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Principles > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What is the anatomical name for the armpit?

A

axilla

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2
Q

Anatomical name for patient lying on their front?

A

prone

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3
Q

Anatomical name for patient lying on their back?

A

supine

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4
Q

What is the anatomical name for the soles of your feet?

A

plantar surface of foot

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5
Q

What is it called when two structures lie on the same side of the body?

A

ipsilateral

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6
Q

What is is called when two structures lie on different sides of the body?

A

contralateral

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7
Q

What is the anatomical term for decreasing the angle between bones at a joint?

A

flexion

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8
Q

What is the anatomical term for increasing the angle between bones at a joint?

A

extension

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9
Q

What is the anatomical term for movement away from the median plane?

A

abduction

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10
Q

What is the anatomical term for the movement towards the median plane?

A

adduction

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11
Q

What is the anatomical name for rotating a limb towards the median plane?

A

internal rotation or medial rotation

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12
Q

What is the anatomical name for rotating a limb away from the median plane?

A

external rotation or lateral rotation

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13
Q

What is the anatomical name for circular motion at a joint?

A

circumduction

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14
Q

What is the anatomical term for moving the dorsal surface of the foot superiorly?

A

dorsiflexion

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15
Q

What is the anatomical term for moving the plantar surface of the foot inferiorly?

A

plantar flaxion

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16
Q

What is the anatomical term for rotating the plantar surface of the foot towards the medial plane?

A

inversion

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17
Q

What is the anatomical term for rotating the plantar surface of the foot away from the medial plane?

A

eversion

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18
Q

What is the anatomical term for rotating the forearm so that palm of the hand faces posteriorly?

A

pronation

internal rotation

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19
Q

What is the anatomical term for rotating the forarm from the pronated position so the palm faces anteriorly?

A

supination

External rotation

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20
Q

What is the anatomical term for touching your thumbs with your pinkies?

A

opposition of the digits

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21
Q

What body parts can you protract and retract?

A

jaw and shoulders

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22
Q

What are the 4 basic tissue types?

A

muscle, epithelia, nerves and conenctive tissue

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23
Q

What 2 body systems are important in the removal of CO2 and acids?

A

respiratory (quickly removes) and renal (slowly removes)

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24
Q

What is the anatomical name for the skin?

A

integument

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25
Q

What are the 4 things our skin provides us with?

A
  1. physical barrier
  2. waterproof barrier
  3. helps regulate body temp
  4. UV radiation barrier (to a degree)
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26
Q

What three types of discrete areas of lymphatic tissue that help with the identification and destruction of invading pathogens?

A
  1. tonsils (back of nose, tongue and mouth
  2. spleen
  3. GALT (GI associated lymphoid tissue)
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27
Q

What does the CNS consist of?

A

the brain and the spinal cord

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28
Q

Where is cartilage located?

A

at articulations (joints)

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29
Q

What are the 4 functions of bone?

A
  1. support and proctection of body organs
  2. calcium metabolism
  3. RBC formation
  4. attachment for skeletal muscles
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30
Q

What joints connect the skull to the vertebrae?

A

craniovertebrae joints

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31
Q

What are the 3 types of joint?

A
  1. fibrous
  2. cartilaginous
  3. synovial
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32
Q

What are the 2 sub-types of fibrous joints?

A

a) sutures

b) fibrous sheets

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33
Q

What type of joints are between skull bones?

A

sutures

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34
Q

What is the alternative name for fibrous sheets? (a sub-type of fibrous joints)

A

syndesmoses

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35
Q

What type of joint is the interosseous membrane?

A

fibrous sheet (sub-type of fibrous joints)

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36
Q

What is the interosseous membrane?

A

Joins the radius to the ulna

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37
Q

In descending order, what type of joints have the most mobility?

A

synovial joints
cartilaginous joints
fibrous joints

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38
Q

What are fontanelles?

A

wide sutures in the neonatal skull

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39
Q

What are the 2 sub-types of cartilaginous joints?

A

a) primary cartilaginous joints

b) secondary cartilaginous joints (symphyses)

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40
Q

What are primary cartilaginous joints made out of?

A

hyaline cartilage

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41
Q

What are secondary cartilaginous joints made of?

A

fibrocartilage and hyaline

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42
Q

Where do secondary cartilaginous joints usually occur?

A

midline

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43
Q

What type of joint is the epiphyseal growth plate of a long bone?

A

a primary cartilaginous joint (made of hyaline cartilage) which will ossify once growth is complete

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44
Q

In descending order, what type of joints have the most stability?

A

Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial

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45
Q

What type of joint is an intervertebral disc?

A

Secondary cartilaginous (fibrocartilage)

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46
Q

What do fontanelles allow?

