Anatomy Flashcards
1
Q
What is the anatomical name for the armpit?
A
axilla
2
Q
Anatomical name for patient lying on their front?
A
prone
3
Q
Anatomical name for patient lying on their back?
A
supine
4
Q
What is the anatomical name for the soles of your feet?
A
plantar surface of foot
5
Q
What is it called when two structures lie on the same side of the body?
A
ipsilateral
6
Q
What is is called when two structures lie on different sides of the body?
A
contralateral
7
Q
What is the anatomical term for decreasing the angle between bones at a joint?
A
flexion
8
Q
What is the anatomical term for increasing the angle between bones at a joint?
A
extension
9
Q
What is the anatomical term for movement away from the median plane?
A
abduction
10
Q
What is the anatomical term for the movement towards the median plane?
A
adduction
11
Q
What is the anatomical name for rotating a limb towards the median plane?
A
internal rotation or medial rotation
12
Q
What is the anatomical name for rotating a limb away from the median plane?
A
external rotation or lateral rotation
13
Q
What is the anatomical name for circular motion at a joint?
A
circumduction
14
Q
What is the anatomical term for moving the dorsal surface of the foot superiorly?
A
dorsiflexion
15
Q
What is the anatomical term for moving the plantar surface of the foot inferiorly?
A
plantar flaxion
16
Q
What is the anatomical term for rotating the plantar surface of the foot towards the medial plane?
A
inversion
17
Q
What is the anatomical term for rotating the plantar surface of the foot away from the medial plane?
A
eversion
18
Q
What is the anatomical term for rotating the forearm so that palm of the hand faces posteriorly?
A
pronation
internal rotation
19
Q
What is the anatomical term for rotating the forarm from the pronated position so the palm faces anteriorly?
A
supination
External rotation
20
Q
What is the anatomical term for touching your thumbs with your pinkies?
A
opposition of the digits
21
Q
What body parts can you protract and retract?
A
jaw and shoulders
22
Q
What are the 4 basic tissue types?
A
muscle, epithelia, nerves and conenctive tissue
23
Q
What 2 body systems are important in the removal of CO2 and acids?
A
respiratory (quickly removes) and renal (slowly removes)
24
Q
What is the anatomical name for the skin?
A
integument
25
What are the 4 things our skin provides us with?
1. physical barrier
2. waterproof barrier
3. helps regulate body temp
4. UV radiation barrier (to a degree)
26
What three types of discrete areas of lymphatic tissue that help with the identification and destruction of invading pathogens?
1. tonsils (back of nose, tongue and mouth
2. spleen
3. GALT (GI associated lymphoid tissue)
27
What does the CNS consist of?
the brain and the spinal cord
28
Where is cartilage located?
at articulations (joints)
29
What are the 4 functions of bone?
1. support and proctection of body organs
2. calcium metabolism
3. RBC formation
4. attachment for skeletal muscles
30
What joints connect the skull to the vertebrae?
craniovertebrae joints
31
What are the 3 types of joint?
1. fibrous
2. cartilaginous
3. synovial
32
What are the 2 sub-types of fibrous joints?
a) sutures
| b) fibrous sheets
33
What type of joints are between skull bones?
sutures
34
What is the alternative name for fibrous sheets? (a sub-type of fibrous joints)
syndesmoses
35
What type of joint is the interosseous membrane?
fibrous sheet (sub-type of fibrous joints)
36
What is the interosseous membrane?
Joins the radius to the ulna
37
In descending order, what type of joints have the most mobility?
synovial joints
cartilaginous joints
fibrous joints
38
What are fontanelles?
wide sutures in the neonatal skull
39
What are the 2 sub-types of cartilaginous joints?
a) primary cartilaginous joints
| b) secondary cartilaginous joints (symphyses)
40
What are primary cartilaginous joints made out of?
hyaline cartilage
41
What are secondary cartilaginous joints made of?
fibrocartilage and hyaline
42
Where do secondary cartilaginous joints usually occur?
midline
43
What type of joint is the epiphyseal growth plate of a long bone?
a primary cartilaginous joint (made of hyaline cartilage) which will ossify once growth is complete
44
In descending order, what type of joints have the most stability?
Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial
45
What type of joint is an intervertebral disc?
Secondary cartilaginous (fibrocartilage)
46
What do fontanelles allow?
allows the growing frontal parietal temporal and occipital bones to slide over each other to make the head smaller in the birth canal ('moulding')
47
What is the epiphysis of a bone?
the head of the bone
48
What is the metaphysis of a bone?
the neck of the bone
49
What are the components of an intervertebral disks?
1. outer: anulus fibrosus 2. inner: nucleus pulposus
50
What is the anulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disk made out of?
fibrocartilage
51
What is the nucleus pulposus of an intervertebral disk made out of?
pulp-like substance
| 90% water in young people
52
In a synovial joint, why are the articular surfaces covered in hyaline (articular) cartilage?
to make smooth surfaces to reduce friction between bone ends
53
The fibrous capsule of a synovial joint is made out what 2 parts?
1. superficial strong fibrous layer
| 2. deeper synovial membrane which secretes synovial fluid
54
In a synovial joint, what iare the 2 functions of synovial fluid?
1. acts like a cushion against stress
| 2. provides lubrication and nutrients for the hyaline cartilage
55
What is the joint cavity of a synovial joint?
the space within the fibrous capsule that contains a little synovial fluid
56
What do ligaments within the synovial joint do?
they are fibrous bands which connect bone to bone and strengthen the fibrous capsule
57
What are tendons?
fibrous bands that connect skeletal muscle to bone
58
What are the 2 types of bursae?
