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Physiology > Physiology Exam Review #3 > Flashcards

Physiology Exam Review #3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the general senses of touch (tactile)?

A
  • Temperature (thermoreceptors)
  • Pressure (mechanoreceptors)
  • Nociceptors (mechanoreceptors) (pain)
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2
Q

What are the special senses?

A
  • Smell (chemoreceptors)
  • Taste (chemoreceptors)
  • Sight (photoreceptors)
  • Hearing (mechanoreceptors)
  • Equilibrium (mechanoreceptors)
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3
Q

A structure specialized to detect a stimulus

A

Sensory receptor

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4
Q

Nerve tissue surrounded by other tissues that enhance response to a certain type of stimulus

A

True sense organs

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5
Q

Accessory tissues of true sense organs

A

Epithelium, muscle, or connective tissues

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6
Q

A subjective awareness of the stimulus

A

Sensation

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7
Q

Sense chemicals in the environment (taste, smell), or blood

A

Chemoreceptors

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8
Q

Sense light

A

Photoreceptors

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9
Q

Respond to cold or heat

A

Thermoreceptors

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10
Q

Stimulated by mechanical deformation of the receptor (touching, hearing)

A

Mechanoreceptors

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11
Q

Pain receptors that depolarize when tissues are damaged

A

Nociceptors

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12
Q

What are the main neurotransmitters for nociceptors

A

Glutamate and substance P

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13
Q

Perception of pain can be enhanced by..

A

Emotions, concepts, and expectations

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14
Q

Found in the muscles, tendons, and joints. Provide a sense of body position and allows fine muscle control
Include muscle spindles (detect stretch), Golgi tendon organs (detect tension) and joint receptors

A

Proprioceptors

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15
Q

Touch, pressure, heat, cold, and pain

A

Cutaneous (skin) receptors

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16
Q

Respond to stimuli from outside of the body; includes cutaneous receptors and special senses

A

Exteroceptors

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17
Q

Respond to internal stimuli; found in organs; include mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors; monitor blood pressure, pH, and oxygen concentrations

A

Interceptors

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18
Q

Respond with a burst of activity when stimulus is first applied but quickly adapt to the stimulus by decreasing response; adapts rapidly
Alerts us to changes in the environment

A

Phasic

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19
Q

Maintains a high firing rate as long as the stimulus is applied; adapts slowly

A

Tonic

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20
Q

Pain from the skin, muscles, and joints

A

Somatic pain

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21
Q

Pain from the viscera (stretch, chemical irritants, or ischemia of viscera

A

Visceral pain

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22
Q

Chemical released from tissues that stimulate pain fibers; most potent pain stimulus known

A

Bradykinin

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23
Q

Which other chemicals stimulate nociceptors for pain?

A

Histamine, prostaglandin, and serotonin

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24
Q

Pain in viscera that is often mistakenly thought to come from the skin or other superficial sites

A

Referred pain

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25
Q

What is referred pain the result of?

A

Convergence of neural pathways in CNS

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26
Q

Term for pain relieving mechanisms within the CNS

A

Analgesic

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27
Q

Internally produced opium-like substances

A

Endogenous opioids

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28
Q

Two analgesic oligopeptides with 200 times the potency of morphine

A

Enkephalins

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29
Q

Larger analgesic neuropeptides discovered later

A

Endorphins and dynorphins

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30
Q

What systems release the modulations of pain?

A

CNS, pituitary gland, digestive tract, and other organs

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31
Q

Which senses use chemoreceptors?

A

Taste and smell

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32
Q

How many receptors do taste have?

A

5 - including umami

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33
Q

Another term for taste

A

Gustation

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34
Q

What are the receptors of taste called?

A

Taste buds

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35
Q

Epithelial cells that are not neurons but become depolarized when stimulated, produce action potentials, and release neurotransmitters to stimulate the sensory neurons

A

Neuroepithelial cells

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36
Q

Where are taste buds located?

