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Pediatrics- Noelle > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

low pitched systolic ejection murmur at base with fixed split S2 (1)

A 
ASD
•Fixed and wide splitting of the 2nd
heart sound (volume load, delayed
right bundle conduction).
•diastolic rumble at the mid to
lower right sternal border
(increased flow across TV)
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2
Q

Systolic ejection murmur radiating to the neck (1)

A

aortic stenosis

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3
Q

systolic ejection murmur radiating to the back (3)

A

pulmonary stenosis
PDA
coarctation

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4
Q

high pitched short systolic regurgitation murmur at the apex or LLSB

A

small VSD

mitral regurgitation

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5
Q

what are some features of cardiac syncope

A

little or no prodrome
prolonged LOC >5min
exercise-induced
fright/startle induced
associated chest pain or palpitations
history of cardiac disease- AS, pulmonary hypertension
positive family hx (long QT, arrhythmia syndromes, devices, cardiomyopathy, sudden death)

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6
Q

long QT and deafness=

A

Jervell Lange- Nielson syndrome

autosomal recessive

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7
Q

palpitations while swimming

A

long QT syndrome

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8
Q

where should you measure QTc

A

lead II or V5

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9
Q

what is QTc

A

QT/√RR

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10
Q

what is a normal QTc Boys? girls?

A

Boys >10: <0.45
Girls >10: <0.47
younger kids <0.46

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11
Q

when can you not interpret QTc

A

cannot interpret in presence of abnormal depolarization
BBB
WPW

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12
Q

what electrolyte abnormalities can cause long QT interval? what class of drugs?

A

low Ca
low Mg
low K
drugs (tricyclic antidepressants)

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13
Q

what is the first line treatment for long QT syndrome

A

beta blockers

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14
Q

when do we see torsades de point?

A

form of polymorphic VT
long QT syndrome
or hypomagnesemia
tx: magnesium

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15
Q

what are the EKG findings associated with WPW (3)

A

delta wave

short PR

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16
Q

what are two complications of WPW

A

sudden death

SVT

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17
Q

what are the treatment options for WPW
no symptoms
SVT
fainting with palpitations

A

no symptoms- no treatment
SVT- beta blockers or ablation (no digoxin!)
fainting with palpitations- ablation

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18
Q

what is the most common congenital heart defect with trisomy 21

A

VSD

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19
Q

who should get palivizumab in children with CHD

A

children <1 with cyanotic CHD or hemodynamically significant cyanotic CHD (requiring meds)

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20
Q

what is the Norwood/Sano procedure

A

1st surgery for HLHS
used for patients with hypoplastic left heart syndrome
1. connect pulmonary artery to the aorta, close PDA
2. augment the aortic arch
3. create ASD (or make bigger to allow oxygenated blood to right ventricle)
4. place a shunt from right subclavian (aorta) to right pulmonary artery or Sano shunt from right ventricle to pulmonary artery
usual saturations 75-85% ** (too high is bad too, too much pulmonary blood flow

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21
Q

what is the surgical treatment for TGA

A

arterial switch procedure

usual saturations are 100%

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22
Q

what is the surgical treatment for too much pulmonary artery blood flow

A

pulmonary artery band

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23
Q

what are two complications of Fontan

A

plastic bronchitis

protein losing enteropathy **

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24
Q

what are the surgeries for a single functional ventricle

A
  1. Glenn- SVC to RPA
    sats: 75%-85%
  2. Fontan
    IVC to RPA
    expected sats >90% (usually)
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25
Q

who needs antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis before high risk procedures? (4)

A

1) a prothetic heart valve
2) a history of endocarditis
3) a heart transplant with abnormal heart valve function
4) certain congenital heart defects including:
- cyanotic congenital heart disease
- a congenital heart defect that has been completely repaired with prosthetic material for the first 6 months after repair
repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects such adjacent to the prosthetic device

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26
Q

what is considered a high risk procedure requiring endocarditis prophylaxis (2)