1. synovial fluid-filled extensions of the joint cavity
| 2. closed sacs of synovial membrane and fluid, seperate from the joint cavity
59
What special feature of the TMJ improves stability of the joint?
the articular disc
60
What do bursae do?
prevent friction during movement
61
What are the 5 subtypes of synovial joint?
1. pivot joints (>45 degree rotation
2. ball and socket (multiaxial movement eg circumduction)
3. plane joints (minimal movement in one plane)
4. hinge joints (reasonable range of movement in one plane)
5. biaxial joints (reasonable range of movement in one plane and less in another
62
What type of joint is involved in shaking your head?
pivot joint (synovial)
63
What type of joint is the hip joint?
ball and socket (synovial)
64
What type of joint is the acromioclavicular joint?
plane joint (synovial)
65
what type of joint is the elbow joint?
hinge joint (synovial)
66
what type of joint is the wrists and ankles?
biaxial joints(synovial)
67
compare the hip joint to the shoulder joint.
hip joint has greater stability but lesser mobility than the shoulder joint
68
what is sublaxation of a joint?
reduced area of contact between articular surfaces
69
what is dislocation of a joint?
complete loss of contact between articular surfaces
70
What 10 joints most commonly dislocate?
```
craniovertebral joints
TMJs
shoulder joints
acromioclavicular joints
elbow joints
interphalangeal (PIP/DIP)
hip joints
knee joints
pubic symphsis
ankle joints
```
71
What happens during pregnancy to the pubic symphysis?
softens under the influence of relaxin (a placental hormone)
72
TMJs are synovial articulation between what?
mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of the temporal bone
to
head of the condylar process of the mandible
73
What happens in dislocation of the TMJ?
the head of the condylar process of the mandible becomes stuck ANTERIOR to the articular tubercle of the temporal bone
(patient cant close mouth)
74
What are arteries around a joint that anastamose to ensure a continued blood supply during all movements of the joint?
periarticular arterial anastamoses
75
What is endochondral ossification of the long bones?
when hyaline cartilage at the epiphyseal growth plate ossifies.
76
What is the diaphysis of a bone?
the body
77
what are the 2 features of the neck of the femur that contribute to an increased incidence of fractures?
1. less compact bones
| 2. thin/angled structure
78
What are bones made up of?
-an outer cortex which is strong and compact (cortical) bone
[runs the whole way along- hollow cavity in diaphysis]
-an inner medulla which is spongy and porous (trabecular) bone
[only at the epiphysis and metaphysis]
79
What may be present in the inner medulla of the bone?
bone marrow
80
what is bone marrow the site of?
red and white cell production
81
What is the outer layer of the outer cortex of bone?
periosteum
82
Why is tearing of the periosteum so painful?
sensory nerve fibres in the periosteum
83
When periosteum tears what occurs?
periosteum begins to produce new bone cells which form a disorganised lump of cells (callus)
84
What are the 3 ways bony features can develop?
1. functional (genetic)
2. an adjacent structure applies a tensile or compressive force upon developing bone
3. an adjacent structure is developing at the same time (foramen forms)
85
what is the name of the swelling on the superolateral humerus?
greater tubercle of the humerus
86
What is the name of the bony feature on the lateral side of the distal radius?
styloid process of the radius
87
what is the name of the bony feature on the lateral side of the distal humerus?
lateral condyle of the humerous
88
what is the name of the bony feature present on the medial side of the proximal femur? (just below the metaphysis)
lesser trochanter
89
what is the name of the bony feature present on the lateral side of the proximal femur?
greater trochanter
90
what is the name of the bony feature present on the lateral side of the distal femur?
lateral condyle of the femur
91
what is the name of the bony feature present on the medial side of the distal femur?
medial condyle of the femur
92
what is the name of the bony feature on the medial side of the distal humerus?
medial condyle of the humerous
93
what is an epicondyle?
a projection for the condyle with the purpose of providing a surface for muscle or ligament attachment
94
what is the bony feature of the medial side of the distal tibia?
medial malleolus
95
what is the name of the bony feater on the medial side of the proximal tibia?
tibial tuberosity
96
what are the names of the holes in the skull whiich allow the passing of cranial nerves and blood vessels?
foramen
97
What are the names of the cranial cavity fossae?
anterior cranial fossa
middle cranial fossa
posterior cranial fossa
98
What does the axial skeleton include?
bones of the:
skull,
neck (including cervical vertebrae and hyoid bone),
trunk (chest abdomen and back)
99
What does the appendicular skeleton include?
```
bones of the:
pectoral girdle
upper limbs
pelvic girdle
lower limb
```
100
What articulations does the hyoid bone have?
none, it floats in muscle
101
what is the function of the pectoral girdle?
ataches upper limbs to the axial skeleton
102
what is the function of the pelvic girdle?
attaches lower limbs to the axial skeleton
103
Where is the base of the skull?
superior to the orbits to inferior to the ears
104
what lies inferior to the base of the skull?
viscerocranium
| bones of the facial skeleton
105
what lies superior to the base of the skull?
neurocranium
| bones of the cranial vault
106
What suture lies between the frontal bone and the parietal bones?
coronal suture
107
what are the 8 bones of the neurocranium?