A

Papillae

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37
Q

Which papillae is located on the anterior surface and information travels via the facial nerve (VII)

A

Fungiform

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38
Q

Which papillae is located on the posterior surface and information travels via the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

A

Circumvallate

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39
Q

Which papillae is located on the sides of the tongue and information travels via the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

A

Foliate

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40
Q

What is the taste pathway

A

Facial and glossopharyngeal nerves ->
Medulla oblongata ->
Thalamus ->
Primary gustatory cortex of insula, somatosensory cortex of parietal lobe, and prefrontal cortex

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41
Q

What kind of cells are the taste cells

A

Specialized epithelial cells

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42
Q

What is taste influenced by

A

The temperature and texture of the substance, the concentration of the chemical, and the stimulation of olfactory receptors

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43
Q

What are the five primary sensations (taste)

A

Salty, sweet, sour, bitter, umami

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44
Q

Taste sensation produced by metal ions (sodium and potassium)

A

Salty

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45
Q

Taste sensation associated with carbohydrates and sugars

A

Sweet

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46
Q

Taste sensation associated with acids, such as in citrus fruits

A

Sour

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47
Q

Taste sensation associated with some spoiled foods and alkaloids such as caffeine, quinine, morphine, and nicotine

A

Bitter

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48
Q

Taste sensation associated with meaty or savory flavors associated with amino acids, broths, MSG

A

Umami

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49
Q

Another term for sense of smell

A

Olfaction

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50
Q

Bipolar neurons with one dendrite projecting into the nasal cavity that ends in a ciliated knob

A

Olfactory receptors

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51
Q

What binds to odorant molecules

A

Proteins in the cilia

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52
Q

How many genes code for different olfactory receptors

A

380 genes code for 380 different olfactory receptors

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53
Q

Which system is also involved in processing of smell

A

The limbic system

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54
Q

A response to vibrating air molecules

A

Hearing

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55
Q

The sense of motion, body orientation and balance

A

Equilibrium

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56
Q

Where does hearing and equilibrium reside

A

The inner ear

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57
Q

Provides a sense of balance

A

Equilibrium - Vestibular Apparatus

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58
Q

Where are the otolith organs (Utricle and Saccule) and Semicircular canals located

A

In the Vestibular Apparatus

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59
Q

Detect linear acceleration

A

Otolith organs (Utricle and Saccule)

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60
Q

Detect rotational acceleration

A

Semicircular canals

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61
Q

Modified epithelial cells with 20 to 50 hairlike extensions called stereocilia (not true cilia) and one kinocilium (true cilim)

A

Vestibular hair cells

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62
Q

Modified microvilli and are arranged in rows of increasing height

A

Stereocilia

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63
Q

Provide information about linear acceleration and movement

A

Utricle: horizontal
Saccule: vertical

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64
Q

What are stereocilia embedded in

A

A gelatinous otolithic membrane - contains carbonate called otoliths (ear stones)

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65
Q

Project along three planes to detect rotation

A

Semicircular canals

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66
Q

What does each semicircular canal contain

A

A semicircular duct filled with endolymph

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67
Q

What is at the base of each semicircular duct

A

An enlarged area called the ampulla

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68
Q

Alternating zones of high and low pressure traveling in a medium, usually air or water

A

Sound waves

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69
Q

What are sound waves characterized by

A

Frequency (measured in hertz), Intensity or loudness (measured in decibels)

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70
Q

Sound waves are funneled by the pinna (or auricle) into the external auditory meatus, which channels them to the tympanic membrane (eardrum)

A

Outer ear

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71
Q

Cavity between the tympanic membrane and cochlea

A

Middle ear

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72
Q

Middle ear contains three bones called..

A

Auditory ossicles

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73
Q

Which auditory ossicle is connected to the tympanic membrane and incus

A

Malleus

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74
Q

Which auditory ossicle is connected to the Malleus and the Stapes

A

Incus

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75
Q

Which auditory ossicle is connected to the Incus and the Oval Window and vibrates in response to vibrations of the tympanic membrane

A

Stapes

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76
Q

What causes vibration of basilar membrane under hair cells

A

Vibration of ossicles

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77
Q

What is the hearing part of the ear

A

The cochlea

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78
Q

What is the upper chamber of the cochlea

A

A portion of the bony labyrinth called the scala vestibuli

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79
Q

What is the lower bony chamber of the cochlea

A

Scala tympani

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80
Q

What are both chambers of the cochlea filled with

A

Perilymph

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81
Q

What is the gel-like membrane that is capable of bending hair cells

A

Organ of Corti

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82
Q

Transform sound waves in cochlear fluid into nerve impulses

A

Inner hair cells

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83
Q

What percentage of sensory receptors are in the eye

A

70 percent

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84
Q

Where does vision come from

A

Light energy transduced into nerve impulses

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85
Q

What is the general pathway of light through the eye

A

Light passes through the cornea and into the anterior chamber
Then, passes through the pupil
Then, passes through the lens, which can change shape to focus image
Then passes through the posterior chamber and the vitreous body
Finally, hits the retina, where photoreceptors are found and then absorbed by the pigmented choroid layer

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86
Q

Composed of layers of living cells that are normally completely clear and requires its own microcirculatory system to sustain its cells

A

The lens

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87
Q

The lens is avascular meaning..

