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Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

what is homeostasis?

A

the maintenance of steady states within our bodies by coordinated physiological mechanisms

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2
Q

what is feedforward?

A

responses made in anticipation of a change

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3
Q

what is feedback?

A

responses made after a change has been detected

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4
Q

what does positive feedback do?

A

amplifies an initial change

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5
Q

describe the permeability of a cell membrane.

A

selectively permeable

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6
Q

what are 4 functions of the membrane?

A
  1. controls entry of nutrient and exit of waste and secretory products
  2. maintains differences in ion concentration inside and outside the cell
  3. participates in joining of cells to form tissues and organs
  4. enables a cell to respond to changes in the cell’s environment
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7
Q

what does the plasma membrane consist of?

A

lipids: phospholipids, cholesterol
proteins
small amount of carbohydrates

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8
Q

describe a phospholipid

A

has a negatively charged hydrophilic head and an uncharged hydrophobic fatty acid tail.

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9
Q

how are the phosphlipids positioned in the lipid bilayer?

A

hydrophobic tails facing each other, a row of hydrophilic heads facing intracellularly, another facing extracellularly

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10
Q

what 2 things does cholesterol contribute to in the plasma membrane?

A
  1. fluidity

2. stability

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11
Q

where are integral proteins in the plasma membrane?

A

embedded in the lipid bilayer

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12
Q

where are transmembrane proteins in the plasma membrane?

A

extend through the membrane

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13
Q

where are peripheral proteins in the plasma membrane?

A

don’t penetrate the membrane, are more commonly intracellulary

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14
Q

short carbohydrate chains are often bound to membrane proteins and lipids as what molecules?

A

glycoproteins and glycolipids

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15
Q

what layer do the the glycoproteins and glycolipids form?

A

glycocalyx

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16
Q

why is the fluidity of the membrane important?

A

allows the cells to change shape (eg RBC or a muscle cell)

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17
Q

what function do docking-marker acceptors have?

A

they are membrane proteins located on the inner membrane surface where they interact with secretory vesicles leading to the exocytosis of the vesicles contents

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18
Q

what do cadherins do? (a type of membrane protein)

A

help hold cells within tissues together

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19
Q

what do integrins do? (a type of membrane protein)

A

span the plasma membrane and act like a link between extra and intracellular environments

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20
Q

what do membrane carbohydrates do?

A

serve as self-identity surface markers, ensure cells do not overgrow their own territory
[excepetion = cancer cell grow- abnormal surface markers]

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21
Q

what are the 3 kind of specialised cell junctions?

A
  1. desmosomes
  2. tight junctions
  3. gap junctions
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22
Q

what are desmosomes? (a type of specialised cell junction)

A

adhering junctions that anchor cells together, especially in tissues subject to stretching

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23
Q

what are tight junctions? (a type of specialised cell junction)

A

they join the lateral edges of epithelial cells near their apical/lumenal membranes
(junctions can be tight or leaky)

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24
Q

what are gap junctions? (a type of specialised cell junction)

A

communicating junctions that allow movement of charge carrying ions and small molecules BETWEEN two adjacent cells.

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25
Q

molecules and ions that can penetrate the membrane are passively driven across the membrane by what 2 forces?

A
  1. diffusion down a concentration gradient

2. movement along an electrical gradient

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26
Q

What 5 factors influence the rate of diffusion across the membrane and collectively make up Fick’s Law of Diffusion?

A
  1. the magnitude of the concentration gradient
  2. the surface area of the membrane across which diffusion is taking place
  3. the lipid solubility of the substance
  4. the molecular weight of the substance
  5. the distance through which diffusion must take place
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27
Q

what is osmosis?

A

the movement of water down it’s concentration gradient

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28
Q

what 2 ways can water pass through the membrane?

A
  1. water molecules can permeate the plasma membrane

2. aquaporins (water channels)

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29
Q

what is osmolarity?

A

the concentration of osmotically active particles present in a solution
units = osmoles/litre

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30
Q

what is tonicity?

A

the effect a solution has on cell volume

ie isotonic, hypotonic, hypertonic

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31
Q

what is the tonicity of saline solution (0.9% NaCl)?

A

isotonic

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32
Q

how does carrier mediated transport work?

A

substance binds onto a specific carrier which undergoes a conformational change and transports the substance

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33
Q

what are the 3 important characteristics which determine the kind and amount of material transferred across the membrane through carrier mediated transport?

