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Pediatrics- Noelle > PICU > Flashcards

PICU Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 P’s for airways

A

Position
Patency
Protection (GCS)

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2
Q

Name 3 situations where you would NOT intubate

A

mediastinal mass
known difficult airway
upper airway obstruction
* ask anesthesia/ENT

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3
Q

what does DOPE stand for

A

Displacement
Obstruction
Pneumothorax
Equipment failure

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4
Q

when do you perform needle decompression?

A

If there is a tension pneumothorax (signs of hemodynamic instability)

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5
Q

what is a normal Aa (PAO2- PaO2) difference?

A

<10

>10 think V/Q mismatch

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6
Q

what are 5 main causes of hypoxemia

A 
Low FiO2
Hypoventilation
VQ mismatch= most common
Shunting
impaired alveolar-capillary diffusion
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7
Q

what 3 things shift your oxygen dissociation curve to the right

A

decrease pH
increased temp
increased DPG
*SHIFTS RIGHT TO RELEASE OXYGEN TO THE BLOOD

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8
Q

What 3 things shift your oxygen dissociation curve to the left

A

increased pH
decreased temp
decreased DPG

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9
Q

what is the equation for minute ventilation

A

minute ventilation= TV x RR

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10
Q

what is the equation for alveolar ventilation

A

minute ventilation - deadspace

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11
Q

what are 3 things you can adjust to fix your CO2

A

TV
RR
deadspace

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12
Q

what is normal TV for healthy lungs

A

6-10mL/kg

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13
Q

5 risk factors found on history for fatal asthma

A 
previous attack with rapid/severe deterioration
previous PICU admission
previous mechanical ventilation
syncope/seizure during an attack
denial/non-compliance
depression or other psychiatric disorder
dysfunctional family
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14
Q

what are 3 main factors with asthma that lead to V/Q mismatch

A

mucous plugging
airway inflammation
bronchoconstriction

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15
Q

List severe asthma warning signs (7)

A 
cyanosis, PaO2 <70 in 40% oxygen
absent breath sounds
marked expiratory wheeze
maximal accessory muscle use
altered level of consciousness
inability to speak
marked pulses paradoxus (can see on sat probe)
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16
Q

what is pulsus paradoxus

A

exaggeration of the normal inspiratory drop in systolic BP: normal <5mmHg
but >10mmHg in pulsus paradoxus

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17
Q

what are the treatment options for status asthmaticus

A 
oxygen
Ventolin (continous nebs or IV ventolin)
steroids (IV 2mg/kg then 1mg/kg q6h)
Mg sulfate- ALL KIDS SICK ENOUGH TO GET ADMITTED SHOULD GET MG SULFATE
BiPAP
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18
Q

why do we not want to intubate status asthmaticus?

A

> 50% morbidity/mortality during severe asthma occurs during or immediately after intubation

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19
Q

what is the equation for oxygen delivery

A

delivery of oxygen= CO x CaO2

CaO2= (Hb x sat x 1.34) + (PaO2x 0.003)

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20
Q

CO =?

A

HR x SV

SV= preload, after load, contractility

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21
Q

what does a low venous sat suggest? high venous sat?

A

increased oxygen consumption (pain, hyperthermia, shivering) or
decreased oxygen delivery (poor cardiac output, low Hb, low PaO2)

HIGH:
decreased oxygen consumption (anesthesia, hypothermia) or
increased oxygen delivery (high cardiac output, high PaO2, high Hb +/- poor oxygen utilization)

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22
Q

what inotrope is used for warm shock?

A

norepinephrine

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23
Q

what inotrope is used for cold shock?

A

epinephrine

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24
Q

is shock defined by blood pressure?

A

NO
SHOCK IS NOT DEFINED BY BLOOD PRESSURE
failure of delivery of oxygen and substrates to meet the metabolic demand of the tissue beds

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25
Q

what are the 5 types of shock

A

hypovolemic- dehydration, hemorrhagic
distributive- anaphylactic, septic, spinal
cardiogenic- duct dependent lesion, myocarditis
obstructive- PE, tension pneumothorax, tamponade
dissociate- CO, cyanide

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26
Q

If a patient presents in shock when should you give antibiotics?