A

It has no blood supply

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88
Q

Cell metabolism is very low and is anaerobic in which part of the eye

A

The lens

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89
Q

Transparent and composed predominantly of cells called “mature fibers” that lack organelles

A

The lens

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90
Q

What are the lens attached to

A

Ciliary bodies

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91
Q

The minimum distance from the eyes that an object can be brought into focus

A

Near point of vision

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92
Q

Loss of accommodation with age - reduced flexibility of the lens, forward movement of zonular fiber attachment, and lens cannot thicken to increase refraction for near objects

A

Presbyopia

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93
Q

Fills the anterior and posterior chambers between the cornea and lens

A

Aqueous Humor

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94
Q

A clear, watery liquid secreted by ciliary bodies to provide nourishment to lens and cornea - provides interior pressure to the eye

A

Aqueous Humor

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95
Q

Where does the aqueous humor drain

A

Into scleral venous sinus (Canal of Schlemm) and back into the venous blood

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96
Q

What can inadequate drainage of aqueous humor lead to

A

Glaucoma

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97
Q

Fills the posterior portion of the eye behind the iris and ciliary body

A

Vitreous Humor

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98
Q

Thick, viscous substance that helps keep the shape of the eyeball

A

Vitreous Humor

99
Q

What does the vitreous humor in terms of the retina

A

Transmit light to the retina

100
Q

Where are photoreceptors within the retina

A

In the inner layer (furthest from the front)

101
Q

Allow black and white vision in low light

A

Rods

102
Q

Modified cilium specialized to absorb light within the rods

A

The outer segment

103
Q

Contains organelles sitting atop cell body with nucleus within the rods

A

The inner segment

104
Q

Visual purple, in high concentration in rods

A

Rhodopsin

105
Q

What is happening when light hits the protein within rods and turns yellow and then colorless

A

Bleaching

106
Q

Allows dim light vision (more sensitive to light, doesn’t respond to bright light)

A

Rods

107
Q

Perception is in gray tone

A

Rods

108
Q

Less sensitive to light but allow color vision and greater visual acuity

A

Cones

109
Q

Involves three types of cones

A

Trichromatic vision

110
Q

Don’t work in dark light

A

Cones

111
Q

What explains why we have both rods and cones

A

Duplicity theory of vision

112
Q

Specializes in communication and coordination amongst its organs, tissues, and cells

A

The endocrine system

113
Q

Organs that are traditional sources of hormones

A

Endocrine glands

114
Q

Chemical messengers that are transported by the bloodstream and stimulate physiological responses in cells of another tissue or organ, often a considerable distance away

A

Hormones

115
Q

These glands have ducts, carry secretion to an epithelial surface of the mucosa of the digestive tract: “external secretions”

A

Exocrine glands

116
Q

These glands have no ducts; contain dense, fenestrated capillary networks which allow easy uptake of hormones into bloodstream. “Internal secretions”

A

Endocrine glands

117
Q

Which system reacts quickly, adapts quickly, and targeted and specific (one organ)

A

The nervous system

118
Q

Which system reacts slowly and its effects may continue for days or longer, adapts slowly, and has general, widespread effects (many organs)

A

Endocrine system

119
Q

Regulates functions from water balance and thermoregulation to sex drive and childbirth - many of its functions are carried out by the pituitary gland

A

Hypothalamus

120
Q

The pituitary gland is suspended from the hypothalamus by this stalk

A

Infundibulum

121
Q

What is the location and size of the pituitary gland

A

Housed in the sella turcica of sphenoid bone and is the size and shape of a kidney bean

122
Q

What is the name of the anterior pituitary

A

Adenohypophysis

123
Q

What is the name of the posterior pituitary

A

Neurohypophysis

124
Q

The adenohypophysis is linked to the hypothalamus by a network of blood vessels called

A

The hypophyseal portal system

125
Q

Which hormones regulate adenohypophysis cells

A

Hypothalamic hormones

126
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone releases

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone
Luteinizing hormone

127
Q

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone releases

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (thyrotropin)

