ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What condition is trismus most commonly associated with?

  • how do they present
  • most common organisms?
  • treatment?
  • when to consider tonsillectomy? (2)
  • most serious complication?
A

Peritonsillar abscess!!!!!
unilateral tonsil bulge
in palate
uvular deviation (away)
trismus (pterygoids go into spasm)
-most common in adolescents (older children and teenagers, less common in younger children)
-GAS most common cause; can also be from oral anaerobe
-treatment:
1. Surgical drainage (needle aspiration)
2. Abx against GAS and anaerobes (Amoxi-clav)

Consider tonsillectomy if:

  1. Recurrence
  2. No improvement after abx or needle aspiration

Most serious complication: aspiration pneumonia if BURSTS

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2
Q

What position worsens stridor in laryngomalacia/tracheomalacia?

A

Worsens when lying supine, improved when prone

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3
Q

What is a pathognomonic sign of a thyroglossal duct cyst?

A

Vertical motion of the mass with swallowing and tongue protrusion

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4
Q

When does rebound nasal congestion occur after the use of otrivin?

A

Use > 3 days

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5
Q

What is an associated condition that may worsen laryngomalacia?

A

Reflux = may need to treat to see improvement in laryngomalacia

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6
Q

how do you treat septal hematoma?

A

urgent incision and drainage- do not want to have perforation (associated with saddle nose deformity)
nasal packing and biaxin (prevents toxic shock from the nasal packs)

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7
Q

what is the most common extra cranial complication of acute otitis media?

A

TM perforation

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8
Q

what are the extracranial complications of acute otitis media? (8)

A
TM Perforation
mastoiditis
post-auricular abscess
labyrinthitis
labyrinthine fistula
facial nerve paresis/paralysis
Bezold’s Abscess
cholesteatoma
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9
Q

what are the intracranial complications of acute otitis media? (7)

A
Intracranial (0.36% of all AOM)
** meningitis
** brain abscess (subdural/epidural)
** sino-venous thrombosis
** Gradenigo’s Syndrome (Petrositis)
otic Hydrocephalus
CSF Leak

** know the first 4

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10
Q

what is the criteria for Tympanostomy tubes

A

recurrent AOM with middle ear effusion
bilateral OME (>3 mos) with CHL
unilat/bilat OME (>3 mos) with other problems
vestibular, behavioural problems, discomfort, school performance
at-risk children (immuniocompromised)
other uncommon indication
complications of AOM (i.e. mastoiditis)
lack of response to medical therapy
chronic retraction of TM

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11
Q

what is the treatment for perforated TM? how long does it take to heal? when do we repair perforated TM?

A

ciprodex drops (heat them up)
most heal within 6 weeks
typically repair around 9 or 10 years of age
refer if otorrhea is persistent/ perf visible many months after acute otitis media

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12
Q

what should be used in the setting of a draining ear?

A

ciprodex drops!!

not ototoxic

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13
Q

12 years old draining left ear
x 1 year. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

A

cholesteatoma

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14
Q

what are the features of otorrhea from cholesteatoma

A

unilateral
foul smelling
persistent/recurrent
responds to ototopicals (Ciprodex) but recurs

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15
Q

what are the risk factors for hearing loss?

A

risk factors (ABCD’s)
affected family member
bilirubin
congenital intrauterine infection (TORCH)
defects of the ear, nose and throat
small at birth (<1500 g), low apgar, NICU

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16
Q

what percentage of children with SNHL have risk factors?

A

ONLY 50% of children with SNHL have risk factors

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17
Q

what is the most common congenital birth defect

A

sensorineural hearing loss

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18
Q

what is the goal of hearing tests?

A

diagnosis and rehabilitation by 6 months
prior to screening hearing loss was diagnosed at 18-30 months
**no child is too young to have a hearing test

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19
Q

what is connexion 26

A
  • most common genetic cause of congenital SNHL
  • autosomal recessive
  • mutations in GJB2 gene
  • codes trans-membrane gap junction protein
  • allows fluids and small molecules to pass
  • recycles K+ between endolymph and stria vascularis
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20
Q

most common non-genetic cause of hearing loss?

what percentage are symptomatic?asymptomatic?

