threshold into the approach area up to:
•2400-3000’ for precision instrument runways
•1400-1500’ for non-precision instrument runways.
May include sequenced flashing lights which appear to the pilot as a ball of light traveling towards the runway at twice a second.

79
Q

IŁS Categories

A

CAT 1: 2400-1800’ LV, 200’ DH
CAT 2: 1,200’ LV, 100’ DH
CAT 3a: >700’ LV, <100’ or no DH
CAT 3b: 150-700’ LV, <50’ or no DH
CAT 3c: 0’ LV, No DH

LV= Lowest Visibility

80
Q

Area Navigation (RNAV)

A

Allows navigation on any desired path without the need to overfly ground-based facilities.

Magnetic Reference Bearing- the published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV route.

81
Q

Types of RNAV

A

•Global Navigation Satellite System (GPS)
• VOR/DME RNAV
•DME/DME RNAV
•Inertial Reference Unit/ System

82
Q

RVNAV VNAV

A

Vertical Navigation guidance

83
Q

BARO-VNAV

A

An RNAV system that uses the barometric altitude to compute vertical guidance for the pilot.

Published RNAV routes include Q (FL180 to FL450) and T (1,200 AGL to 18,000 MSL) routes and are designated RNAV unless charted as RNAV 1.

84
Q

GPS Augmentation Systems, or Differential GPS

A

Improves the accuracy of GPS by measuring errors received by reference stations at known geographical locations and then broadcasting those errors to supported GPS receivers.

85
Q

Magnetic Reference Bearing

A

The published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV route.

86
Q

Required Navigation Performance

A

A statement of navigation equipment and service performance.
RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting.
All RNAV approaches are RNP approaches:
- Most US RNP approaches are titled “RNAV (GPS)”

87
Q

RNAV (RNP)

A

If this is in the title “AR” (authorization is required) approaches, which require special FAA approval for the crew, aircraft and operation.
Typically found in other countries outside the United States, even those special authorization may not be required.

88
Q

Difference between RNAV, GNSS, GPS, PBN and RNP

A

RNAV- a system that enables navigation between any two points without the need to overfly ground-based stations.

GNSS- is a broad term for satellite based RNAV systems.

GPS- is the GNSS operated by the USA. Other examples are GLONASS (Russia) and Galileo(EU)

Performance Based Navigation- is a general basis for navigation equipment standards, in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and functionality for specific operation contexts. (FA, Enroute, MA)

Required Navigation Performance- RNP is a specific statement of PBN for the flight segment and aircraft capability.
RNP is also defined as RNAV + navigation monitoring and alerting functionality.

89
Q

Different phases of RNP (AIM 1-2-2)

A

Enroute- 2NM accuracy 95% of the flight time
Terminal and Departure- 1NM accuracy 95% of the flight time
Final Approach- .3 NM accuracy 95% of flight time

Advance RNP- (AIM 1-2-2)

90
Q

Basic Attitude Instrument Flying Skills

A

Cross check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft control

91
Q

Common Errors

A

Fixation
Omission
Emphasis

92
Q

Fixation Error

A

Staring at one instrument, with the desire to maintain one instrument to an unnecessarily tight tolerance. Typically happens when a pilot fixated on trend patterns.

93
Q

Omission Error

A

Omission of an instrument from the cross-check. Typically occurs when pilots in glass cockpits omit the stand-by instruments from the scan.

94
Q

Emphasis Error

A

Placing emphasis on a single instrument. The pilot will begin to rely solely on that instrument, by placing a level of importance on that particular instrument.

95
Q

Position Report items Required in Non-radar environment

A

Aircraft ID
Position
Time
Altitude
Type of flight plan
ETA and name of reporting fix
Name only if the next succeeding point along the route of flight
Remarks

96
Q

Lost communication procedure

A

If I’m VFR conditions, continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

Altitude to fly:
The highest of-
Minimum enroute
Expected
Assigned

Route to fly:
Assigned route
Vectored (fly to fix, route, airway)
Expected route given by ATC
Filed Route

97
Q

Instrument Approaches

A

Lateral and vertical Guidance:
ILS- Instrument Landing system
MLS- Microwave Landing System
PAR- Precision Approach Radar
GLS- GBAS Landing System
TLS- Transponder Landing System

98
Q

Non- Precision Approaches

A

Provide Lateral Guidance
VOR
NDB
RNAV/RNP to LNAV or LP minima
LOC- Localizer
LDA- Localizer-type Directional Aid. Identical to a LOC but not aligned with the runway
SDF- Simplified Directional Facility. Similar to a LOC with 6-12 degrees width. May be aligned or not with the runway.
ASR- Approach Surveillance Radar.

99
Q

Approach with Vertical Guidance

A

A precision-like approach, flown to a DA with lateral and vertical guidance, but does not meet precision approach standards.

RNAV/GNSS
LDA with glide slope

100
Q

When can you descend to the next instrument approach segment?

A

When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route.

101
Q

Contact approach

A

Requested by the pilot in lieu of an instrument approach. (Cannot be initiated by ATC)
Requires at least 1SM ground visibility and remain clear of clouds.
Only at airports with approved Instrument approach procedures.
Pilot assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance.