A

ideally within the first hour

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27
Q

what are 4 sides effects of prostaglandin E1 (6)

A 
apnea
fever
flushing (vasodilation)
tachycardia
hypotension
seizure-like activity
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28
Q

inotropes: alpha- subtype 1

A

norepinephrine, high dose epinephrine

increase SVR, afterload

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29
Q

inotropes:
B-1
B2

A

low dose epinephrine (<0.3), dopamine (5-10)
increase HR and contractility
bronchodilation, peripheral vasodilation

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30
Q

V-2 receptor (vasopressin)

A

vasoconstriction of the capillaries and small arterioles
restores catecholamine sensitivity
*3rd line

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31
Q

what is the compression to ventilation ratio for 2 person CPR

A

15:2

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32
Q

what is the treatment for low glucose in trauma room

A

5ml/kg IV dextrose 10%

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33
Q

what are the treatment option for status epilepticus

A

give benzodiazepines within the first 5 minutes (lorazepam, diazepam or midazolam)
IV lorazepam 0.1mg/kg (max 4 mg) or IV midazolam 0.1mg/kg
IV fosphenytoin 20mg/kg over 20 min
IV phenobarbital 20mg/kg over 20 min
if no resolution then IV midazolam
consult neuro

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34
Q

what is the equation for CPP

A

MAP-ICP

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35
Q

what is the treatment for high ICP? how does it work?

A

3% NS

  • decreases osmolar swelling
  • decreases cellular swelling by decreased reuptake of glutamate
  • plasma volume expansion
  • restoration of cellular resting membrane potential and cell volume
  • decreases inflammation by inhibiting post traumatic action of leukocytes
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36
Q

what is primary injury and secondary injury for TBI

A

primary injury- damage to brain tissue or vasculature that occurs immediately on impact of mechanical force
secondary injury- neuronal injury as a result of the pathological processes that are initiated as the body response to primary injury
(ex: edema and abnormal blood flow regulation)

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37
Q

what is the goal when we are treating patients with TBI

A

prevent secondary injury**
consider ICP probe for monitoring in all salvageable patients with a severe TBI (GCS 3-8) and an abnormal CT scan (hemaotmas, contusions swelling, herniation, compressed basal cisterns)

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38
Q

what are the key management principals for TBI patient

A 
Keep CPP >40
maintain sats >92 and normal CO2
maintain normotension
maintain normothermia
maintain normal sodium and glucose
keep well sedated +/- muscle relaxed
treat ICP >20 x 5 minutes (HOB up, analgesia, sedation, IV 3% saline 5/kg, ensure normal CO2 and O2 and BP, collar not too tight)
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39
Q

what is Cushing’s triad?

A

decreased HR, increased BP, abnormal RR
altered LOC
pupillary changes
* transtentorial= most common herniation will see unilateral pupillary fixation

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40
Q

what is the treatment for herniation (4)

A

elevated HOB >30 degrees
hyperventilate
sedatives, analgesia +/- NMB
IV 3% saline PUSH (5mL/kg) and repeat as needed

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41
Q

what are risk factors for cerebral edema with DKA

A 
new onset
age <5
initial pH <7.1
high urea
initial corrected Na >145
failure of Na to rise as glucose decreases
bicarbonate use
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42
Q

what is brain death

A

irreversible loss of all brain activity

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43
Q

what is required for brain death in newborns <30 days and >36 weeks gestation

A

2 full exams with apnea tests with >/=24h interval between exam
MUST be >48 h after birth
* key here is exams must be separated by 24 hours*

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44
Q

brain death exam in infants: >=30 days and <1 year

A

full SEPERATE exams must be performed but NO fixed interval

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45
Q

brain death exam in children >1 year old to adults

A

still need two physicians but can perform exams including apnea testing CONCURRENTLY
- if examined separately then the apnea test must be repeated

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46
Q

in the setting of hypoxic-encephalopathy injury when can the exam be completed?

A

≥ 24 hour post injury

ex: arrest or pt hung themselves

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47
Q

what is the definition of a positive apnea test (3)

A

PaCO2 ≥ 60mmHg AND is 20mmHg greater than pre-apnea value
AND pH ≤ 7.28
AND patient remained apneic (respiratory reflex is absent)

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48
Q

what must be seen on ancillary testing for brain death? when do you do ancillary testing for brain death?