```
frontal bone
sphenoid bone
L/R temporal bone
L/R parietal bone
occipital bone
ethmoid bone
```
108
what suture lies between the left parietal bone and the right parietal bone?
sagittal suture
109
What bone separates the nasal cavity from the neurocranium and sits between both orbitals?
ethmoid bone
110
What are the bones of the viscerocranium?
L/R nasal bone
L/R zygoma (zygomatic arch)
L/R maxilla
L/R mandible
111
In early childhood the left and right sides of the madible fuse together at what?
midline mandible symphysis
| previous a cartilaginous joint
112
Explain Le Fort 1.
facial skeleton fracture where teeth separate from upper face
113
Explain Le Fort 2.
facial skeleton fracture where central maxilla is separated from zygomatic areas
114
Explain Le Fort 3
facial skeleton fracture where facial bones are sepatated from the frontal bone (ie viscerocranium separated from the neurocranium at the base of the skull)
115
describe the vertebral column.
- C1-C7
- T1-T12
- L1-L5
- S1-S5 (fused to form 1 sacrum)
- C1-C4 (fused to form 1 coccyx)
116
What areas of the vertebrae flip to form the secondary curvatures?
cervical and lumbar
117
What type of joint do the superior and inferior articular processes of adjacent vertebrae form?
synovial facet joint
118
what does the vertebral arch consist of?
pedicle (x2)
| lamina (x2)
119
what is the function of the vertebral arch?
protect spinal cord
120
what is the function of the vertebral foramen?
convey and protect the spinal cord
121
what is the function of the vertebral body?
weight bearing
122
What is different about C1 vertebra? (atlas)
no body or spinous process
123
C2 has stolen C1's body. What does this form?
odontoid process (peg)
124
what is the first spinous process that can be palpated in the posterior aspect of the neck?
C7
125
what is the name of C7?
vertebra prominens
126
what is the name of C1?
atlas
127
what is the name of C2?
axis
128
What is rib 1 protected by?
the clavicle
129
What costal cartilages are anterior to the pericardial sac?
costal cartilages of ribe 2-6
130
The pericardium is a 3 layer bag, describe the layers?
1. outer fibrous pericardium
2. serous parietal pericardium
3. serious visceral pericadium
131
The heart itself is made of three layers of tissue, what are the three layers?
(superficial to deep)
1. epicardium (visceral serous pericardium)
2. myocardium (muscular layer)
3. endocardium (internal lining- continous with the endotherlium of the blood vessels connecting within the heart)
132
how are the cardiac myoctes arranged?
basal and apical spirals (allows the heart to wring itself out when it contracts)
133
What is the function of the cardiac skeleton?
electrical insulator
134
Describe the 2 main features of cardiac muscle?
involuntary and striated
135
Describe the 2 main features of smooth muscle?
involuntary and non-striated
136
Describe the 2 main features of skeletal muscle?
voluntary and striated
137
What are skeletal muscles made of?
many fascicle
138
What are fascicle made of?
many muscle fibre
139
what are muscle fibres made of?
many myofribils
140
what are myofribils made of?
many actin and myosin microfilaments
141
What are striations in muscle due to?
the overlapping of actin and myosin microfilaments of the sarcomere
142
what are the 5 types of skeletal muscle?
flat muscle with aponeurosis, pennate muscles, fusiform muscle, quadrate muscle, circular/sphincteral muscle
143
what is an aponeurosis?
A flat tendon associated most commonly with flat muscle. Attaches muscle to soft tissue instead of bone.
144
What are the origins and insertion of the biceps brachii?
origins: 2 points on the scapula
insrtion: on radius
145
Where is the biceps brachii muscle?
spans the anterior aspect of the shoulder joint
146
What are the 3 functions of the biceps brachii?
1. flexor of the shoulder
2. flexor of the elbow
3. supination of the forearm
147
What are the origins and the insertion of the deltoid?
origin on spine of scapula, acromion process of the scapula, lateral 1/3 clavicle.
insertion on the deltoid tuberosity of the humerous
148
what movement do the posterior fibres of the deltoid perform?
extension of the shoulder
149
what movement do the middle fibres of the deltoid perform?
abduction of the shoulder
150
what movement do the anterior fibres of the deltoid perform?
flexion of the shoulder
151
where does the head of the humerus articulate?
shallow socket of the glenoid fossa of the scapula
152
what is the bony feature of the ulna that articulates with the humerus?
trochlear notch of the proximal ulna
153
What ligament attaches the patella to the tibial tuberosity?
patellar tendon (be carful, not actually a tendon)
154
for a reflex movement, what is the whole route taken by the action potential called?
reflex arc
155
A muscle without a functioning motor nerve supply is known as?
paralysed- reduced tone
156
what is the tone like for a muscle with functioning motor nerves but non functioning descending controls from the brain?
increased tone (muscle is essentially being allowed to over contract continuously)
157
what can happen to the muscles when a limb is immobilised for a long period of time?
atrophy of the muscle
158
what happens to an atrophied muscle?
the individual muscle fibres become smaller, collectively reducing the muscles bulk
159
What is hypertrophy of a skeletal muscle?
each myocyte enlarges
160
What is hyperplasia of a skeletal muscle?
increased number of muscle cells produces.