A
  1. specificity of substrate
  2. saturation (transport maximum)
  3. competition (a couple of substrates are available and the presence of both diminishes the rate of transfer for either)
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34
Q

what are the 2 forms of carrier-mediated transport?

A 
facilitated diffusion (no energy required)
active transfer (energy required)
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35
Q

facilitated diffusion uses a carrier to facilitate the transfer of a substance across the membrane from ____ concentration to ____ concentration.

A

high concentration to low concentration

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36
Q

active transport uses a carrier to expend energy to transfer a substance across the membrane from a ____ concentration to a ____ concentration?

A

low concentration to a high concentration

ie against a concentration gradient

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37
Q

Active transport comes in what 2 forms?

A
  1. primary active transport (uses ATP)

2. secondary active transport

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38
Q

what type of carrier is the Na+K+ATPase pump?

A

primary active transporter

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39
Q

how many Na+ are transported out of the cell in? how many K+ are transported into the cell?

A

3Na+ is transported out

2K+ is transported in

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40
Q

what are the 3 important roles for the Na+K+ATPase pump?

A
  1. helps establish Na and K concentration gradients across the plasma membrane
  2. helps regulate cell volume by controlling intracellular solute concetration
  3. energy used to drive the pump indirectly serves as the energy source for secondary active transport
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41
Q

what is the definition of secondary active transport?

A

the transfer of a solute across the membrane that is coupled with the transfer of the ion that supplies the driving force (typically Na+)

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42
Q

what are the 2 mechanisms of secondary active transport?

A
  1. symport (co-transport)
    solute and ion move in same direction
  2. antiport (exchange or countertransport)
    solute and ion move in opposite directions
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43
Q

what type of transport is vesicular transport?

A

active transport

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44
Q

what is exocytosis?

A

a vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane, releasing its contents to the ECF

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45
Q

what is endocytosis?

A

pinching off of the membrane to engulf substance

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46
Q

what does membrane potential refer to?

A

the electrical difference ECF and ICF

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47
Q

compare the permeability of the membrane to K and Na at resting potential

A

membrane 100x more permeable to K than Na

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48
Q

what is the Nernst equation?

A

allows you to calculate the equilbrium potential for any given ion
simplified: E(ion) = 61log([ion]o/[ion]i)

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49
Q

what affect does permeability of an ion have on the membrane potential?

A

the greater the permeability for a given ion, the greater the tendency for that ion to drive the membrane potential towards the ions own equilibrium potential
this is why the membrane potential is close to E(K) than E(Na)

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50
Q

What is the Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation?

A

used to calculate E(m)

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51
Q

What controlled variable to baroreceptors detect?

A

Mean arterial pressure

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52
Q

when baroreceptors detect a change in MAP, what is the control centre that they inform?

A

Medulla

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53
Q

when baroreceptors detect a change in MAP, what effectors does the Medulla bring about a response in?

A 
heart (HR, SV)
blood vessels (TPR)
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54
Q

what type of feedback mechanism is the baroreceptor mechanism?

A

negative feedback

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55
Q

what is blood pressure?

A

the outwards hydrostatic pressure exerted by the blood on blood vessel walls

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56
Q

what is mean arterial blood pressure? (MAP)

A

the average arterial blood pressure during a single cardiac cycle

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57
Q

MAP =

using blood pressures

A

[2DBP + SBP]/3

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58
Q

what is pulse pressure?

A

difference between SBP and DBP

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59
Q

what is the normal range of MAP?

A

70-105mmHg

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60
Q

what MAP is the minimum needed to perfuse the vital organs? (brain, heart, kidneys)

A

60mmHg

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61
Q

where are the 2 grous of baroreceptors?

A

aortic arch

carotid sinus

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62
Q

what type of receptors are baroreceptors and what are they sensitive to?

A

baroreceptors are mechanoreceptors which are sensitive to strech

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63
Q

if there is an increased MAP, what happens to the firing rate in the afferent neurone?

A

increase firing rate in afferent neurone

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64
Q

if there is a decreased MAP, what happens to the firing rate in the afferent neurone?

A

decreased firing rate in afferent neurone

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65
Q

what is the site of 1st synapse for all CVS afferents?

A

Nucleus Tractus Solitarius (NTS) in the cardiovascular control centre of the medulla

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66
Q

what does the NTS do when receiving CVS afferent information?