A

absence of intracranial blood flow
should be completed when any of the minimum clinical criteria cannot be completed OR if unresolved confounding factors exist
ex: MR angiography, CT angiography, radionuclide angiography, xenon CT
NOT EEG

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49
Q

what are the minimum clinical criteria for brain death

A

bilateral absence of motor responses (EXCLUDING spinal reflexes)
bilateral absence of pupillary responses to light (pupils ≥ 3mm)
bilateral absence of corneal responses
bilateral absence of oculovestibular responses
absent gag reflex
absent cough reflex

cough, gag, corneal, pupillary, oculovestibular, motor

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50
Q

A 6 week old child is found pulseless by parent. What would be the recommended compression to ventilation ratio awaiting EMS?

A

synchronous 30:2

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51
Q

A 6 week old child is found pulseless. EMS intubates the child prior to transport to the emergency department. What would be the correct compression to ventilation ratio for two rescuers?

A

asynchronous 100:10

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52
Q

what are key features for high quality CPR

A

Compressions: lower sternum at nipple line, on a firm surface, 1/3 anterior diameter of the chest (4cm infant; 5cm child), 100-120 times per minute, allowing for full chest recoil
Rotate compressors q2 minutes with <5s pause during this change, <10s pause for pulse changes

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53
Q

Bradycardia

Drug and electricity

A

Drug- epinephrine, atropine

Electricity- transcutaneous pacing

54
Q

SVT
Drug and electricity
If that doesn’t work what other 2 drugs can be used?

A

adenosine 0.1mg/kg (max 6 mg)
second dose 0.2mg.kg (max 12mg)
synchronized cardio version 0.5J/kg-1J/kg
procainamide and amiodarone

55
Q

wide complex tachycardia

Drug and electricity

A

Drug- adenosine, amiodarone, procainamide
do not use adenosine for WPW
synchronized cardio version 0.5J/kg- 1J/kg

56
Q

VF with no pulse

Drug and electricity

A

Drug- epinephrine 0.01mg/kg
then *amiodarone, lidocaine (faster return of ROSC)
electricity- shock 2-4J/kg, max 10J

57
Q

pulseless, 6 week old child has wide-complex tachycardia on EMS monitor, defibrillated x 1 and on arrival continues to receive CPR, what is the next step in your management?

A

shock, shock then epi

shock 4 J/kg now, epinephrine 0.01mg/kg (0.1mg/mL) once CPR resumed

58
Q

ROSC: target oxygen saturation?

A

ROSC: target oxygen saturation 94-99%

59
Q

when can you use a pediatric dose attenuator?

A

up to 25kg or 8 yo

60
Q

why is etomidate not recommended for intubation in sepsis?

A

adrenal suppression

61
Q

is cricoid pressure recommended during intubation?

A

Insufficient evidence to recommend cricoid pressure to prevent aspiration during intubation

62
Q

List 3 things that changed in the 2015 PALS guidelines

A

20ml/kg bolus then reassess patient
ROSC: 94-99%
No routine pre-intubation use of atropine in infants or children
With shock refractory VF or pulseless VT can use either lidocaine or amiodarone
If comatose after out of hospital cardiac arrest, its reasonable to maintain 5d of normothermia (36.5-37.5C)

63
Q

3 broad indications for intubation

A
  1. Patient can’t ventilate or oxygenate or impending failure
  2. Need to decrease metabolic demand or regulate physiology
  3. Reduction of LV afterload
64
Q

what medications are used for intubation of a newborn infant? why is atropine used?

A

atropine- Indicated for neonatal intubations to prevent bradycardia related to vagal response (succinylcholine also causes bradycardia)

fetanyl
succinylcholine

65
Q

ETT size <1
1-2
>2

A

<1: 3.0
1-2: 3.5
>2: age/4 + 4 (-0.5 if cuffed)

66
Q

How can you confirm ETT position

A

Look for bilateral chest movement and listen for equal breath sounds
Listen for gastric inflation over stomach
Check exhaled carbon dioxide with CO2 detector or capnography
check oxygen saturation with a pulse oximeter
In hospital: perform a chest x-ray to verify that the tube is in the mid trachea

67
Q

What would you do with your ventilator is you want to increase CO2 clearance?

A

Increase PIP and ventilator rates if you want to increase CO 2 clearance

68
Q

what would you do with your ventilator if you want to improve oxygenation?

A

Increase PEEP and FiO2 if you need to improve oxygenation

69
Q

Called to ED to assess patient described as developing shock. What vital sign abnormality might you except as a first sign of shock?