161
What are the three muscle compartments of the thigh?
anterior, medial and posterior
162
What are the three muscle compartments of the leg?
anterior, posterior and lateral
163
What are the two muscle compartments of the arm?
anterior and posterior
164
What are the two muscle compartments of the forearme?
anterior and posterior
165
what is the biceps brachii nerve supply?
musculocutaneous nerve from the brachial blexus
166
Where does fertilisation take place?
the ampulla of the uterine tube
167
Which cavity are the ovaries in?
pelvic cavity
168
What is the name of the way into the pelvic cavity from the abdominal cavity?
pelvic inlet
169
What is the name of the way into the perineum from the pelvic cavity?
pelvic outlet
170
What suspends the uterus, uterine tube and ovary from the lateral wall of the pelvic cavity?
broad ligament of the uterus
171
What attaches the uterus to the perineum?
round ligament of the uterus
172
What are the three layers of the wall of the body of the uterus?
perimetrium
myometrium
endometrium
173
What are the female reproductive organs?
ovaries
174
What are the female accessory reproductive organs?
uterine tubes, uterus, vagina
175
What is the name of the part of uterine tube (closest to the ovaries), that forms a funnel?
infundibulum
176
What is the name of the part of the uterine tube closest to the uterus?
isthmus
177
What is the order of the parts of the uterine tube?
| as if an egg is going through
infundibulum
ampulla
isthmus
178
The fimbrae which define the end of the uterine tube are in which cavity?
peritoneal cavity
179
What is the opening of the uterine tube which opens into the peritoneal cavity?
abdominal ostium
180
Where does implantation of the zygote usually occur?
body of the uterus
181
What gland is responsible for regulating female hormone production and the development of ova?
pituitary gland
182
What do ova develop from?
primitive germ cells
183
What pushes the oocyte along the uterine tube?
cilia
184
What causes an un-fertilised ovum to be expelled?
contractions of the myometrium
185
What can give rise to cramping menstrual pain?
contractions of the myometrium
186
What is the name of the process of a fertilised ovum implanting itself outwith the uterine cavity?
ectopic pregnancy
187
What is the name of an ectopic pregnancy that occurs within the uterine tube? (97%)
tubal pregnancy
188
What is the name of an ectopic pregnancy that occurs within the peritoneal cavity?
an abdominal preganancy
189
Why is an ectopic pregnancy a potential emergency?
danger of haemorrhage
190
What is the process of female sterilisation?
tubal ligation (clipping, cutting or cauterisation of the uterine tubes)
191
What occurs when a STI is spread via the uterus and uterine rubes to the peritoneal cavity?
peritonitis
192
What can be a complication of an STI due to damage or occlusion of the uterine tubes?
infertility
193
What is the part of the female perineum that is anterior to the pubic bone?
mons pubis
194
What are the two areas of the female perineum that are the 'lips of the vagina?
labium majus (more superficial) and labium minus (deeper)
195
What is the name of the external opening into the vagina?
vaginal orfice
196
In a male, what is the function of the urethra?
passing of urine/ejaculation of sperm
197
What is circumsicion?
surgical removal of the prepuce (foreskin/hood)
198
What does the scrotum contain?
the testus
199
What is the name of the visible ridge of tissue that extends from the anus through the perineum?
perineum raphe
200
What is the name of the section of the perineum raphe that extends through the midline of the penis?
penile raphe
201
What is the name of the section of the perineum raphe that extends through the midline of the scrotum?
scrotal raphe
202
What can unreducible retraction of the prepuce cause?
paraphimosis
| constriction of the neck of the glans calling the glands to swell
203
Where is the original position of the testes during fetal development?
Posterior wall of the abdominal cavity (they descend to the scrotum)
204
What gland is important in regulating the male hormone production and the development of sperm?
pituitary gland
205
How many days do sperm take to develop to full maturity?
64 days
206
Why are the testes within the scrotum and not within the body?
because spermatogenesis requires a temperature about 1 degree below core body temp
207
What is the name of the muscle in the superficial fascia of the scortum?
dartos muscle
208
Why does the dartos muscle contract?
to wrinkle/thicken the scrotal skin and reduce the surface area of the scrotum (to maintain correct scrotal lemp in cold conditions)
209
Where do sperm form?
in the seminiferous tubules of the testes
210
What is the journey of sperm to the vas deferens?
seminiferous tubules
rete testis
epididymis
vas deferens
211
What does the spermatic cord contatin?
vas deferens, testicular artery, pampniform venous plexus
212
What is the medical condition when the spermatic cord becomes twisted and disrupts the blood supply to the testis?
testicular torsion
213
What can testicular torsion cause?
severe pain and testicular necrosis
214
What do the seminal glands produce?
seminal fluid
215
What does the prostatic urethra do?
1. drains urine from bladder
| 2. passes semen in ejaculation
216
Each spermatic cord passes through the anterior abdominal wall within what?
the inguinal canal
217
What does the duct from the seminal gland and the vas deferins join to make?
ejaculatory duct
218
Where do the right and left ejaculatory ducts open into?
prostatic part of the urethra
219
Where is the prostatic part of the urethra?
within the prostate gland, immediately inferior to the bladder
220
What are the names of the 3 cylinders of tissue within the body of the penis?
Right and left posterior: corpus cavernosum
| anterior: corpus spongiusum
221
What is the anterior surface of the penis?