128
Q

Corticotropin-releasing hormone releases

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

129
Q

Prolactin-inhibiting hormone releases

A

Prolactin

130
Q

Growth hormone-releasing hormone and somatostatin release

A

Growth hormone

131
Q

ACTH

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

132
Q

CRH

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormone

133
Q

FHS

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone

134
Q

LH

A

Luteinizing hormone

135
Q

GnRH

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

136
Q

PIH

A

Prolactin-inhibiting hormone

137
Q

TRH

A

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

138
Q

TSH

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

139
Q

GHRH

A

Growth hormone-releasing hormone

140
Q

Which part of the pituitary is nerve tissue and not a true gland

A

Neurohypophysis

141
Q

How many hormones are produced in the hypothalamus

A

Eight - Six regulate the anterior pituitary and two are released into capillaries in the posterior pituitary

142
Q

What are the other two hypothalamic hormones

A

Oxytocin (OT) and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

143
Q

Where are OT and ADH stored and released

A

Posterior pituitary

144
Q

How many principal hormones does the anterior lobe of the pituitary synthesize and secrete

A

Six - FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH, PRL, GH

145
Q

Which hormone stimulates secretion of ovarian sex hormones, development of ovarian follicles, and sperm production

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

146
Q

Which hormone stimulates ovulation, stimulates corpus luteum to secrete progesterone, stimulates testes to secrete testosterone

A

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

147
Q

Which hormone stimulates secretion of thyroid hormone

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

148
Q

Which hormone stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

149
Q

Which hormone, after birth, stimulates mammary glands to synthesize milk

A

Prolactin (PRL)

150
Q

Which hormone stimulates mitosis and cellular differentiation

A

Growth hormone (GH)

151
Q

Which hormone increases water retention, reduced urine volume, and prevents dehydration (part of posterior pituitary)

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) - also called vasopressin because it can cause vasoconstriction

152
Q

This hormone is released in a surge during sexual arousal and orgasm

A

Oxytocin (OT)

153
Q

This hormone stimulates labor contraction, flow of milk during lactation, and may promote emotional bonding between mother and infant

A

Oxytocin (OT)

154
Q

Which hormone secretion can follow a circadian pattern

A

Pituitary

155
Q

Neuroendocrine reflexes control..

A

the posterior pituitary

156
Q

Increased target organ hormone levels inhibit release of hypothalamic and/or pituitary hormones

A

Negative feedback

157
Q

Example of Positive Feedback

A

Stretching of the uterus increases OT release causing contractions

158
Q

Growth hormone induces the liver to produce…

A

Insulin-like growth factors (IGF-1) or somatomedins (IGF-II)

159
Q

What prolongs the action of GH

A

IGF-1

160
Q

The time required for 50% of the hormone to be cleared from the blood

A

Hormonal half-life

161
Q

What is the GH half-life

A

6 to 20 minutes

162
Q

What is the IGF-1 half-life

A

About 20 hours

163
Q

What are the effects of IGF-1 on other targets

A
  • Protein synthesis increases
  • Lipid metabolism increases
  • Carbohydrate metabolism
  • Electrolyte balance
164
Q

Which hormones secretion is high during the first 2 hours of sleep

A

Growth hormone

165
Q

What contributes to aging of tissues and wrinkling of the skin

A

Lack of protein synthesis

166
Q

Which gland is attached to the roof of the third ventricle beneath the posterior end of the corpus callosum

A

The pineal gland

167
Q

Which gland synthesizes melatonin from serotonin during the night (fluctuates seasonally with changes in day length)

A

The pineal gland

168
Q

The largest gland that is purely endocrine (dark reddish-brown color due to rich blood supply)

A

The thyroid gland

169
Q

What does the thyroid gland secrete

A

Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) in response to TSH

170
Q

Which hormone stimulates protein synthesis, promotes maturation of the nervous system, increases rates of cellular respiration, and elevates basal metabolic rate

A

Thyroid hormone

171
Q

Which gland is found atop the kidneys

A

The adrenal glands

172
Q

What does the adrenal gland consists of

A

The outer adrenal cortex and inner adrenal medulla - function as separate glands

173
Q

Neural tissues that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to sympathetic neural stimulation

A

The adrenal medulla

174
Q

Glandular epithelium and secretes steroid hormones in response to ACTH - consists of three layers, zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and zona reticularis