A

dental procedure where the gums or lining of the mouth are likely to be injured (Eg extraction or surgery)
usually not routine cleaning
gut or genitourinary surgery through an area that is infected

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27
Q

things that do NOT need antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis

A

injections of anaesthetic to mouth
loss of baby teeth
accidental injury to gums/mouth
nosebleeds
routine placement or adjustment of braces
deliveries and episiotomies
most surgeries and procedures, including non-infected gut and urinary tract procedures

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28
Q

Ddx of cyanosis in a newborn

A

heart

  • cyanotic congenital heart disease
  • severe congestive heart failure

lung

  • parenchymal disease: RDS, pneumonia, pulmonary hemorrhage
  • non parenchymal disease: CPAM, pleural effusion, CDH

neurological
Blood
- polycythemia
- methemoglobinemia

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29
Q

Types of cyanotic congenital heart disease (8)

A 
T- Transposition of the great arteries
T- Tetralogy of Fallot
T- Tricuspid atresia
T- Total anomalous pulmonary venous connections
T- Truncus arteriosus
T- 'Tingle' ventricle (single ventricle)

A- pulmonary atresia
A- Ebstein’s anomaly

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30
Q

what are the characteristics of pericarditis on history

A

sharp stabbing or squeezing chest pain
better with sitting up
worse with lying down
often pleuritic

no sensory innervation of the pericardium( pain referred from diaphragmatic and pleural irritation)
friction rub on exam

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31
Q

what are the EKG findings for pericarditis

A 
4 stages on EKG:
ST elevation/PR depression
T wave flattening
T wave inversion
resolution

ECHO is diagnostic

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32
Q

what are some causes of pericarditis?

A 
Idiopathic- most common
viral
bacterial- rare now secondary to H. Influenza vaccination
neoplastic- leukemia, lymphoma
inflammatory- lupus, JIA
  • common with connective tissue diseases- RA, rheumatoid factor, SLE
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33
Q

what would you see on physical exam for pericarditis? (3)

A

narrow pulse pressure
pericardial friction rub
pulsus paradoxus >15mmHg

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34
Q

what is Pulsus paradoxus

A

Pulsus paradoxus refers to an exaggerated fall in a patient’s blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mm Hg.

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35
Q

what is the treatment of pericarditis

A

NSAIDs
steroids if persistent
pericardial tap if evidence of tamponade or persistent on meds
antibiotics if suppurative pericarditis is suspected (Rare in Canada and pt is very sick)

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36
Q

what are 3 cardinal signs of CHF in infants?

A

tachycardia
tachypnea
hepatomegaly

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37
Q

what are the causes of CHF by age:
first week of life
2-6 weeks
older children

A 
first week of life:
obstructions primarily
- hypo plastic left heart syndrome (d3-5)
- severe aortic stenosis
- coarctation (d7-10)
asphyxia
severe mitral or tricuspid regurgitation
uncontrolled tachycardias (SVT>24h)
2-6weeks: L to R shunts
VSD
AVSD
PDA
NOT ASD!!! (DO NOT CAUSE OBSTRUCTION- low pressure shunt)

older children: pump failure
dilated cardiomyopathy
myocarditis
tachycardia (sustained tachycardia) induced cardiomyopathy

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38
Q

what are some symptoms of congestive heart failure in infants

A 
poor feeding
poor weight gain
sweating, especially with feeds
shortness of breath with feeds, grunting
frequent chest infections
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39
Q

what are some symptoms of congestive heart failure in older chidren

A 
shortness of breath with activity
decreased activity tolerance
easily tired
puffiness of eyelids
swollen feet
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40
Q

what are some supportive treatment options for CHF

A

head of the bed up (decrease respiratory distress)
tube feeds (Decrease work for heart)
high calorie formula
salt restrictions (in older children- avoids excess preload)
fluid limitation (if severe)
immunize (RSV, flu)