A

relays information to other regions in the brain

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67
Q

a vagal ouflow to the heart is generated in the cardiovascular control centrein response to afferent CVS information and is relayed where?

A

to the nucleus ambiguus in the medulla

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68
Q

Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) =

using CO and TPR

A

CO x TPR

SV x HR x TPR

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69
Q

what is the cardiac output?

A

the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle of the heart per minute

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70
Q

what is the stroke volume?

A

the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle of the heart per heart beat

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71
Q

what is TPR?

A

the sum of resistance of all peripheral vasculature in the systemic circulation

72
Q

what 3 factors are regulated to control MAP?

A

heart rate,
stroke volume,
TPR

73
Q

what is the name of the process of the heart beating rhythmically in the absence of external stimuli?

A

autorhythmicity

74
Q

how is the intrinsic control of stroke volume managed?

A

Frank Starling Mechanism

75
Q

what vessels in the CVS are the main resistance vessels?

A

arterioles

76
Q

what increases TPR?

A

contraction of vascular smooth muscle (vasoconstriction)

77
Q

what decreases TPR?

A

relaxation of vascular smooth muscle (vasodilation)

78
Q

what is vasomotor tone?

A

tonic discharge of sympathetic nerves resulting in continuous release of noradrenaline

79
Q

what are the 2 areas of arterial smooth muscle where there is parasympathetic innervation?

A

penis and clitoris

80
Q

what type of changes to baroreceptors respond to?

A

ACUTE changes in blood pressure

81
Q

what hapens to baroreceptors firing if high blood pressure is sustained?

A

decrease firing, baroreceptors have re-set

82
Q

why is the brain a glucose obligate tissue?

A

blood brain barrier makes brain inaccessible to plasma fatty acids

83
Q

what levels of glucose count as hypoglycaemia and what can this cause?

A

4 is the floor

84
Q

what negative effect can chronic hyperglycaemia cause?

A

damage to blood vessels

85
Q

what 3 cell types are part of the pancreatic islets of langerhans?

A

alpha-cells
beta-cells
D-cells

86
Q

what do alpha-cells from the pancreatic islets of langerhan release?

A

glucagon

87
Q

what do the beta-cells from the pancreatic islets of langerhan release?

A

insulin

88
Q

what do the D-cells from the pancretic islets of langerhan release?

A

somatostatin

89
Q

what is the term which describes glucose in the urine?

A

glycosuria

90
Q

immediately after a meal, and glucose rises, what hormone also rises?

A

insulin rises

glucagon falls

91
Q

what is the effect on insulin secretion on a carb-rich meal compared to normal mixed meals?

A

insulin secretion is much higher for a carb-rich meal than for a normal mixed meal

92
Q

What is the function of insulin?

A

stimulates the uptake of glucose from the blood into muscle and fat cells
stimulates conversion of glucose into glycogen
stimulates conversion of fatty acids into triglycerides
stimulates conversion of amino acids into protein
(anabolism role)
hormone of the fed-state and overall lowers glucose concentration in the plasma

93
Q

what is the function of glucagon?

A

stimulates conversion of glycogen into glucose
simulated the conversion of triglycerides into fatty acids
(catabolism role)
hormone of the hungry-state

94
Q

what glucose transporter protein does insulin cause to be inserted into the plasma membrane of muscle and fat cells?

A

GLUT4

95
Q

where does GLUT4 originally come from?

A

intracellular stores

96
Q

what 5 factors promote the secretion of insulin?

A
  1. increased glucose
  2. increased amino acids
  3. increased parasympathetic activity (ie eating)
  4. increased glucagon
  5. GIP (gastric inhibitory polypeptide
97
Q

what 2 factors promote the inhibition of secretion of insulin?

A
  1. decreased glucose

2. increased sympathetic activity (eg exercise)

98
Q

Why does severe diabetes cause thirst?

A

high glucose concentrations in the urine cause large urinary volume, in addition to high glucose concentrations in the blood- dehydration

99
Q

in severe diabetes, the cells are unable to utilise glucose. What chemical breakdown reaction has a compensatory increase in order to provide an alternative energy source?

A

lipolysis, generates fatty acids

100
Q

why are ketone bodies formed in severe diabetes?

A

metabolism of fatty acids generates acetyl CoA. the liver is unable to process the excess acetyl CoA through citric acid cycle so they are converted to ketones instead.

101
Q

what type of blood gas alteration occurs in severe diabetes?