A

tachycardia

70
Q

What is shock?

A

Body’s inability to deliver adequate oxygen to meet metabolic demands of vital organs and tissues

Decrease aerobic and increased anaerobic cellular metabolism (that is where the lactate comes from)

71
Q

what must be present to call it decompensated shock?

A

hypotension

72
Q

what are 2 examples of hypovolemic shock?
clinical presentation
pathophysiology

A

diarrheal illness
hemorrhagic (burns, vomiting)

clinical: tachycardia, dry mucuous membranes, decreased urine out, orthostatic hypotension, perfusion (normal to impaired)
pathophysiology: decreased preload

73
Q

what are 2 examples of cariogenic shock?
clinical presentation
pathophysiology

A

congenital heart disease
arrhythmias

clinical presentation: tachycardia, cool extremities, decreased urine output, delayed cap refill
pathophysiology: left ventricular failure, impaired myocardial function, decreased contractility

74
Q

what are 2 examples of obstructive shock?
clinical presentation
pathyophysiology

A

pericardial tamponade
tension pneumothorax
PE

clinical presentation: tachycardia, cool extremities, decreased urine output, delayed cap refill

pathophysiology: reduced stroke volume

75
Q

what are 2 examples of distributive shock

A

anaphylaxis
neurogenic shock- PRESENT WITH BRADYCARDIA

  • the only one that presents differently*
    clinical presentation: tachycardia or bradycardia, flash cap refill, bounding pulses, poor urine output, peripheral vasodilation, widened pulse pressure

pathophysiology: inadequate vasomotor tone

76
Q

2 examples of septic shock

pathophysiology

A

bacterial
viral
fungal

pathophysiology: inadequate preload +/- impaired vascular tone +/- impaired contractility

77
Q

how much blood loss is required before a patient will become hypotensive?

A

45%!

78
Q

what inotrope is used for cold shock? warm shock?

A

cold shock- epinephrine

warm shock- norepinephrine

79
Q

what is the first thing you should do for a patient you suspect has septic shock?

A

put them on oxygen!!

80
Q

Ddx for altered level of consciousness

A

“DIMS”
D- drugs
I- infection
M- metabolic (electrolytes, uremia, IEM, ende)
S- structural (trauma, stroke, tumor), seizure, shock

81
Q

what is the clinical criteria for anaphylaxis

A
  1. Acute onset of an illness with involvement of the skin and at least one of the following:

a. Respiratory compromise
b. Reduced BP or associated symptoms of end-organ dysfunction

  1. Two or more of the following that occur rapidly after exposure to a likely allergen for that patient:

a. Involvement of the skin-mucosal tissue
b. Respiratory compromise
c. Reduced BP or associated symptoms of end-organ dysfunction
d. Persistent gastrointestinal symptoms

  1. Reduced BP after exposure to a known allergen for that patient (minutes to hours)
    a. Infants and children: low systolic BP (age specific) or greater than 30% decrease in systolic BP*
82
Q

what is the principal of neurocritical care

A

Prevention of secondary injury is the principal of neurocritical care

83
Q

Things that can worsen secondary brain injury:

A

Increased CSF pH/decreased CO2: vasoconstriction cerebral arterioles and can lead to inadequate perfusion and ischemia
Hyponatremia: worsen cerebral edema
Hypotension and hypertension: affect cerebral blood flow is cerebral autoregulation impaired by the injury
Hyperthermia increases cerebral metabolic demand
Hypoglycemia leads to neuronal apoptosis, seizures increase cerebral metabolic demand and can result in loss of airway control and hypoxemia

84
Q

3 month old with bilateral subarchnoid hemorrhages and suspected abusive head injury. List signs they may have on physical exam

A 
Bulging fontanelle 
Comatose or irritability (headache)
Conning: hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations, signs of 6th or 3rd CN palsy
Seizure
Emesis
85
Q

List 4 medical reasons why a brain-dead patient might not be a valid organ donor

A 
severe untreated sepsis
active disseminated TB
active rabies
active viral Hep B, C or CMV
active extra cranial malignancy
viral encephalitis
acute or progressive neurological disorder
active west nile virus
86
Q

tetanus prophylaxis after minor wound?

all other wounds?