A

The adrenal cortex

175
Q

What are the functions of the adrenal gland

A

Secretes hormones made from cholesterol

176
Q

What are the hormones made from cholesterol called

A

Corticosteroids or corticoids

177
Q

What are the three categories of corticosteroids

A
  • Mineralocorticoids
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Adrenal androgens
178
Q

What increases secretion of ACTH

A

Stress

179
Q

What are the stress hormones

A
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Epinephrine
  • CRH
180
Q

Set libido throughout life; large role in prenatal male development

A

Androgens

181
Q

Small quantity from adrenals, but this become important after menopause for sustaining adult bone mass

A

Estradiol

182
Q

Elongated gland below and behind stomach

A

The pancreas

183
Q

Clusters of endocrine cells that secrete hormones that regulate glycemia (blood sugar)

A

Islets

184
Q
  • Secreted by A or alpha cells
  • Released between meals when blood glucose concentration is falling
  • In liver, stimulates gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, and the release of glucose into circulation raising blood glucose level
  • In adipose tissue, stimulates fat catabolism and release of free fatty acids
  • Also released to rising amino levels in blood, promotes amino acid absorption, and provides cells with raw material for gluconeogenesis
A

Glucagon - released from the pancreas

185
Q
  • Secreted by B or beta cells
  • Secreted during and after meal when glucose and amino acid blood levels are rising
  • Stimulates cells to absorb these nutrients and store of metabolize them, lowering blood glucose levels
  • Insufficiency or inaction is cause of diabetes mellitus
A

Insulin - released from the pancreas

186
Q

Convert a cholesterol-like steroid into cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3) using UV from the sun

A

Keratinocytes

187
Q
  • Involved in the production of at least five hormones
  • Converts cholecalciferol in calcidiol
  • Secretes angiotensinogen (precursor of angiotensin II - a regulator of blood pressure)
  • Secretes 15% of erythropoietin (stimulate bone marrow)
  • Source of IGF-1 that controls action of growth hormone
A

The liver

188
Q
  • Play role in production of three hormones
  • Convert calcidiol to calcitriol, the active form of Vitamin D (increases calcium absorption by intestine and many other things)
  • Secrete renin that converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
  • Produces 85% of erythropoietin (stimulates bone marrow to produce RBCs)
A

The kidneys

189
Q

Secretes two natriuretic peptides in response to an increase in blood pressure

A

The heart

190
Q
  • Secrete at least 10 enteric hormones secreted by enteroendocrine cells
  • Coordinate digestive motility and glandular secretion
A

Stomach and small intestine

191
Q

Which hormone released from adipose tissue slows appetite (a low count results in weight gain)

A

Leptin

192
Q

How are hormones taken up and degraded when they have served their purpose

A

By the liver and kidney - excreted in bile or urine

193
Q
  • Rate of hormone removal from the blood
  • Half life: time required to clear 50% of hormone from the blood
  • The faster this is, the shorter the half-life
A

Metabolic clearance rate (MCR)

194
Q

Not an organ system, but a cell population that inhabits all organs and defends the body from agents of disease

A

The immune system

195
Q

Disease-causing agents

A

Pathogens

196
Q

Inherited immunity

A

Innate (nonspecific) immunity

197
Q

Learned from exposure to specific pathogens, function of lymphocytes

A

Adaptive (specific) immunity

198
Q
  • Makes it mechanically difficult for microorganisms to enter the body
  • Toughness of keratin
  • Mostly dry and nutrient-poot for microbial growth
A

The skin

199
Q

Thin film of lactic and fatty acids from sweat and sebum that inhibits bacterial growth

A

Acid mantle

200
Q
  • Found in the digestive, urinary, and respiratory tracts and of the eye
  • Impedes entry and attachment of bacteria
A

Mucous membranes

201
Q

Engulfs/kills pathogens

A

Phagocytes

202
Q

Are the first to arrive at an infection - form pus

A

Neutrophils

203
Q

Immobile in the walls of organs and remove pathogens from lymph

A

Fixed phagocytes

204
Q

Neutrophils and monocytes squeeze through gaps in post-capillary venule walls to enter tissue in a process called

A

Extravasation, or diapedesis

205
Q

The following of a chemicals and attracted to the site - done so by cytokines called chemokines

A

Chemotaxis

206
Q

May be released before fusion is complete, killing the cell, and contributing to local inflammation

A

Lysosomal enzymes

207
Q

Perform housecleaning functions such as removing cell remnants from cell apoptosis