A

congenital CMV
5-10% symptomatic (50% have SNHL)
90-95% asymptomatic (5-15% have SNH)

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21
Q

what are the features of SNHL associated with cCMV

A

high frequency
progressive (>50% in first 5 years)
unilateral loss (40%)

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22
Q

What percentage of newborn hearing screening misses congenital CMV induced SNHL?

A

Newborn hearing screening miss over 50% CMV induced SNHL

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23
Q

What is the most common cause of bilateral

nasal obstruction in a child?

A

adenoid hypertrophy

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24
Q

when should a closed reduction be performed on the nose

A

within 7-14 days

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25
Q

If a child presents with nasal trauma what is the one thing you need to rule out

A

septal hematoma

requires emergent drainage

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26
Q

where does most epistaxis come from

A

little’s area in kiesselbach’s plexus

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27
Q

what are the treatment options for epistaxis

A
humidify
lubrificate
cauterize
pack
treat underlying coagulopathy
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28
Q

13 years old boy – severe
chronic unilateral epistaxis
– blood tests normal
what should you be worried about?

A

angiofibroma (Juvenile Nasal Angiofibroma)

teenage boy with unilateral epistaxis

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29
Q

What is Chandler’s classification

A
Chandler's classification- know this!!
it is not a progression of infection
I – pre-septal
II – post-septal
III – subperiosteal ABCESS
IV – ORBITAL abscess
V – cavernous sinus thrombosis (spread to the cavernous sinus back in the brain)
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30
Q

what is the treatment for complicated sinonasal infections?

A

medical management:
antibiotics
decongestants
nasal corticosteroids

surgical management:
abscess drainage

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31
Q

what are the indications for adenotonsillectomy

A
Absolute
OSA (AHI>5/hr) and large tonsils ***
Cor pulmonale
suspected malignancy
hemorrhagic tonsillitis
severe dysphagia
Relative
tonsillar hypertrophy (no need to take out if no symptoms)
recurrent tonsillitis ***
complications of tonsillitis
tonsilloliths and halitosis

** two most common reasons
do not give routine preoperative antibiotics

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32
Q

what is the criteria for retropharyngeal abscess on x ray

A

prevertebral soft tissues > 7mm (c2),
14mm (c6/c7) or
> 1 x the width of the vertebral body

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33
Q

what does inspiratory stidor suggest? biphasic stridor? expiratory stridor?

A
inspiratory- supraglottis (chirpy sound)
biphasic (the most worrisome- smallest part of the pediatric airway)- level of the vocal cords
                 or the subglottis
expiratory- trachea
                  bronchi
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34
Q

what is the differential for inspiratory (supraglottic) stridor? (5)

A
laryngomalacia
vallecular cyst
saccular cyst
foreign body
epiglottitis
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35
Q

what is the differential for biphasic stridor? (9)

A
bilateral vocal cord paresis
subglottic stenosis
glottic web
subglottic hemangioma
subglottic cyst
laryngeal cleft
foreign body
papillomatosis
croup
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36
Q

what is the differential for expiratory stridor?

A

tracheomalacia*
foreign body
tracheoesophageal fistula*
complete tracheal rings*

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37
Q

what is potts puffy tumor?

A

osteomyelitis of the frontal region coming typically from the frontal sinus (does not have to be overlying- can have vascular spread as opposed to direct spread)

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38
Q

what are the red flags for complicated sinusitis

A
proptosis
diplopia
altered vision
severe pain
headache
altered LOC
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39
Q

Retropharyngeal abscess
what is it?
who gets them?
tratement?

A

*present with limited lateral motion of their neck
mid line bulge in the retropharynx
have to do a lateral x ray
posterior to the palate
younger children (1-toddler age) beacuse they have large lymph nodes in that area
tx: antibiotics
+/- drainage

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40
Q

Red flags for referral for stridor

A
biphasic stridor- often need surgery
your comfort level
parental concern
diagnosis in question
S- severity
P- progression
E- eating and feeding
C- cyanosis
S- sleep
R- radiology

severity (getting work)
affecting eating and feeding
cyanosis
if it is happening in sleep or moving about
any radiographic evidence of narrowing (AP film)

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41
Q

How does someone with subglottic hemangioma present?

what is the treatment?