```
dorsal surface
(anatomical position, penis is pointing up)
```
222
What do the 2 cylinders of corpus cavernosum transmit?
the deep arteries of the penis
223
What does the cylinder of corpus spongiosum transmit?
the penile urethra
224
What does the corpus spongiosum expand distally to form?
the glans
225
In a male where does the urethra open at?
the external urethral meatus of the penis
226
What are the male reproductive organs?
testes
227
What are the male accessory reproductive organs?
vas deferens, seminal glands, prostate gland and penis
228
What is the medical name for male sterilisation?
vasectomy
229
What does the upper respiratory tract contain?
R/L nasal cavities
Oral cavity
Pharynx
Larynx
230
What does the lower respiratory tract contain?
```
trachea
R/L main bronchus
lobar bronchi
segmental bronchi
bronchioles
alveoli
```
231
what is the name of the process by which cilia beat to sweep the mucous (and any foreign bodies stuck in the mucous) superiorly towards the pharynx to be swallowed?
mucociliary escalator
232
what 2 things interfere with the normal beating of cilia?
1. cooling/drying of the mucosa
| 2. toxins in cigarette smoke
233
What supports the walls of the trachea and bronchi?
hyaline cartilage
234
What is the function of the hyaline cartilage?
maintains patency of the airway
235
As you move down the airway what happens to the cartilage?
gradually reduces
236
as you move down the airway what happens to the smooth muscle?
becomes more prominent
237
What does smooth muscle allow the bronchioles to do?
constrict and dilate
238
What part of the airway has no cartilage or smooth muscle?
alveoli
239
what facilitates gasous diffusion in the alveolar capillaries?
tissue fluid
240
What 3 things does asthma cause?
1. constriction of bronchiles
2. swelling of the mucosa lining
3. overproduction of mucous
241
The bony posterior part of the nasal septum consists of what bones?
ethmoid (superiorly)
| vomer (inferiorly
242
The cardilaginous inferior part of the nasal septum contains what?
hyaline cartilage
243
What is the floor of the nasal cavity formed by?
palate
244
What cartilages are contained within the larynx?
epiglottits
thyroid cartilage
cricoid cartilage
2 arytenoid cartilages
245
What are the 3 functions of the larynx?
1. cartilages help maintain the patency of the URT
2. helps prevent foreign bodies entering the LRT (vocal cords)
3. produced sounds (vocal cords)
246
What is the name of the entrance to the larynx?
laryngeal inlet
247
What is the narrowest part of the larynx?
rima glottidis
248
What are the 2 types of voice production?
phonation (producing sound)
| articulation (producing speech)
249
What are the 2 main dangers in the airways?
1. cooling and drying out (damages the mucociliary escalator- predisposing to infection)
2. breathing in infected foreign bodies ( causes infection)
250
How is warmth provided to the air we breathe in? (preventing cooling)
good arterial blood supply within the respiratory mucosa
251
What are the long, narrow curled protrusions of bone into the nasal cavity?
the conchae
| superior, middle and inferior conchae
252
What is the function of the conchae?
1. greatly increase surface area of the lateral walls of the nasal cavities
2. produce turbulent flow bringing the air into contact with the walls
253
What are the 3 parts of the pharynx?
1. nasopharyns (posterior to the nasal cavities)
2. oropharynx (posterior to the oral cavity)
3. laryngopharynx (posterior to the larynx)
254
What membrane is between the thyroid cartilage and the cricoid cartilage?
cricothyroid membrane
255
What part of the GI tract is within the head?
oral cavity and pharynx
256
What part of the GI tract is within the neck?
pharynx and oesophagus
257
What part of the GI tract is within the chest?
oesophagus
258
What part of the GI tract is within the abdomen?
stomach, small intestine, large intestine
| most of the acessory organs
259
What part of the GI tract is within the pelvis?
rectum and anal canal
260
What part of the GI tract is within the perineum?
anus
261
What is the name for things being inhaled into the respiratory tract?
aspiration
262
What are the muscles of mastication?
jaw closing: masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid
| jaw opening: lateral pteryogoid
263
What skeletal muscles voluntarily contact and pull the facial skin into expressions?
muscles of the facial expression
264
What muscle is circularly arranged around the lips and produces an anterior oral seal that prevents dribbling?
orbicularis oris
265
What is the mucosa of the oral cavity made of?
stratified squamous epithelium
266
where in the oral cavity is surface keratin found?
gingivae and the hard palate
267
how many types of papilla are there on the dorsum of the tongue and what are there names?
```
4:
foliate papillae
vallate papillae
fungiform papillae
filiform papillae
```
268
whats are the 2 functions that the different types of papilla can perform?
1. provide surface texture (to help the tongue manipulate food)
2. special sense of taste
269
Where is the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue located?
oral cavity
270
Where is the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue located?
oropharynx
271
What 3 types of papilla are involved with taste?
foliate papillae
vallate papillae
fungigorm papillae
272
what 1 type of papilla is involved with touch and temperature?
filiform
273
What is the muscle of the cheek?
buccinator
274
What is the function of the buccinator?
helps to position the food bolus between the occlusal surfaces of the teeth for mastication
275
how many teeth does an adult have?
32 (all should be erupted by age 18)
276
what are the teeth of type 1 and 2?
incisors
277
what are the of type teeth 3?
canines
278
what are the teeth of type 4 and 5?
premolars
279
what are the teeth of type 6, 7 and 8
molars (8 = wisdom teeth)
280
what stimulates salivating?