Medication:
Improve contractility
• Dopamine, dobutamine, milrinone, epinephrine, norepinephrine
– Decrease preload or filling of the heart
• Diuretics
– Decrease afterload (pump related dysfunction)
• ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers
– Minimize ongoing damage (pump related dysfunction)
• Beta blockers

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41
Q

AV re-entry tachyarhythmias R to P interval

A

R to P distance is shorter than the P to R distance
almost certainly had an AV re-entry mechanism
responds to adenosine

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42
Q

Ectopic- R to P interval

A

R to P distance is longer then the P to R interval
not an artioventricular re-entry mechanism
NOT likely to respond favourably to adenosine

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43
Q

what investigations can be done for palpiations

A

TSH
lytes, ca, Ng
EKG +/- holter (of having at least once per day)
if event only every 2 weeks then an event monitor would be better

not everyone would do lytes but most would do TSH

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44
Q

what are 4 physical exam findings of endocarditis?

A

Janeway lesion- non tender
osler node- tender “OW”
splinter hemorrhage
embolus

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45
Q

what is seen pathologically with rheumatic fever

A

Aschoff bodies are characteristic lesions seen

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46
Q

what are the major criteria for rheumatic heart disease

A 
carditis
POLYarthrtiis
subcutaneous nodules
erythema marginatum
syndenhams chorea

2 major or 1 major and 2 minor
RECURRENT: 2 major or 1 major and 2 minor or 3 MINOR

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47
Q

what are the minor criteria for rheumatic heart disease

A

Fever >38.5
Elevated CRP/ESR >60
Polyarthralgia (low risk)
prolonged PR interval on ECG (if carditis not major)

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48
Q

what is the definition of pulmonary hypertesion

A

pulmonary artery pressure >25mmHg

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49
Q

what is cor pulmonale

A

right heart dysfunction secondary to pulmonary disease

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50
Q

physical exam findings of cor pulmonale

A 
precordial bulge
RV heave
single S2
TR, PR murmurs (Graham steele)
pulsatile liver (tricuspid regurgitation)
hepatomegaly
oedema
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51
Q

what do you see on EKG for pulmonary hypertension?

A

RV strain

RVH

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52
Q

what would you see on CXR for hypoplastic left heart

A

wall to wall heart with increased pulmonary vasculature

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53
Q

Boot shaped heart on CXR

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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54
Q

Egg on a string CXR

A

Transposition of the great arteries

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55
Q

snowman on CXR

A

TAPVR

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56
Q

Large LV on CXR (3)

A

cardiomyopathy
myocarditis
pericardial effusion

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57
Q

what is characteristic of still murmur

A

vibratory murmur

Still murmur: Grade 1 to 3, early systolic murmur;
Low to medium pitch with a vibratory or musical quality
Best heard at lower left sternal border
Loudest when patient is supine and decreases when patient stands
Infancy to adolescence, often 2 to 6 years old.

58
Q

An infant is in shock with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, what is the treatment?

A

synchronized cardioversion

59
Q

Neonatal goiter. What anti-arrhythmic was mom on?

a. Digoxin
b. Procainimide
c. Amiodarone
d. Sotalol

A

Amiodarone contains iodine. The iodine load causes fetal/neonatal hypothyroidism and goiter, which is transient

60
Q

What is the most common cardiac defect with Marfans?

A

Dilatation Ascending aorta

61
Q

What is the most common cardiac lesion in a IDM?

A

HCM

62
Q

what is the cardiac finding with neonatal lupus

A

complete heart block due to anti-rho/la

63
Q

Baby 4 days old, now fussy, no work of breathing but sats 88% despite oxygen. Poor perfusion. You’re in a peripheral hospital. What’s the next step in management?

A

start prostaglandin

64
Q

What’s the most common cyanotic congenital heart defect to present in the neonatal period?

A

TGA

65
Q

what is the treatment for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

beta blockers

66
Q

EKG findings ALCAPA

A

Signs anterolateral myocardial infarction
Q waves in leads I, aVL, V5 and V6
May progress to ischemic cardiomyopathy

67
Q

Kid with occasional PVCs, what’s the sports recommendation?