A

50% have an associated cutaneous hemangioma
present with a label of croup, but too young (baby who is 1 -3 months)
biphasic stridor
they will get better with steroids but the alarm bell is the age
“beard” distribution hemangioma- the probability goes up that they will have an airway hemangioma
tx: propranolol
steroid (systemic/intralesional)
laser/surgical excision
unilateral, more likely to be left sided

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42
Q

what are the features of laryngomalacia? what is the typical course?

A

omega epiglottis
short AE folds (pulling in both sides of epiglottis)
arytenoid prolapse
redundant tissue (often secondary to reflux)- often recommend anti reflux therapy
presents with in the first few days of life
worsens up to 6 months
plateaus 6-12 months
generally resolves by 18-24 months

43
Q

what is the treatment for laryngomalacia?

A

the majority will never need surgery
need to monitor weight (stridor increases your caloric expenditure)
medical therapy- reflux therapy
surgical- if they fall off their growth curve
= aeryepiglottoplasty (Only about 5 %)

44
Q

How does tracheomalacia present? causes? (3)

A
audible expiratory wheeze
dying spells (ALTE) especially when sick
causes: complete tracheal rings
slings
post TEF (every child that has TEF will have tracheomalacia)
45
Q

Bronchoscopy indicated if

any 1 of :

A

Bronchoscopy indicated if
any 1 of :

choking spell (high density foods- peanut/carrot/apple; no high dense foods until molars present)

physical exam finding (wheeze, prolonged expiration, decreased breath sounds)

chest x-ray finding (air trapping, consolidation)

46
Q

what x ray views should you order for airway foreign body?

A

inspiratory and expiratory views or

right and left lateral decubitus views

47
Q

what will you see on xray with a button battery

A

double halo sign
always need a lateral film to make sure a coin is not a battery
will see step off on lateral film
requires urgent removal- priority 1 regardless of what orifice (Cause a significant burn)

48
Q

what are the most common congenital neck masses?

A

most neck masses are congenital (>50%)
branchial cleft cyst- the most common (18%)
thyroglossal duct cyst (16%)
dermoid cyst (10%)- may enlarge rapidly after URTI
lymphangioma (8%)
hemangioma (2%)

49
Q

2 year old, afebrile, nontender mass, growing.
What is the most likely
diagnosis? purplish discoloration overlying parotid

A

mycobacterial avium adenitis- purplish is the key for this

50
Q

What is the treatment for Atypical Mycobacterium (MAI)

A

Biaxin (Clarithromycin) x 7-10 days, f/u 3 week

51
Q

Lateral neck masses

A
Branchial cleft cyst
Fibromatosis Colli
Hemangioma
Thymic cyst
Vascular malformation
Laryngocele
52
Q

Midline neck masses (7)

A
Thyroglossal duct cyst
Dermoid cyst
Teratoma
Cervical Cleft
Foregut duplication cyst
Ranula
Vascular Malformation
53
Q
Pathopnemonic exam finding:
thyroglossal duct cyst
dermoid cyst midline 
branchial cleft cyst 
laryngocele 
hemangioma mass 
lymphatic malformation 
sternocleidomastoid tumour 
cervical rib(s)
A

thyroglossal duct cyst moves w/ tongue protrusion / midline
dermoid cyst midline / calcifications on plain films
branchial cleft cyst smooth along SCM border
laryngocele enlarges with valsalva
hemangioma mass presents after birth, rapidly
grows, then plateaus, bluish in color
lymphatic malformation transilluminates / compressible
sternocleidomastoid tumour presents with torticollis
cervical rib(s) hard and immobile, may be bilateral

54
Q

what are some features of reactive lymph node (4)

A

<1 cm
oval (S/L ratio <0.5cm)
normal hilar vascularity
low resistive index with high blood flow

55
Q

what are some features of malignant lymph node

A
>1 cm
round (S/L ratio >0.5cm)
no echogenic hilus
coagulative necrosis
high resistive index with low blood flow
extracapsular spread
56
Q

Tympanometry
Type A
Type B
Type C

A

tympanometry is a middle ear test
pressure wave- if the ear drum is normal it will sail back and forth, if there is fluid it will be completely flat
Type A – Normal
Type B – Flat – suggests OME *** ALWAYS THE ANSWER
Type C – Retraction

57
Q

what is the newborn hearing test for healthy babies with no risk factors? what test do they get if they fail this?