1. thought, sight, small of food
2. prescence of food in mouth
3. painful oral conditions eg teething or fractured mandible
281
what is the pharynx lined with?
non-keratinised statisfied squamous epithelium
282
what type of muscle is inthe pharynx?
skeletal
283
what is the name of the ring of tonsils that provide defence against invading pathogens in the pharynx/
waldeyers ring of tonsils
284
what guides the food bolus away from the midline laryngeal inlet?
the uvula of the soft palate
285
what is the oesophagus lined with?
non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
286
What is the function of the outer longitudinal layer of smooth muscle in the small intestine?
shortens the tube
287
What is the function of the inner circular layer of smooth muscle in the small intestine?
constricts the diameter (peristaltic wave)
288
what is contained within mesenteries?
arteries, veins, nerves, lymphatics
289
the aorta passes through the diaphragm and enters where?
the retroperitoneum
290
what are the 3 midline branches of the abdominal aorta? (superior to inferior)
1. celiac trunk
2. SMA
3. IMA
291
where do foregut structures drain their lymph?
via nodes located along the splenic artery towards celiac nodes (located around the origin of the celiac trunk)
292
where do midgut structures drain their lymph?
via nodes located around the SMA towards the SM nodes (located around the origin of the SMA)
293
where do hind gut structures drain their lymph?
via nodes located along the IMA towards the IM nodes (located around the origin of the IMA)
294
What is the body's response to an obstruction?
increased peristalsis proximal ot the obstruction
295
what are endocrine glands responsible for manufacaturing, storing and releasing?
at least one type of hormone
296
hormones are involved in regulating what 4 things?
1. metabolism
2. growth
3. reproductive function
4. bodies response to physiological stress
297
endocrine gland tumours can affect hormone production in what 2 ways?
1. functioning (too much hormone secreted)
| 2. non-functioning (too little hormone secreted)
298
What are the main endocrine glands in the head?
hypothalamus and the pituitary gland (hypophysis)
299
What are the main endocrine glands in the neck?
4 parathyroid glands and the thyroid gland
300
what are the main endocrine glands in the abdomen?
2 adrenal glands (suprarenal) and the pancreas
301
what are the main endocrine glands in the pelvis?
2 ovaries
302
what are the main endocrine glands in the perineum?
2 testes
303
What is the diencephalon made of?
thalamus and hypothalamus
304
What connections does the diencephalon have?
connecions with right and left cerebral hemispheres and the midbrain
305
what foramen in the brain transmits the spinal cord?
foramen magnum
306
what do the right and left temporal bones contain?
the organs of hearing and balance
307
whay connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland?
infundibulum (pituitary stalk)
308
What are the 2 parts of the pituitary gland?
anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary
309
What passes from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland in the infundibulum?
axons of the hypothalamic neurones
310
What 2 hormones do the hypothalamic neurones manufacture and transport to the posterior pituitary?
oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH)
311
What is the name of the cytoplasm of the axons?
axoplasm
312
How are the hormones transported from the hypothalmic neurones to the posterior pituitary?
axoplasmic transport within the axoplasm
313
What type of hormones that target the anterior pituitary gland are secreted by the hypothalamic neurones?
releasing hormones
| release-inhibiting hormones
314
What effect do hypothalamic releasing hormones have?
stimulate the anterior pituitary to release its hormones into the bloodstream
315
What effect do hypothalamic release-inhibiting hormones have?
prevent the anterior pituitary gland releasing hormones into the bloodstream
316
What 6 hormones does the anterior pituitary release?
1. growth hormone (GH)
2. prolactin
3. thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
4. adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
5. lutenising hormone (LH)
6. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
317
Where do the hypothalamic neurones secrete the releasing hormones or release-inhibiting hormones?
into the hypophyseal portal system
318
what does the hypophyseal portal system do?
1. drains venous blood from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary capillary beds (this blood contains the release or release-inhibiting hormones)
2. drains venous blood from the anterior pituitary to the hypophyseal veins and eventually the SVC (this blood contains anterior pituitary hormones)
319
what is a portal system?
when a capillary bed lies between 2 sets of veins
320
what are the 2 portal systems in the body?
1. hepatic portal system
| 2. hypophyseal portal system
321
What do the anterior pituitary hormones do?
control the output of hormones from many other endocrine glands
322
What connects the left and right lobe of the thyroid gland?
the isthmus of the thyroid gland
323
What are the 2 thyroid hormones?
triiodothyonine (T3)
[we cannot live without this]
thyroxine (T4)
324
what is an important element in the manufacture of the 2 thyroid hormones?
iodine
325
what can happen to the thyroid gland if there is a dietary lack of iodine?
enlarge/swollen thyroid gland
| goitre
326
What hormones do the 4 parathyroid glands manufacture and secrete?
PTH (parathyroid hormone)
| [we cannot live without this]
327
What is special about PTH?
not under pituitary control
| the gland monitors blood Ca2+ and responds directly
328
What does PTH do?
control the amount of calcium in blood and bone
329
where are the 4 parathyroid glands located?
on the posterior surfaces of the thyroid glands lobes
330
What is the blood supply to the thyroid and parathyroid glands?
the right and left inferior thyroid atery,
| the right and left superior thyroid artery
331
What drains the thyroid and parathyroid glands?
R/L superior, middle, inferior thyroid veins
| then to the internal jugular veins
332
What is special about the endocrine pancreas?
not under pituitary control
333
what hormones are produced in the adrenal cortex?
glucocorticoids (pituitary ATCH control)
mineralcorticoids
androgens
334
what hormones are produced in the adrenal medulla?
adrenaline
| noradrenaline
335
what do glucocorticoids control?
metabolism
336
what do mineralcorticoids control?