A

No restrictions

68
Q

WPW is strongly associated with which anomaly?

A

Ebsteins anomaly

69
Q

what are the EKG findings for WPW

A

delat wave
short PR
wide QRS

70
Q

List 4 Risk Factors for Artherosclerosis

A 
Obesity
Diabetes
Hypertension
Hyperlipidemia
Smoking
Metabolic syndrome (T2DM, abdominal obesity, hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia, and hypertension)
Familial Hypercholestremia
71
Q

what are 4 types of cardiomyopathy in children

A

dilated cardiomyopathy- most common
both ventricles dilated

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with LV outflow obstruction
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy without LV outflow obstruction (storage diseases)
restrictive cardiomyopathy

72
Q

Rib notching on CXR

A

Rib notching: Coarctation of the aorta (older children)

73
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of a large patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

A 
Tachypnea and tachycardia
• Bounding pulses
• Hyperdynamic precordium
• Wide pulse pressure
• Continuous murmur (older child)
• Systolic murmur (premature infant)
• Labile oxygenation (premature infant)
• Apnea (premature infant)
74
Q

what is a PDA

A

persistent patency of a normal fetal structure between the left PA and the descending aorta
shunts bloods from the aorta to the pulmonary artery and increases pulmonary blood flow

75
Q

what type of murmur is associated with PDA

A

machinery continuous murmur best heard at the left infraclavicular area
on PE: bounding pulses, wide pulse pressure

76
Q

AVSD is commonly associated with what?

A

Down syndrome

~70% have Down syndrome

77
Q

Acyanotic congenital; heart lesions with increased pulmonary blood flow

A 
ASD
AV Septal Defect
VSD
PDA
AV Malformation
78
Q

Acyanotic congenital heart lesions with normal pulmonary blood flow

A

Pulmonic Stenosis
Mitral Stenosis/Regurgitation
Aortic Stenosis
Coarctation of the Aorta

79
Q

what is the most common ASD

A

secundum (75%)
RAD on EKG
2nd most common CHD (6-10%)

Primum (15%)
– associated with other endocardial cushion defects (cleft AV valves, inlet type VSD)
Sinus Venosus (10%)
80
Q

Treatment for ASD

A

Percutaneous Closure
– only for secundum ASD
– adequate superior/inferior rim around ASD

81
Q

what is the most common congenital lesion?

A

VSD

82
Q

when do VSDs typically become symptomatic

A 
6-8 weeks
•Large VSD’s may be silent and become
symptomatic in first few weeks as pulmonary
resistance decreases
•SOB and diaphoresis with feeds
•Poor weight gain
•Systolic murmur
•CXR demonstrates increased pulmonary
vasculature, cardiomegaly
83
Q

Treatment for AVSD

A

“All” require surgical intervention
• Repair at 4-6 months of age for complete
defects and about 3 years of age for primum
defects

84
Q

Duke criteria for IE

A

2 major
1 major + 3 minor
or
0 major and 5 minor

BE JOAN OF ARC
Major criteria
B-blood culture positive
E- echo evidence of vegetation and valvular regurgitation

Minor criteria
J- janeway lesion
O- oslers node
A- aneurysm(mycotic); abuse(idu)
N- nephritis
O- other predisposing heart condition
F-fever
A- arterial emboli
R-roth's spot; rheumatoid factor
C- culture positive not meeting major criteria
85
Q

what is the classic cardiac finding with acute rheumatic fever?

A

mitral regurgitation most common

aortic regurgitation second most common

86
Q

Jones major criteria

A

Major
–Carditis (40-50% in initial episode, up to 90% overall; new/ changing murmur, cardiomegaly, CHF)
–migratory polyarthritis (large joints)
–Chorea (F>M)
–erythema marginatum (erythema w serpiginous, advancing margins, central clearing, trunk, inner thighs)
–subcutaneous nodules (usually with carditis, extensor surfaces)

87
Q

Jones minor criteria (5)

A 
–fever
–arthralgia
–history of previous ARF
–elevated ESR, CRP
–prolonged PR on ECG
88
Q

What is the antibiotic treatment for rheumatic fever?