A

OME (otoacoustic emissions)- outer hair cells making a sound that gets picked up by the microphone, middle ear has to be clear
does not give us any information about the degree of hearing loss **
ABR (auditory brain-stem response)

58
Q

what is the most common reason to fail OME?

A

middle ear effusion

59
Q

what is the newborn hearing test for babies with risk factors?

A

AABR (automated ABR)
analyzed by a computer and gives a result
will miss mild hearing loss, not the first line of screening for healthy babies

Normal AABR and if you are at risk- VRA (visual reinforced audiometry) when they are older (8-12 months)- behavioral test such as play audiometry to make sure they don’t have a mild hearing loss

abnormal AABR- diagnostic ABR at 6 weeks corrected (if normal and at risk then they get behavioral testing)

60
Q

what investigations would you order for someone with profound hearing loss? (2)

A
  1. EKG
    looking for Jervell and Lange- Nielson (Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome (JLNS) is a type of long QT syndrome associated with severe, bilateral sensorineural hearing loss)
  2. urinalysis and renal ultrasound
    BOR
    Cogans (Cogan syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by recurrent inflammation of the front of the eye (the cornea) and often fever, fatigue, and weight loss, episodes of vertigo (dizziness), tinnitus (ringing in the ears) and hearing loss)
61
Q

when do you image for SNHL?

A

if hearing loss is severe to profound

- imaging required prior to cochlear implant

62
Q

patients with cochleovestibular anomalies are at increased risk of what?

A

patients with cochleovestibular anomalies are at increased risk of meningitis from an otogenic source

63
Q

How do you diagnose CMV <3 weeks? >3 weeks?

A

age <3 weeks
urine culture gold standard
saliva or urine PCR other options

age >3weeks
CMV PCR from neonatal dry blood spot
or MRI

64
Q

what is the most common presentation of hearing loss with CMV

A

most common presentation is single sided deafness

probability of hearing loss in the contralateral ear is 75% (over 18 years)

65
Q

What are the treatment options for hearing loss

A

hearing aids

  • conventional
  • bone conduction

surgical
- tympanostomy tubes (OME)
- cochlear impacts (severe to profound deafness)
implanted middle ear and other implants

66
Q

what are some causes of conductive hearing loss?

A

OME
less common:
aural atresia
syndromic CHL: crouton’s, MPS, osteogenesis imperfects, treachery collins, achondroplasia, Klippel-feil, Apert, BOR

67
Q

what is the treatment for tube otorrhea

A

topical antibiotics

resolution is quick

68
Q

what is Bezold’s abcess?

A

an abscess deep to the STERNOCLEIDOMASTOID MUSCLE muscle where pus from mastoiditis erodes through the cortex of the mastoid part of the temporal bone

69
Q

What is the triad for Gradenigo’s syndrome

A

retro-orbital pain (in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve)**
otorrhea **
abducens palsy**
fever

70
Q

what is neonatal ophthalmia?

A

conjunctivitis in the first 4 weeks of life

71
Q

what are the common bacterial pathogens for AOM and bacterial sinusitis:

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Nontypeable Haemophilus influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis

72
Q

Child with liver transplant. Has a unilateral peritonsillar mass. Cervical lymphadenopathy. Most likely diagnosis? What are 4 non-infectious complications that you have to monitor?

A

Upper airway obstruction
Rupture (can lead to aspiration)
Internal jugular thrombosis and thrombophlebitis - Lemierre syndrome
Carotid artery pseudoaneurysm and rupture

73
Q

Give differential diagnoses for congenital torticollis other than sternocleidomastoid tumor.

A

Congenital
Osseous abnormalities - Klippel-Feil syndrome (abnormal joint fusion of the cervical spine vertebrae, short neck, low hairline at back) , unilateral atlanto-occipital fusion, hemivertebrae
Soft tissue abnormalities - unilateral absence of sternocleidomastoid, pterygium colli (webbed neck derformity)
fibromatosis colli

Acquired
Congenital muscular torticollis (most common)
Trauma - clavicle #, brachial plexus injury
Cervical instability (atlantooccipital or antlantoaxial subluxation)

74
Q

what is the order for sinus development

A

Born with ME, then go to School (Sphenoid at 5 yo) then get Friends (Frontal at 7)

(mnemonic :Maxillaries Early, Sphenoids Follow)

❖ Maxillary and Ethmoidal sinuses: present at birth, but only the ethmoidal sinuses are
pneumatized
❖ Maxillary sinuses pneumatized at 4yr of age
❖ Sphenoidal sinuses are present by 5yr of age ( S for School age)
❖ Frontal sinuses begin development at age 7-8yr and are not completely developed until
adolescence.