BP
337
what 3 arteries supply each adrenal gland?
R/L superior suprarenal artery (branch of the inferior phrenic artery);
R/L middle suprarenal artery (branch of the abdominal aorta);
R/L interior suprarenal artery (branch of the renal artery)
338
what are the 3 paired branches of the abdominal aorta?
adrenal arteries, renal arteries gonadal arteries
339
What is the venous drainage of the adrenal glands?
right suprarenal vein into the IVC directly
| left surarenal vein drains ino the left renal vein
340
The testes secretes testosterone in response to what?
LH from the anterior pituitary
341
the ovaries secrete oestrogen and progesterone in response to what?
FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary
342
What is the venous drainage of the gonads?
the right gonadal vein drains directly into the IVC
| the left gonadla vein drains into the left renal vein
343
what 3 functions do testosterone and oestrogen have?
1. control development of secondary sexual characteristics
2. promote closure of the epiphyseal growth plates
3. stimulate sperm or ovum development
344
what is the function of progesterone?
prepares the uterus for pregnancy
345
in the CNS a group of nerve cell bodies is called what?
nucleus
346
in the PNS a group of nerve cell bodies is called what?
ganglion
347
What is the function of the myelin sheath?
acts as an electrical insulater and therefore the nerve conducts action potentials faster
348
What is a bundle of axons wrapped up in connective tissue, travelling together to/from the same region of the body or structure called?
a peripheral nerve
349
At a synapse what happens to the AP?
AP (electrical signal) becomes a neurotransmitter (chemical signal) and then back to an AP again
350
what is the name of the outermost layer of the cerbral hemispheres (consisting of all the gyri and sulci)?
cerebral neocortex (cortex)
351
how many lobes of each cerebral hemisphere are there? (and name them)
```
4:
frontal lobe
parietal lobe
temporal lobe
occipital lobe
```
352
what separates the 2 cerebral hemispheres sagitally?
longituidinal fissure
353
Name CN I and its foramen?
olfactory nerve
| cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone
354
Name CN II and its foramen?
optic nerve optic canal
355
Name CN III and its foramen?
oculomotor nerve
| superior orbital fissure
356
Name CN IV and its foramen?
trochlear nerve
| superior orbital fisure
357
Name CN V and its foramen?
trigeminal nerve
V1 (ophthalmic branch)- superior orbital fissure
V2 (maxillary branch)- foramen rotundum
V3 (mandibular branch)- foramen ovale
358
Name CN VI and its foramen?
abducent nerve
| superior orbital fissure
359
Name CN VII and its foramen?
facial nerve
| internal acoustic meatus and stylomastoid foramen
360
Name CN VIII and its foramen?
vestibulocochlear nerve
| internal acoustic meatus
361
Name CN IX and its foramen?
glossopharyngeal nerve
| jugular foramen
362
Name CN X and its foramen?
vagus nerve
| jugular foramen
363
Name CN XI and its foramen?
spinal accessory nerve
| jugular foramen
364
Name CN XII and its foramen?
Hypoglossal nerve
| hypoglossal canal
365
What is the name of pathology in the jugular foramen affecting CN IX, X and XI?
jugular foramen syndrome
366
Where in the brain is grey matter located?
superficially
367
Where in the brain is white matter located?
deep to the grey matter
368
What does grey matter contain?
cell bodies
369
What does white matter contain?
axons (the myelination gives the whiter appearance)
370
Where in the spinal cord is grey matter located?
deep to the white matter
371
Where in the spinal cord is white matter located?
superficially
372
in which cranial bone is the foramen magnum?
occipital bone
373
Where are the 2 enlargements of the spinal cord?
cervical (due to upper limb nerves)
| lumbosacral (due to lover limb nerves)
374
Where does the solid structure of the spinal cord end?
conus medullaris (L1/L2 intervertebral disc level)
375
what is inferior to the conus medullaris?
cauda equina
376
Where are the spinal nerves located?
in the intervertebral foramens
377
What connects the spinal nerve to the spinal cord?
the roots and rootlets
378
What connects the spinal nerve to the structures of the body wall (soma)?
anterior and posterior rami
379
what rami supply the limbs?
anterior rami via plexi
380
What spinal nerves supply the upper limbs?
C5-T1 anterior rami
| Forms the R/L brachial plexus
381
What spinal nerves supply the lower limbs?
L1-L4 anterior rami (R/L lumbar plexus)
| L5-S4 anterior rami (R/L sacral plexus) [also supplys pelvis/perineum]
382
What spinal fibres supply the neck wall?
C1-C4 anterior rami (R/L cervical plexus)
383
What spinal nerves supply the R/L musculocutaneous nerve?
C5 and C6 anterior rami
384
what are the 5 named nerves of the brachial plexus?
```
axillary nerve
median nerve
musculocutaneous nerve
radial nerve
ulnar nerve
```
385
What vertebral bodies have lateral horns? (and therefore can have sympathetic fibres pass through)
T1-L2
386
what cranial nerves contain parasympathetic axons?
III, VII, IX, X
387
what is it called when arteries, veins and nerves run together in the same bundle?
neurovascular bundle
388
What are the 2 functions of the elastic fibres which are present in the largest, most proximal arteries?