A

metabolic acidosis

blood pH is lowered

102
Q

in severe diabetes, what mechanism tries to compensate for the metabolic acidosis?

A

compensatory hyperventilation

103
Q

compare the onset of type 1 and type 2 diabetes.

A

type 1- childhood

type 2- usually adulthood

104
Q

compare the levels of insulin in the body of type 1 and type 2 diabetes

A

type 1- little/no insulin secretion

type 2- normal/high

105
Q

which is the predominant diabetes type, type 1 or type 2?

A

type 2 (80-90%)

106
Q

which diabetes can cause ketosis to develop?

A

type 1

107
Q

what is the treatment for type 1 diabetes?

A

insulin injections

108
Q

what is the treatment for type 2 diabetes?

A

diet/exercise and oral drugs for treatment

109
Q

compare the development of symptoms between type 1 and type 2 diabetes

A

type 1- symptoms develop rapidly

type 2- symptoms develop slowly

110
Q

what 3 factors stimulate the release of glucagon?

A

decreased blood glucose
amino acids
sympathetic nervous activity

111
Q

what 2 factors inhibit the release of glucagon?

A

raised blood glucose

insulin

112
Q

what 3 ways does glucagon raise plasma concentrations of glucose?

A

increases liver glycogenolysis
inhibites liver glycogen synthesis
promotes liver gluconeogenesis

113
Q

what are the serious consequences of starvation?

A

protein catabolism and muscle wasting

114
Q

from the connective capsule to the medulla, describe the layers of the adrenal gland?

A 
connective tissue capsule
zona glomerulosa
zona fasciculata
zona reticularis
medulla
115
Q

what part of the adrenal gland produces aldosterone?

A

the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

116
Q

what part of the adrenal gland produces cortisol?

A

the zona fasciculata

117
Q

what part of the adrenal gland produces sex hormones?

A

zona reticularis

118
Q

what part of the adrenal gland produces adrenaline?

A

storage granules of the medulla

119
Q

what rhythm does cortisol secretion exhibit?

A

diurnal rhythm

plasma cortisol concentration peaks in the morning, falls over the day and it lowest in the night

120
Q

what are adrenaline and cortisol released in response to?

A

stress

121
Q

what are the 2 functions of adrenaline in terms of glucose concentration of the plasma?

A

raises glucose concentration of the plasma by :

  1. stimulating glycogenolysis
  2. stimulating gluconeogenesis
122
Q

what are the 3 functions of cortisol?

A
  1. raises glucose concentration of the plasma by stimulating gluconeogenesis
  2. stimulates protein catabolism
  3. stimulates lipolysis
123
Q

compare adrenalin and cortisol in terms of there effectiveness for rapid mobilisation of fuel

A

adrenaline is important in the rapid mobilisation of fuel, cortisol is not

124
Q

where is growth hormone produced?

A

anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

125
Q

in response to starvation what 3 functions does the growth hormone have?

A
  1. decreases glucose uptake by muscle- ‘glucose sparing’
  2. mobilised glucose from liver
  3. promotes lipolysis in fat cells
126
Q

what hormone(s) is/are important for raising glucose concentration in the blood in emergencies?

A

adrenaline

127
Q

what hormone(s) is/are important for maintaining glucose concentration in the blood during starvation?

A

cortisol, growth hormone

128
Q

what is defined as the core body temperature?

A

the temperature of structures deep within the body

129
Q

what is the term that described the normal core body temperature?

A

normothermia

130
Q

what happens to cellular metabolism as body temperature increases?

A

cellular metabolism increases

131
Q

what are the 4 main detrimental effects of overheating?

A

protein denaturation
nerve malfunction
convulsions
death

132
Q

what happens if the body temperature decreases?

A

slowing down of cellular reactions, may fatally slow down metabolism

133
Q

what type of variation is seen in body temperature?

A

diurnal variation

lowest temp early in the morning

134
Q

how may body temperature be altered? (give 4 ways)

A

activity
emotions
exercise
exposure to extremes of temp

135
Q

when in the menstrual cycle do females have a slightly higher temperature?

A

2nd half of the cycle (after ovulation)

136
Q

how is heat gained from the internal environment?

A

metabolic heat

137
Q

how is heat gained from the external environment?

A

mainly radiation
(convection
conduction)

138
Q

how is heat lost to the external environment?