A

<3 doses then give dTap, TDap
if other wound then give them TIG

> 3 doses: minor wound then give dTap if >10 years since last dose, all other wounds give dTap if >5 years since
TIG is not required if they have ever had 3 doses

other wound: dirt, feces, saliva, puncture wound
Tdap if >7 years

87
Q

What is different for the examination of a neonate who is brain dead

A

must be > 36 weeks GA
assessment must also include occulocephalic and suck reflexes
must be at least 36 ℃
must be at least 48h old
and assessed by 2 physicians at least 24h apart

88
Q

What is different with infants (30d-1 year) for brain death examination? what reflex is different?

A

What is different with infants (30d-1 year)? Assess the occulocephalic reflex instead of vestibulo-occular reflex, two full separate exams by different physicians

89
Q

Following a submersion injury, how long after the injury must they be observed in hospital

A

they should be observed for 6-8 hours for signs of pulmonary edema

90
Q

This patient remains in an unresponsive, comatose state. How long after the submersion injury would you wait to council parents that the child will not recover of full neurological function

A

72 hours best answer (or 48h)

91
Q

what are some adjuvant therapies for asthma

A 
epinephrine
ketamine
helix
aminophylline
mechanical ventilation
92
Q

Ddx bronchiolitis

A 
Asthma
Other pulm infection
Laryngotracheomalacia
Foreign body
GERD
CHF
Vascular ring
Allergic reaction
Cystic fibrosis
Mediastinal mass
Tracheoesophageal fistula
93
Q

what groups are at higher risk of severe disease with bronchiolitis (4)

A 
TABLE from CPS statement
premature babies (<35 weeks)
<3 months of age at presentation
immunodeficiency
hemodynamically significant cardiopulmonary disease
94
Q

what are 6 reasons for admission to hospital with bronchiolitis

A
  1. Signs of severe respiratory distress (indrawing, grunting, respiratory rate >70)
  2. Supplemental O2 required to keep SpO2 >90%
  3. Dehydration o history of poor fluid intake
  4. Cyanosis or history of apnea
  5. Infant at risk for severe disease
  6. Family is unable to cope
95
Q

what are the only 2 recommended treatments for bronchiolitis

A

hydration

oxygenation

96
Q

what are 4 criteria prior to discharge from hospital for bronchiolitis?

A
  1. Tachypnea and work of breathing improved
  2. O2 sat >90% without supplemental O2 or stable fo home oxygen therapy
  3. Adequate oral feeding
  4. Education provided and appropriate follow-up arranged
97
Q

Who should get Palivizumab

A

Hemodynamically significant CHD or CLD <12m at start of season
Preterm before GA30 at start of season
GA <36 now <6months in remote communities
Immunodeficiencies, T21, C.F., upper airway concerns, chronic pulm disease other than CLD should not be routinely offered
Consider for severe disease/home O2
Not recommended to continue if break through disease

98
Q

Name 5 clinical conditions that are potentially responsive to HFNP therapy

A
  1. OSA
  2. Asthma
  3. Bronchiolitis
  4. Pneumonia or pneumonitis
  5. Heart failure
99
Q

what are 3 benefits of HFNP

A

Higher FiO2
Some positive pressure
Humidification

100
Q

what is considered mild croup? how do you treat mild croup?

A

without stridor or substantial chest wall indrawing at rest

  1. oral dex 0.6mg/kg
  2. Educate the parents (course of the illness, signs of respiratory distress, when to seek medical attention)
101
Q

what is considered moderate croup? how do you treat moderate croup?

A

stridor or chest wall indrawing at rest without agitation

  1. oral dex 0.6mg/kg
  2. Observe
  3. if no improvement after 4 hours consider admission
102
Q

what is considered severe croup? how do you treat?

A

stridor and indrawing of the chest associated with agitation or lethargy

  1. epi neb 5mL
  2. oral dex
  3. if cannot give oral dex consider budesonide nebulized with epi
103
Q

how long after epi neb should a child be observed

A

2 hours

104
Q

what are the criteria for admission for croup?

A

consider hospital admission if child received steroids 4 hours ago and has:

  • continued moderate distress (without agitation or lethargy)
  • stridor at rest
  • chest wall indrawing
105
Q

what is the main virus associated with croup?

A

parainfluenza

106
Q

what is on the ddx for croup? (4)

A

bacterial tracheitis
foreign body
epiglottitis
hemangioma/anatomic variant

107
Q

what would you do for impending failure with croup?