A

Macrophages

208
Q

An abnormal elevation of body temperature (innate immunity)

A

Fever

209
Q

An adaptive defense mechanism that, in moderation, can do more good than harm - regulated by the preoptic area of the hypothalamus that acts as a thermostat

A

Fever

210
Q

Chemicals that provoke PGE2 release

A

Pyrogens

211
Q

Usually triggered by exogenous pyrogens

A

Fever

212
Q

Inhibit Prostaglandin E2 synthesis (fever-reducing medications)

A

Antipyretics

213
Q
  • Inhibits multiplication of temperature-sensitive microorganisms
  • Impedes nutrition of bacteria by reducing the availability of iron
  • Increases metabolism and stimulates immune reactions
  • Promotes interferon activity
  • Elevates metabolic rate and accelerates tissue repair
A

Fever

214
Q

Redness caused by increased circulation and vasodilation in the injured tissue

A

Rubor

215
Q

Warmth caused by the heat given off by the increased flow of blood

A

Calor

216
Q

Swelling caused by fluid escaping into the tissues

A

Tumor

217
Q

Pain caused by the stimulation of nerve endings

A

Dolor

218
Q
  • Degranulate and secrete heparin, histamine, serotonin, protease enzymes, vasoactive molecules, pro-inflammatory cytokines, prostaglandins, and other molecules
  • Produce warmth, swelling, and pain
  • Recruit more leukocytes
A

Mast cells

219
Q
  • Kill microorganisms through phagocytosis
  • Release NETS to trap pathogens
  • Undergo programmed cell death and spill protein-digesting enzymes into the surrounding tissues, causing pus
  • Release granule proteins that draw monocytes to the area
A

Neutrophils

220
Q
  • Enlarge into macrophages
  • Phagocytose apoptotic neutrophiles and release growth factors and other agents that will end inflammation and promote repair
A

Monocytes

221
Q

Produce antibodies against bacterial antigens

A

B lymphocytes

222
Q

What causes the sensation of pain

A

Release of PGE2

223
Q

The acquired ability to defend against specific pathogens after exposure to these pathogens (mediated by antigens and antibodies)

A

Adaptive immunity

224
Q

Cell surface molecules that stimulate the production of specific antibodies and combine with those antibodies

A

Antigens

225
Q
  • Humoral immunity
  • Mature in the bone marrow
A

B Lymphocytes (B cells)

226
Q

Type of B cell - produces antibodies

A

Plasma B cells

227
Q

Type of B cell - stick around for years in case same antigen is presented again

A

Memory B cells

228
Q

What are the types of antibodies

A
  • IgG
  • IgA
  • IgE
  • IgM
  • IgD
229
Q

A group of plasma proteins activated by the binding of antibodies to antigens

A

Complement

230
Q

Serves as a recognition protein - part of complement system

A

C1

231
Q

Serve as activators - part of complement system

A

C2, C3, and C4

232
Q

Attack by attaching to a cell membrane and destroying it - called complement fixation

A

C5 to C9

233
Q
  • Mature in the thymus gland
  • Destroy body cells that harbor foreign antigens
A

Killer (cytotoxic) T Lymphocytes

234
Q

Attack the cells directly - destruction means T cells must touch the target victim

A

Cell-mediated immunity

235
Q
  • Surface molecule is CD4
  • Improve ability of B lymphocytes to become plasma cells that secrete specific antibodies and enhance ability of cytotoxic T cells to kill targets
A

Helper T Lymphocytes

236
Q

Inhibit response of B lymphocytes and killer T lymphocytes - once pathogen is gone, the immune response can be stopped

A

Regulatory T Lymphocytes

237
Q

After infection, it takes 5 to 10 days before antibodies are detected in the blood and the person will get sick

A

Active immunity - primary response

238
Q

Later exposure to the same infection results in maximum antibody production in less than 2 hours and the person will likely never get sick

A

Active immunity - secondary response

239
Q

Exposure to a live pathogen

A

Natural Active immunity

240
Q

Exposure to an attenuated/deactivated pathogen

A

Artificial Active immunity

241
Q

Receiving antibodies or immunoglobulin from an outside source

A

Passive Immunity

242
Q

From mother to fetus or from mother to child via breast milk

A

Natural Passive immunity

243
Q

Receiving of intravenous immunoglobulin, monoclonal antibodies

A

Artificial Passive immunity

Physiology (6 decks)

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