75
Q

6 week old with description of mild laryngomalacia, stridor when feeding, improves when placed supine. Growing well and otherwise well.

What do you tell parents about the prognosis?

Two indications for surgery for laryngomalacia

List four items on the differential diagnosis for a child < 12 months old with chronic stridor

A

6 week old with description of mild laryngomalacia, stridor when feeding, improves when placed supine. Growing well and otherwise well.
What do you tell parents about the prognosis?
Will spontaneously resolve
Two indications for surgery for laryngomalacia
Significant apenas
Unable to feed
Severe stridor
List four items on the differential diagnosis for a child < 12 months old with chronic stridor
Tracheomalacia
Vocal cord paralysis
Vascular ring
Bronchogenic cyst
Infantile hemangioma
Subglottic stenosis
Foreign body aspiration

76
Q

Girl with large tonsils on exam and OSA (AHI 10) on a sleep study with desats. You consult ENT urgently and the surgery is scheduled in one week.
Name two consequences of OSA (2)?
What one investigation should she have done before the surgery (1)?
What are two things that you would do to manage her before the surgery (2)?

A
Name two consequences of OSA (2)?
Hypertension
RV hypertrophy
Polycythemia
Metabolic alkalosis - hypercapnea
Daytime somnolence

What one investigation should she have done before the surgery (1)?
Cardiac assessment - Echo / ECG

What are two things that you would do to manage her before the surgery (2)?
CPAP
Oxygen at night
Nasal steroids if adenoids enlarged

77
Q

Newborn who is IUGR, failed hearing screening, positive CMV PCR from urine, what do you treat them with and for how long?

A

Valganciclovir for 6 months

78
Q

What condition is a bifid uvula associated with?

A

Submucosal cleft palate

79
Q

16 month old boy has episodes (once weekly) of falling down suddenly and refusing to get up. Remains conscious during episodes and recovers within a few minutes. Sometime vomits with episodes. Eyes are noted to move during the episode.
What is the diagnosis?
What is one associated condition?

A

16 month old boy has episodes (once weekly) of falling down suddenly and refusing to get up. Remains conscious during episodes and recovers within a few minutes. Sometime vomits with episodes. Eyes are noted to move during the episode.
What is the diagnosis?
Benign paroxysmal vertigo
What is one associated condition?
Associated with migraine and motion sickness

80
Q

2 year old with fever and right ear pain. She was treated with clarithromycin a few weeks ago for a respiratory infection. On exam has acute otitis media. What are three possible antibiotics she could be given?

A

amoxicillin
amox-clav
cefuroxime
ceftriaxone

81
Q

Child with sinusitis, list 5 complications of bacterial sinusitis

A
Sinus venous thrombosis
Meningitis
Orbital/periorbital cellulitis
Brain abscess
Osteomyelitis of the frontal bone – pot puffy tumor
mucocele
82
Q

Branchial Oto Renal Syndrome, is it autosomal recessive or dominant?

A

autosomal dominant

83
Q

6 years old – recurrent neck
abscess (x2) requiring I&D,
6 months apart?
a) patient is at risk of rheumatic fever
b) patient at risk for coronary artery aneurysms
c) this is highly contagious
d) patient may have an underlying 2nd branchial cleft cyst

A

patient may have an underlying 2nd branchial cleft cyst

84
Q

when to biopsy neck adenopathy, history, physical, duration

A
HISTORY
Family history
Previous cancer
Previous Rtx
Immunosuppressed
'B' symptoms
Physical:
neonate
size > 2 cm
firm
hard
fixed
CN
abnormality
supraclavicular

Duration:
increase at 2 wks
no change at 4 wks

85
Q

what are 2 conditions associated with pyriform aperture stenosis

A

apert syndrome

crouzon syndrome

86
Q

what is an encephalocele

A

brain has come through into the nose
bluish in color
pulsatile
if you decrease venous return to the heart they should expand (child crying and bearing down or turn the baby upside down and it will expand)
image with CT scan and MRI
versus: glioma- no longer connected to the brain, not pulsatile, not compressible still do CT and MRI