1. permit expansion of the aorta to accommodate the blood forced into it during systole
2. the elastic recoil help to maintain blood pressure during diastole
389
what is the name of the background, low level contraction of arteriolar smooth muscle?
sympathetic tone
390
How does sympathetic tone occur?
tonic conduction of action potentials
391
what are the 3 things in the body wall that sympathetic fibres supply?
1. skin sweat glands
2. skin arrector muscles
3. all arterioles
392
What are the 2 branches of the ascending aorta?
R/L coronary arteries
393
what are the 3 branches of the arch of the aorta?
brachiocephalic artery, left common carotid artery, left subclavian artery
394
what does the brachiocephalic artery bifurcate into?
the right common carotid artery and the right subclavian artery
395
What is the route of the right vertebral artery?
starts at the right subclavian artery, passes through the transverse foraminae in cervical vertebrae, enters cranial cavity through foramen magnum
396
What is the anastamosis on the inferior aspect of the inferior aspect of the brain?
the circle of willis
| made of the R/L internal carotids and the basilar artery
397
when the right and left vertebral arteries go through the foramen magnum they join to form what artery?
the basilar artery
398
What is the dilated, most proximal part of the internal carotid artery?
the carotid sinus
399
At what level is the carotid sinus?
level of the superior border of the thyroid cartilage
400
What is the carotid sinus and the carotid body innervated by?
CN IX
401
What is the function of the carotid sinus?
detects stretch in the walls to detect beat to beat changes in arterial BP
402
Where is the carotid body?
at the exact point of bifurcation of the internal and external carotid arteries
403
what does the carotid body do?
monitors blood gas levels/pH
404
what type of junctions are between the brain capillary endothelial cells?
tight junctions
405
as well as endothelial cells, what other cells surround the brain capillaries?
astrocytes (support cells)
406
What do astrocytes and tight junctions in the brain capillaries achieve?
prevent diffusion of some substances
407
What can weaken the blood-brain barrier?
brain injury, inflammation and neoplasia
408
What is the advantage of the Circle of Willis?
alternative routes during an arterial occlusion (prevents CVAs)
409
What is the disadvantage of the Circle of Willis?
bleeds will occu from both sides of a cut- so haemorrhages will be worse
410
what is the name of the arterial blood supply to an area of the body where there are no collaterals?
end artery
411
Describe the change of name of the subclavian artery.
subclavian- axillay- brachial- then bifurcation into radial artery and ulnar artery
412
describe the 2 sets of veins.
superficial veins run in the superficial fascia (drain into deep veins)
deep veins are larger and run deep to the deep fascia
413
where does the right lymphatic duct drain lymph to?
right venous angle
414
where does the thoracic duct drain lymph to?
left venous angle
415
What are the 7 key functions of the kidneys?
1. bood pH control
2. water balance
3. electrolyte balance
4. blood pressure control
5. metabolism of waste products and drugs
6. stimulates RBC production
7. required for absorption of calcium
416
describe the passage of urine?
kidney
ureter
bladder
urethra
417
What is the function of the kidney?
produces urine
418
what is the function of the ureter?
drains urine from kidney to bladder
419
what is the function of the bladder?
stores/voids urine
420
what is the function of the urethra?
excretion of urine (and semen in the male)
421
What is the ureter to the upper urethra lined with?
transitional epithelium (urothelium)
422
what is the distal urethra lined with?
protective stratified squamous epitheliume
423
what ribs protect the kidneys?
ribs 11/12
424
why does the right kidney lie slightly inferiorly to the left kidney?
the size of the liver
425
from the visceral peritoneum describe the layers to the kidney. (anterior to posteriorly)
```
visceral peritoneum
paranephric fat
renal (deep) fascia
perinephric fat
renal capsule
```
426
what is the blood supply to the ureters?
multiple arterial branches from the renal arteries, the gonadal arteries, and the aorta
427
how many renal segments are there?
5 segments per kidney
428
what does a kidney consist of?
an outer cortex and an inner medulla
429
describe the drainage of urine from a nephron collecting duct?
```
nephron collecting duct
minor calyx
major calyx
renal pelvis
ureter
```
430
What happens at the pelviureteric junction?
the wider renal pelvis constricts and becomes a narrower ureter
431
where are the nephrons situated?
in the renal pyramids in the medulla
432
what are the 3 sites of uretic constriction?
1. pelviureteric junction
2. ureter crossing the anterior aspect of the common iliac artery
3. ureteric orfice
433
what is the opening on the posterior surface of the bladder that the ureter goes through?
ureteric orfice
434
what can a renal calculus cause?
renal colic
435
what is the trigone of the floor of the bladder made of?
3 points
R/L ureteric orfice
urethral orfice
436
what smooth muscle is within the walls of the bladder?
detrusor muscle
437
why does the detrusor contract?
to void during micturition
438
What encircles the bladder neck in males?
internal urethral sphincter (involuntary)
made of detrusor muscle fibres
(prevents ejaculatory reflux)
439
why do detrusor muscle fibres encircle the ureteric orfices like a sphincter?
to prevent reflux of urine into the ureters during micturition
440
what can enlargment of the prostate gland cause?
obstruction of the prostatic urethra leading to urinary retention
441
where is the external urethral sphincter?
around the urethra
| in males just inferior to the prostate gland
442
what type of function does the external urethral sphincter have?
voluntary
443
compare the female urethra to the male urethra?
femal urethra is much shorter
444
what can urinary tract obstruction cause?
back pressure causing the urinary tract pressure to exceed the pressures favouring filtration at the glomerulus- renal failure