102
Q

Visual Approach

A

Initiated by either ATC or the pilot.
Requires at least 1000’ ceiling and 3sm visibility.
Pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to follow in sight.
Pilot is responsible for visual separation from traffic to follow.

103
Q

Missed Approach

A

Execute a missed approach when:
• Arrival at MAP or DH with insufficient visual reference to runway environment.
• A safe approach is not possible.
• Instructed to do so by ATC.

104
Q

Visual Descent Point

A

A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision, straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin, provided adequate visual reference is required.

105
Q

Vertical Descent Angles

A

VDA’s are advisory only, pilots must still comply with all published altitudes on the procedure.l

106
Q

Standard Weather Briefing

A

A full briefing. Includes adverse conditions, VFR not recommended, synopsis, current conditions, enroute forecast, destination forecast, winds aloft, NOTAMS and ATC delays.

107
Q

Abbreviated Weather Briefing

A

Updates previously received information from mass disseminated sources or a previous briefing.

108
Q

Outlook Briefing

A

For departures 6 or more hours away. Includes forecasts for the time of the flight.

109
Q

Inflight Weather Briefing

A

FSS also provides any of the above types in flight.

110
Q

Fog

A

A cloud that begins within 50 of the surface.
Fog occurs when:
The air temperature near the ground reaches its dew point, or when the dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture to the air.

111
Q

Types of Fog

A

Radiation fog
Advection Fog
Ice Fog
Upslope Fog
Steam Fog

112
Q

Radiation Fog

A

Occurs at calm, clear nights when the ground cools rapidly due to the release of ground radiation.

113
Q

Advection Fog

A

Warm , moist air moves over a cold surface. Winds are required for advection fog to form

114
Q

Ice Fog

A

Forms when the temperature is much below freezing and water vapor turns directly into ice crystals. I’ve fog is common in the arctic regions, but also occurs in mid-latitudes.

115
Q

Upslope Fog

A

Moist, stable air is forced up a terrain slope and cooled down to its dew point by Ariana tic cooling.

116
Q

Steam Fog

A

Cold, dry air moves over warm water. Moisture is added to the airmass and steam fog forms.

117
Q

Stuctural icing

A

Requires two conditions for formation:
1. Visible Moisture
2. Aircraft surface temperature below freezing

118
Q

Instrument icing

A

Structural ice forming over aircraft instrument and sensors, such as pitot and static.

119
Q

Induction Ice

A

Ice reducing the amount of air for the engine intake

120
Q

Intake ice

A

Blocks the engine intake

121
Q

Carburetor ice

A

May form due to steep temperature drop in the carburetor Venturi. Typical conditions are outside air temperatures -7 to 21Celsius, and a high relative humidity (above 80%).

122
Q

Frost

A

Ice crystals caused by sublimation when both the temperature and the dew point are below freezing.

123
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Insufficient supply of oxygen to the blood cells.

124
Q

Hypoxic Hypoxia

A

Insufficient supply of 02 to the body as a whole. As altitude increases, O2 percentage of the atmosphere is constant, but it’s pressure decreases. The reduced pressure becomes insufficient for the 02 molecules to pass through the respiratory a systems membranes.

125
Q

Hypemic Hypoxia

A

Inability of the blood to carry the 02 molecules. It may be result of insufficient blood (bleeding or blood donation), anemia or CO poisoning.

126
Q

Histotoxic Hypoxia

A

Inability of the body cells to affectively use the O2 supplied by the blood. This can be caused by use of alcohol or drugs.

127
Q

Stagnant Hypoxia

A

Caused by the blood not flowing efficiently. Can be caused by heart problems, excessive acceleration (G’s), shock or a constricted blood vessel. Cold temperatures can restrict circulation and decrease blood supplied to the extremities.

128
Q

Hyperventilation

A

A condition which occurs when excessive amount of CO2 is eliminated from the body as a result of breathing too rapidly. Symptoms may be similar to those of hypoxia. Talking aloud, slowing breathing rate, providing an explanation as to why something happened to ease their mind.

129
Q

Decompression Sickness

A

Inert Gasses (mainly nitrogen) are released rapidly from solution in the body tissues and fluids as a result of low barometric pressure. The gasses form bubbles that may harm the body in several ways. The most common result of decompression sickness is joint pain “the bends.”

130
Q

SCUBA Diving Rules

A

Wait at least 12 hours after diving that does not require a controlled ascent for flights up to 8000 ft.

Wait at least 24 for flights above 8000ft or after any diving that required a controlled ascent.

131
Q

Oxygen Requirements: Unpressurized cabins

A

Cabin pressure altitudes above 12500’ up to 14000’: The required minimum flight crew must be provided with and must use supplemental O2 for periods of flight over 30 minutes at these altitudes.

Above 14000’: The required minimum flight crew must be provided with and must use supplemental O2 the entire flight time at these altitudes.

Above 15000’: Each occupant must be provided with supplemental O2.

132
Q

Oxygen Requirements: Pressurized cabins

A

Above FL250- an addition of at least10 minutes of supplemental O2 for each occupant is required.