A

high conc O2 (NRB mask)
assist ventilation
administer IV/IM dex
ETT (smaller tube – half size smaller than predicted for age), prepare for surgical airway if needed

108
Q

Besides epi and dex, what is one other treatment that can be considered for severe croup

A

heliox

109
Q

what are some indications for dialysis in ICU (7)

A 
Refractory volume overload
Persistent hyperkalemia
Severe, refractory metabolic acidosis
Uremia
Calcium/phosphorus imbalance
Neurologic symptoms (Bad renal humours!)
Certain toxins
110
Q

what are some management options for hyperkalemia

A

ABCs!
Remove iatrogenic causes

Stabilize:
Calcium

Shift:
Sugar/insulin
Bicarb
Ventolin

Remove:
Furosemide
Dialysis

Confirm
Repeat tests
ECG

111
Q

what are some causes of hyperkalemia? (4)

A

Renal failure
Iatrogenic
Acidosis
Aldosterone deficiencies

112
Q

what is seen on EKG with a potassium >6? >7.5? >9

A

> 6: peaked T waves
7.5: long PR, wide QRS, tall T wave
9: absent p wave, sinusoidal wave

113
Q

what are 4 causes of SIADH

A

stress
malignancy
infection
pain

114
Q

what are the treatment options for HYPERnatremia(3)

A

free water replacement
volume expansion
DDAVP

115
Q

How do you calculate your free water deficit?

A

Total body water x (Serum sodium – desired sodium)/desired sodium
= (0.6L/kg x Wt(kg)) x (Serum Sodium – desired sodium)/desired sodium

116
Q

what is one cause you should think of for HYPERnatremia

A

Diabetes insipidus

117
Q

what is the definition of fulminant hepatic failure? (3) KNOW THIS

A

INR > 1.5, uncorrectable by Vit K, with encephalopathy or INR > 2 uncorrectable by Vit K
Evidence of acute liver injury
No evidence of chronic liver disease

118
Q

what is the Ddx for fulminant hepatic failure? (9)

A 
Viral hepatitis
Autoimmune
HLH
Idiopathic
Toxins
Metabollic
Inherited
Ischemic
Neonatal hemochromatosis
119
Q

Names signs/symptoms of potential airway burn? (9)

A 
Facial burns
Singed nasal hairs
Mucosal sloughing /erosion
Carbonaceous sputum
Hoarse/absent voice
Stridor
Wheeze
Respiratory distress
Hypoxia
120
Q

what is the parkland formula?

A

= 4mlx weight x BSA + maintenance
first half over 8 hours then next half over 16 hours
follow urine output as a guide for fluid resuscitation

121
Q

how do you manage a patient with fulminant hepatic failure

A 
watch for bleeding (increased INR)
watch for clotting (strokes)
monitor encephalopathy
watch for cerebral edema** COMMON, call ICU
seizures common
122
Q

what is the treatment for CO poisoning

A

the half life of CO is 4-6 hours in 21% O2
with 100% O2 the half life is reduced to 45-60 minutes
consider hyperbaric if symptomatic, COHB >25-40%
* consider CO poisoning if they have cherry red lips, do carboxyhemoglobin level

123
Q

what are two methods of vagal maneuver in an infant

A

rectal temp

knees to chest

124
Q

how does adenosine work?

A

blocks AV node conduction

125
Q

Pros and cons of succinylcholine

A

pros- fast onset and ofset
cons- muscle fasiculations/spasms can lead to pain, hyperkalemia
don’t use for increased ICP, rhabdomyolysis, burn patients, IOP (glaucoma)

126
Q

what is the goal of peep

A

to prevent atelectasis

127
Q

what is a typical tidal volume

A

7-10ml/kg (healthy lung)

128
Q

what is the equation for minute ventilation

A

TV x RR

129
Q

how much can gases expand on an airplane

A

up to 30%
blood loss or shock should receive supplementary oxygen, NG for ileus and chest tube for pneumothorax MUST be inserted first, Change ETT cuff from air to saline because of changes on the plane!

130
Q

at what age can you start using verbal numerical rating scales for pain? what do you use for younger kids?

A

> 8 years old
Verbal numerical ratings are preferred and considered the gold standard; valid and reliable ratings can be obtained from children 8 yr and older.
3-7: use visual analog pain scale (drawings, graded color intensities)

Pediatrics- Noelle (28 decks)

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