87
Q

3 midline things in the nose

A

encephalocele
glioma
dermoid

they could be connected to the brain so you should get imaging- CT or MRI

88
Q

Ddx nasal polyps

A

CF
PCD
antrochoanal polyp
wegener’s granulomatosis

89
Q

indications for tonsillectomy for recurrent infections

A

7 episodes/yr in 1 year
5 episodes/yr in 2 years
3 episodes/yr in 3 years

90
Q

what does thumb sign on x ray suggest? steeple sign?

A

thumb sign- epiglottitis

steeple sign- croup

91
Q

What is the most objective test to detect a middle ear effusion?

A

tympanometry
looks at how much TM moves
-if stiff with effusion, moves less

92
Q

What are the features of Treacher-Collins syndrome?

A
  1. Downslanted palpebral fissures
  2. Malformed auricles
  3. Malar hypoplasia
  4. Mandibular hypoplasia
93
Q

What is the management of otitis media with effusion?

A

See middle ear fluid without signs or symptoms of inection

  • management:
    1. Observation = 90% resolve after 3 months
    2. Document degree of hearing loss if > 3 mo and consider myringotomy for ear tubes (conductive hearing loss)
94
Q

What is the most common genetic cause of sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Connexin 26 protein defect from mutation = autosomal recessive

95
Q

1 mo boy presenting with progressively worsening biphasic stridor. No history of intubation. What is the most likely diagnosis? Next step in management?
-what if it was inspiratory stridor? Expiratory?

A

Vocal cord paralysis!! Next step: immediate ENT referral and get MRI of the brain!! Need to look at course of recurrent laryngeal nerves from Cranial nerve CN 9/10 to the nerve itself

  • Insp stridor = think laryngomalacia
  • exp stridor = think trachomalaceia
  • biphasic stridor = think vocal cord paralysis
96
Q

What is the most serious complication of peritonsillar abscess?
-what about retropharyngeal abscess?

A

Peritonsillar abscess: aspiration pneumonia

Retropharyngeal abscess: airway obstruction

97
Q

What is the ddx for unilateral tonsillar enlargement?

A

True enlargement

  1. Infectious: tonsillitis, peritonsillar abscess
  2. Benign hypertrophy (chronic)
  3. Neoplastic: lymphoma
    - rapid growth
    - dysphagia
    - cervical nodes
    - night sweats
98
Q

What is the treatment of acute epistaxis?
-adolescent male presents recurrently with epistaxis and it is always on the same side. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A
  1. Pressure first x 5 minutes.
  2. If that doesn’t work: then pack with vaseline strip gauze or gel foam
  3. If that doesn’t work: then call ENT to do nasal packing
    * **cautery may not be great because it might traumatize the tissue around the bleed so if you do cauterize, need to do medical therapy x 2 wks post

Most nosebleeds originate from septal wall: Little’s area

Adolescent male: Juvenile angiofibroma = usually unilateral, always same side, may have element of nasal obstruction

99
Q

What is a possible complication of nasal fracture?

A

septal hematoma

100
Q

2 most common causes of swollen midline neck mass?

-first step in work-up?

A
  1. Thyroglossal duct cyst = cystic mass
  2. Dermoid cyst = solid mass
  3. Lymphadenopathy

First step in work-up: ultrasound

101
Q

What are the indications for adenoidectomy? (7)

A
  1. Chronic nasal obstruction or obligate mouth breathing
  2. OSA with FTT, cor pulmonale
  3. Dysphagia
  4. Speech problems
  5. Severe orofacial/dental abn
  6. Recurrent/chronic adenoiditis/sinusitis if medical management failed (3 or more episodes/yr)
  7. Recurrent/chronic OME
102
Q

who should be admitted for monitoring following tonsillectomy

A

Clinicians should arrange for overnight, inpatient monitoring of children after tonsillectomy if they are <3 years old or have severe obstructive sleep apnea

103
Q

what is the most common bug to cause mastoiditis

A

strep pneumonia

104
Q

orbital cellulitis typically comes from which sinus?

A

ethmoid