A

convection
conduction
radiation
evaporation

139
Q

what is metabolic heat?

A

heat produced from the oxidation of metabolic fuel derived from food in the body

140
Q

what is the Basal Metabolic Rate? (BMR)

A

the minimum amount of energy required to sustain vital body functions, leads to basic level of heat production

141
Q

what 3 hormones can increases the BMR?

A

adrenaline
noradrenaline
thyroxine

142
Q

what type of fat is involved in thermogenesis in young children?

A

brown fat

143
Q

What is radiation?

A

emission of heat energy in the form of electomagnetic waves from a surface
(elecromagnetic waves trave through space and transform into heat on striking another surface)

144
Q

how much of the body’s heat is lost through radiation?

A

50%

145
Q

what is conduction?

A

transfer of hear between object in contact

146
Q

with regards to conduction, how does heat move?

A

from warmer to cooler object

147
Q

what 2 factors does heat transfer depend on?

A

temperature gradient

thermal conductivity

148
Q

what is convection?

A

transfer of heat energy by air (or water) currents

149
Q

what can increase the combined effect of conduction-convection? (dissipation of heat)

A

forced air movement

150
Q

which is a better thermal conductor, air or water?

A

water

151
Q

what body mechanism works by active evaporation?

A

sweating

152
Q

what part of the ANS is sweating controlled by?

A

sympathetic nervous system

153
Q

how is evaporation result in heat loss?

A

energy is required to convert water in the skins surface and the lining of the respiratory airways into vapour

154
Q

what type of evaporation occurs continuously and is not under physiological control?

A

passive evaporation

155
Q

what type of feedback system controls body temperature?

A

negative feedback

156
Q

what 2 types of thermoreceptors are there?

A

central thermoreceptors

peripheral thermoreceptors

157
Q

where are central thermoreceptors located?

A

hypothalamus, abdominal organs, other areas

158
Q

where are the peripheral thermoreceptors located?

A

in skin

159
Q

what is the control centre for the negative feedback loop of thermoregulation?

A

hypothalamus

160
Q

what 3 effectors are important in the negative feedback loop of thermoregulation?

A

skeletal muscle
skin arterioles
sweat glands

161
Q

what type of inputs come to the hypothalamus from the negative feedback receptors for thermoregulation?

A

neural inputs

162
Q

what part of the hypothalamic centre is activated by cold?

A

posterior hypothalamic centre

163
Q

what part of the hypothalamic centre is activated by warmth?

A

anterior hypothalamic centre

164
Q

in response to stimulation of the posterior hypothalamic centre, what do skin arterioles do?

A

vasoconstrict (decreased heat loss)

165
Q

in response to stimulation of the posterior hypothalamic centre, what physiological involuntary action do skeletal muscles do?

A

increase muscle tone,
shiver,
(increased heat production)

166
Q

in response to stimulation of the posterior hypothalamic centre, what voluntary action do skeletal muscles do?

A

increase voluntary movement (increased heat production)

postural changes, warm clothing (increased heat loss

167
Q

in response to stimulation of the anterior hypothalamic centre, what physiological involuntary action do skin arterioles do?

A

vasodilation (increases heat loss)

168
Q

in response to stimulation of the anterior hypothalamic centre, what physiological involuntary action do sweat glands do?

A

increased sweat production (increased heat loss)

169
Q

in response to stimulation of the anterior hypothalamic centre, what physiological involuntary action do skeletal muscles do?

A

decreased motor tone

decreased heat production

170
Q

in response to stimulation of the anteior hypothalamic centre, what voluntary action do skeletal muscles do?

A 
decreased voluntary movement (decreased heat production)
cool clothing (increased heat loss)
171
Q

what are endogenous pyrogen? (eg interleukins)

A

chemicals released from macrophages, produced in response to infection or inflammation and stimulate the release of prostaglandins in the hypothalamus

172
Q

what does prostaglandins release in the hypothalamus achieve?

A

reset the thermostat in the hypothalamic thermo-regulatory centre to a higher temperature- fever

173
Q

when will the hypothalamic set point be restored to normal after pyrogenic release has caused it to alter?

A

when pyrogen release is reduced or stopped
OR
prostaglandins synthesis is decreased or stopped

174
Q

temperature of 38-40 =

A

fever

175
Q

temperature greater than 40 =

A

hyperthermia

176
Q

temperature below 35 =

A

hypothermia

Principles (8 decks)

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