A

10 days of penicillin or amoxicillin

erythromycin if pen allergic

89
Q

RF secondary prevention (3)

A

Without carditis: up to 5 years after last acute episode or until age 21 years, whichever longest
•Carditis without sequelae: 10 years from last acute episode or age 25 years
•Carditis with residual valvar lesions: at least age 40 years or life-long

90
Q

what cardiac findings are associated with Pompe disease

A

Pompe disease: Cardiomegaly, increased wall thickness, supraventricular tachycardia, short PR interval, extremely tall high QRS voltages.

91
Q

most common cause of sudden death in children and young adults < 35 years

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

92
Q

what is one syndrome associated with HCM (5)

A 
Syndromic HCM
•Noonan’s syndrome***
•LEOPARD syndrome
•Friedreich’s ataxia
•Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
•Swyer’s syndrome
93
Q

Pharmacologic agents that prolong QT Interval

A

Antiarrhhythmic Agents
•Procainamide, Flecainide, Amiodarone, Sotalol

  • Antihistamines
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Antibiotics and Antifungals
  • Erythromicin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Trimethoprim, Sulfamethoxazole, Clindamycin, Ketoconazole, Fluconazole
Psychotropic Drugs
•Tricyclic antidepressants (Amitriptyline, imipramine)
•Phenothiazines (Chlorpromaxine, Thioridazine)
•Haloperidol
•Risperidone
•Carbamazepine
•Other
•Cisapride
•Epinephrine
•Caffeine
94
Q

EKG findings associated with Brugada syndrome

A

coved-ST elevation in right precordial leads (V1-3) and RBBB

95
Q

leading cause of acquired heart disease in children in the U.S.

A

Kawasaki disease

96
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki disease

A

Diagnostic criteria:
–fever > 5 days and at least 4 of the following features:
–(1) bilateral, painless, nonexudative conjunctivitis
–(2) lip or oral cavity changes (eg, lip cracking and fissuring, strawberry tongue, and inflammation of the oral mucosa)
–(3) cervical lymphadenopathy (≥ 1.5 cm in diameter and usually unilateral)
–(4) polymorphous exanthem
–(5) extremity changes (redness and swelling of the hands and feet with subsequent desquamation)

97
Q

what are the most common organisms for infective endocarditis

A 
–Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
–Staphylococcus aureus- worst!! causes most damage to the heart
–Coagulase neg staphylococcus
–Beta-hemolytic streptococcus
–Candida- hardest to treat!!
98
Q

predisposing factors for SVT (4)

A

•Infection, fever, drug exposure (20-24%)
•WPW (10-22%)
•Congenital heart disease (20-23%)
–Ebstein, CC-TGA, cardiomyopathy, or postoperative TGA, ASD, or AVSD
•Idiopathic (40-50%)

99
Q

Causes of left axis deviation on EKG (3)

A

AVSD
small RV (tricuspid atresia)
Noonan syndrome

100
Q

RV hypertrophy

A

Tall R waves for age V1
Deep S waves for age V6
Q waves in V1
Upright T waves in V1 after day 5 and before “latency age”

101
Q

LV hypertrophy

A

Tall R waves for age V6

Deep S waves for age V1

102
Q

Flat T waves in contiguous leads, what does that mean? (2)

A

• Myocardial disease
myocarditis
cardiomyopathy

103
Q

inferior leads

A

II, III and aVF

104
Q

lateral leads

A

I, aVL, V5 and V6

105
Q

what is the recurrence risk for congenital heart disease

A

~4%

106
Q

post pericardiotomy syndrome

A

early pericardial effusion after surgery

107
Q

when is the highest risk of onset of aneurysms with kawasaki? What are 3 risk factors for coronary artery involvement?