Above FL350- one pilot at the controls must wear and use an O2 mask unless two pilots are at the control with quick donning masks and the aircraft is at or below FL410.

-If one pilot leaves the controls above FL350, the other pilot must wear and use his O2 mask regardless if it’s a quick donning type.

133
Q

Middle Ear and Sinus Blockages

A

•Air pressure in the middle ear and sinuses normally equalizes with external air through the nasal passages.

• Allergies, colds or sinus infections may block these small openings and prevent the pressure from equalizing.

•If the air gets trapped, it may cause pain, reduction in hearing or damage to the ear drums. This effect is usually most severe during descent.

134
Q

How to relieve Middle ear and Sinus Blockages?

A

To relieve this condition, try the “Valsalva Manuever.”
Pinch your nostrils and gently try to blow air out of your nose. This forces air through the Eustachian tube into the middle ear.

May not work, if the person has a cold, sinus or ear infection, or a sore throat.

135
Q

Spatial Disorientation

A

3 systems the body uses for spatial orientation:
•Vestibular system
• Somatosensory System
•Visual System

136
Q

Vestibular System

A

Consists of organs in the inner ear
•3 semicircular canals sense movement in 3 axes: pitch, roll and yaw. The canals are filled with fluid, which moves against tiny sensory hairs as the head is moved. The brain gets these signals and interprets a sensation of movement.

•2 otolith organs, the utricle and saccule, sense acceleration in the horizontal and vertical planes.

137
Q

Somatosensory System

A

Consists of nerves in the skin, muscles and joints.

138
Q

Visual System

A

Visual cues from our eyes help the brain figure out spatial disorientation.

139
Q

Vestibular Illusions

A

The leans
Coriolis Illusion
Graveyard Spiral
Somatogravic illusion
Inversion Illusion
Elevator illusion

140
Q

The leans

A

After leveling the wings following a prolonged turn, a pilot may feel that the aircraft is banked in the opposite direction of the turn.

141
Q

Coriolis Illusion

A

After a prolonged turn, the fluid in the ear canal moves at the same speed as the turn. A head movement on a different plane will cause the fluid to start moving and result in a false sensation of acceleration or turning on a different axis.

142
Q

Graveyard spiral

A

A pilot in a prolonged, coordinate constant-rate turn may experience the illusion of not turning.

After leveling the wings, the pilot may feel the sensation of turning to the other direction, causing the pilot to turn back in the original direction.

Since a higher angle of attack is required during a turn to remain level, the pilot may notice a loss of altitude and apply back force on the elevator. This may tighten the spiral and increase the loss of altitude.

143
Q

Somatogravic Illusion

A

Rapid acceleration stimulates the inner ear otolith organs in the same way as tilting the head backwards.

This may cause the illusion of a higher pitch angle. Deceleration causes the opposite illusion- the sensation of tilting the head forward and the aircraft being in a nose-low attitude.

144
Q

Inversion illusion

A

An abrupt change from climb to straight and level may creat the illusion of tumbling backwards due to the fluid movement in the otolith organs.

145
Q

Elevator illusion

A

An abrupt upward vertical acceleration may create the illusion of climbing, due to fluid movement in the otolith organs.

146
Q

Visual Illusions

A

False Horizon
Autokinesis

147
Q

False Horizon

A

An illusion in which the pilot may misidentify the horizon line. May be caused by sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, an aurora borealis, dark night with scattered lights and stars or the geometry of the ground.

148
Q

Autokinesis

A

Staring at a stationary point of light in a dark or featureless scene for a prolonged period of time may cause the light to appear to be moving. A pilot may attempt to align the aircraft with the perceived moving light, resulting in loss of control.

149
Q

Optical illusion

A

Runway width illusion
Runway and terrain slop illusion
Featureless terrain illusion
Water refraction
Haze
Fog
Ground lighting illusion

150
Q

Runway width illusion

A

During approach to land, a narrow runway may give the pilot the illusion that the airplane is too high, whereas a wide runway may make it seem too low.

151
Q

Runway and terrain Slope illusion

A

An up-sloping terrain or runway can give the illusion that the plane is higher than it actually is.

152
Q

Featureless terrain Illsuion

A

Also known as “black hole approach.” Flying over dark or featureless terrain can give the illusion that the aircraft is a higher altitude, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired.

153
Q

Haze

A

During an approach, haze may give the illusion that the runway is further or that the airplane is higher than it is

154
Q

Fog

A

Flying into fog may create an illusion of a nose-up motion.

155
Q

Ground Lighting Illusion

A

Lights along straight paths (road or train lights) can be mistaken for runway or approach lights.

Bright runway and approach lights can make the runway appear closer than it is, especially when the surrounding terrain is dark. This illusion may lead the pilot to fly a higher approach than desired.

156
Q

Pop-up IFR clearances

A

Pop-up IFR clearances let pilots transition from VFR to IFR, even without a previously filed flight plan, UNDER ATC AUTHORIZATION (91.173a). They are subject to ATC workload and not guaranteed.
•You must be at or above the minimum IFR altitude, or climb to it under VFR.