A

4-6 weeks after onset of fever

risk factors:
younger age (<6 months)- consider steroid tx
abnormal echo at presentation
severe disease (MAS, shock)

108
Q

why do you need to monitor a baby on prostaglandin

A

need to monitor continuously for apnea

109
Q

A 3 year old child is referred to your office after a murmur is picked up by the family doctor on routine physical examination. You hear a harsh continuous murmur in the right infraclavicular area that is loudest when sitting and disappears on lying flat. The remainder of her cardiac exam is within normal limits. What is this most consistent with:
PDA
Venous hum
Still’s murmur

A

venous hum

** disappears with lying down

110
Q

A 2-day-old infant presents in congestive heart failure. He has hydrocephalus.
He has a seizure 1 hour after admission. Most likely cause:
a) vein of Galen aneurysm
b) intraventricular hemorrhage
c) hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
d) cerebral abscess
e) meningitis

A

vein of Galen aneurysm

Locations of AVMs include the vein of Galen (the most common), cerebral hemispheres, thalamus and third ventricle, and choroid plexus. Most infants with vein of Galen malformations present with heart failure

111
Q

You are seeing a teenager with a history of recurrent syncopal episodes. What is the best screening test for prolonged QT syndrome.

A

EKG

112
Q

36) Infant with large VSD. The murmur cannot be heard. What is the cause?
VSD has closed
There is increased pulmonary outflow obstruction
Pulmonary arterial pressures have increased

A

Pulmonary arterial pressures have increased

113
Q

what is seen on EKG with hyperkalemia following transfusion?

A

peaked t waves

114
Q
  1. A baby has been diagnosed with truncus arteriosus. What is the most likely complication in the first week?
    a) pulmonary edema
    b) severe cyanosis
    c) heart failure
    d) ?
A

pulmonary edema

Both ventricles are at systemic pressure and both eject blood into the truncus
When pulmonary vascular resistance is relatively high immediately after birth, pulmonary blood flow may be normal; as pulmonary resistance drops in first month of life, blood flow to lungs is increased and heart failure ensues

115
Q

what are 4 complications from prostaglandin

A
  1. apnea
  2. hypotension
  3. bradycardia
  4. fever/flushing
116
Q

Neonate with PDA treated with indocid. List four side effects of indocid

A

NEC and spontaneous intestinal perforation
transient renal insufficiency
increased bleeding risk
kernicterus (theoretical risk - interfere with binding of albumin to bilirubin

117
Q

List four clinical signs of endocarditis in a patient with fever and a new murmur

A
  1. Janeway lesions
  2. Osler nodes
  3. splinter hemorrhages
  4. Roth spots (white centered retinal hemorrhage)
118
Q

Neonate with complete heart block. ECHO normal. List 2 causes

A
  1. neonatal lupus
  2. idiopathic
  3. congenital heart disease (AVSD, TGA)
  4. familial congenital heart block
119
Q

what are 3 EKG findings that are consistent with SVT

A 
absent p waves
HR not variable
HR >180 in children
HR>220 in infants
narrow QRS
120
Q

4 week in obvious CHF. Huge voltages on EKG, short PR interval. Hypotonic and progressive weakness. Hepatosplenomegaly and large tongue. What does this child have?

A

Pompe disease

121
Q

Name 3 EKG finding of Hyperkalemia

A
  1. peaked T waves
  2. prominent u waves
  3. wide PR, wide QRS
122
Q

what are 2 steps in management for long qt syndrome

A
  1. exercise restriction
  2. consult cardiology to start beta blocker or defibrillator
  3. check family members for long qt
123
Q

what are 3 heart conditions that would have a single S2

A
  1. Tetralogy of Fallot
  2. Hypotrophic left heart syndrome
  3. Truncus arteriosus
  4. pulmonary stenosis
  5. Transposition of the great arteries
124
Q

You are seeing a 7 year old with severe hypertension. List 4 investigations you would use to identify end organ damage.

A

ECG
Echocardiogram
Retinal examination
Albumin to creatinine ratio

125
Q

A child has been confirmed to have hypertension. His urinalysis, lytes, BUN, and creatinine are normal. Name 4 investigations you need to do.

A

Blood chemistry (sodium, potassium, chloride, total CO2, and creatinine)
Urinalysis
Renal ultrasonography

Routine laboratory tests that should be performed for the assessment of cardiovascular risk in all children with hypertension include the following:
Fasting blood glucose
total cholesterol
HDL, LDL, TG

126
Q

Name 3 types of benign heart murmurs in children.

A

Still’s murmur
Venous hum
flow murmur

127
Q

What 4 features on a physical exam are most reassuring that a murmur is benign?

A

systolic
musical/vibratory
grade 1-2, no radiation
changes with position/respiration

128
Q 
BP for ≥ 13yo
Normal BP
Elevated BP
Stage I HTN
Stage II HTN
A

Normal BP<120/80
Elevated BP: 120/80- 129/80
Stage I HTN: 130/80- 139/89
Stage II HTN: ≥140/90

129
Q 
BP for 1-13 yo
Normal BP
Elevated BP
Stage I HTN
Stage II HTN
A

Normal BP <90th %ile
Elevated BP: >90th to <95%ile
Stage I HTN: >95 to <95 + 12
Stage II HTN: ≥95%ile +12mmHg

130
Q

When should you consider a statin?

A

in a child >8 yo with

LDL-C > 4.9 mmol/L
LDL-C > 4.1 mmol/L + family history of early heart disease or > 2 risk factors present
LDL-C > 3.4 mmol/L + Diabetes Mellitus

131
Q

what is POTS

A

HR increase of >40 beats/min during the 1st 10 min of upright tilt test without associated hypotension,

132
Q

how do you diagnose POTS

A

head-up tilt test for at least 10 min

133
Q

What are two management recommendations for POTS

A
  1. aerobic exercise program

2. salt supplementation

134
Q

what is BT shunt

A

shunt from subclavian to pulmonary artery (done with Norwood for HLHS)

135
Q

what is Sano shunt

A

shunt from right ventricle to pulmonary artery (done with Norwood for HLHS)

136
Q

what are the 3 surgeries required for HLHS

A
  1. Norwood (1- weeks)
  2. Glenn (4-6 months)
  3. Fontan (18 months- 3 years)
137
Q

what is the Glenn procedure

A

Glenn procedure is 2nd surgery for HLHS
occurs at 4-6 months because they have outgrown the shunt placed during the Norwood
goal is to take away some of the extra work from the RV (currently pumping to the lungs and the body)
- connect subclavian artery directly to the pulmonary artery
- remove shunt placed during Norwood
- Right ventricle now only pumps to the body and not to the lungs
Expected sats 75-85%

138
Q

what is the Fontan procedure

A

Fontan is the 3rd surgery for HLHS
occurs at 18 months to 3 years
goal is to connect the inferior vena cava to the pulmonary artery via a conduit
there is a small fenestration between conduit and right atrium to act as a pop off valve

blood flow: IVC and SVC to the pulmonary artery- to the left atrium- to the right atrium- to the right ventricle- to the body
Expected sats > 90% (usually)**

139
Q

Problems in Follow-up of “Repaired” CHD patients (10)

A

ongoing disease
arrhythmia
recurrence risk
social issues- employment, pregnancy
growth
development- increased risk of specific learning difficulties and ADHD
dental hygiene- few need SBE prophylaxis but all need good hygiene
scoliosis- children with thoracotomies
post pericardiotomy syndrome (early post operative pericardial effusion)
Fontan- protein losing enteropathy and plastic bronchitis

140
Q

EKG axis deviation

A

lead I and II
both up- Normal axis
thumbs away from each other= left axis deviation
thumbs together= right axis deviation

Pediatrics- Noelle (28 decks)

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