A

allows the growing frontal parietal temporal and occipital bones to slide over each other to make the head smaller in the birth canal (‘moulding’)

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47
Q

What is the epiphysis of a bone?

A

the head of the bone

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48
Q

What is the metaphysis of a bone?

A

the neck of the bone

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49
Q

What are the components of an intervertebral disks?

A
  1. outer: anulus fibrosus 2. inner: nucleus pulposus
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50
Q

What is the anulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disk made out of?

A

fibrocartilage

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51
Q

What is the nucleus pulposus of an intervertebral disk made out of?

A

pulp-like substance

90% water in young people

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52
Q

In a synovial joint, why are the articular surfaces covered in hyaline (articular) cartilage?

A

to make smooth surfaces to reduce friction between bone ends

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53
Q

The fibrous capsule of a synovial joint is made out what 2 parts?

A
  1. superficial strong fibrous layer

2. deeper synovial membrane which secretes synovial fluid

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54
Q

In a synovial joint, what iare the 2 functions of synovial fluid?

A
  1. acts like a cushion against stress

2. provides lubrication and nutrients for the hyaline cartilage

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55
Q

What is the joint cavity of a synovial joint?

A

the space within the fibrous capsule that contains a little synovial fluid

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56
Q

What do ligaments within the synovial joint do?

A

they are fibrous bands which connect bone to bone and strengthen the fibrous capsule

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57
Q

What are tendons?

A

fibrous bands that connect skeletal muscle to bone

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58
Q

What are the 2 types of bursae?

A
  1. synovial fluid-filled extensions of the joint cavity

2. closed sacs of synovial membrane and fluid, seperate from the joint cavity

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59
Q

What special feature of the TMJ improves stability of the joint?

A

the articular disc

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60
Q

What do bursae do?

A

prevent friction during movement

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61
Q

What are the 5 subtypes of synovial joint?

A
  1. pivot joints (>45 degree rotation
  2. ball and socket (multiaxial movement eg circumduction)
  3. plane joints (minimal movement in one plane)
  4. hinge joints (reasonable range of movement in one plane)
  5. biaxial joints (reasonable range of movement in one plane and less in another
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62
Q

What type of joint is involved in shaking your head?

A

pivot joint (synovial)

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63
Q

What type of joint is the hip joint?

A

ball and socket (synovial)

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64
Q

What type of joint is the acromioclavicular joint?

A

plane joint (synovial)

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65
Q

what type of joint is the elbow joint?

A

hinge joint (synovial)

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66
Q

what type of joint is the wrists and ankles?

A

biaxial joints(synovial)

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67
Q

compare the hip joint to the shoulder joint.

A

hip joint has greater stability but lesser mobility than the shoulder joint

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68
Q

what is sublaxation of a joint?

A

reduced area of contact between articular surfaces

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69
Q

what is dislocation of a joint?

A

complete loss of contact between articular surfaces

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70
Q

What 10 joints most commonly dislocate?

A 
craniovertebral joints
TMJs
shoulder joints
acromioclavicular joints
elbow joints
interphalangeal (PIP/DIP)
hip joints
knee joints
pubic symphsis
ankle joints
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71
Q

What happens during pregnancy to the pubic symphysis?

A

softens under the influence of relaxin (a placental hormone)

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72
Q

TMJs are synovial articulation between what?

A

mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of the temporal bone
to
head of the condylar process of the mandible

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73
Q

What happens in dislocation of the TMJ?

A

the head of the condylar process of the mandible becomes stuck ANTERIOR to the articular tubercle of the temporal bone
(patient cant close mouth)

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74
Q

What are arteries around a joint that anastamose to ensure a continued blood supply during all movements of the joint?

A

periarticular arterial anastamoses

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75
Q

What is endochondral ossification of the long bones?

A

when hyaline cartilage at the epiphyseal growth plate ossifies.

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76
Q

What is the diaphysis of a bone?

A

the body

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77
Q

what are the 2 features of the neck of the femur that contribute to an increased incidence of fractures?

A
  1. less compact bones

2. thin/angled structure

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78
Q

What are bones made up of?

A

-an outer cortex which is strong and compact (cortical) bone
[runs the whole way along- hollow cavity in diaphysis]
-an inner medulla which is spongy and porous (trabecular) bone
[only at the epiphysis and metaphysis]

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79
Q

What may be present in the inner medulla of the bone?

A

bone marrow

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80
Q

what is bone marrow the site of?

A

red and white cell production

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81
Q

What is the outer layer of the outer cortex of bone?

A

periosteum

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82
Q

Why is tearing of the periosteum so painful?

A

sensory nerve fibres in the periosteum

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83
Q

When periosteum tears what occurs?

A

periosteum begins to produce new bone cells which form a disorganised lump of cells (callus)

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84
Q

What are the 3 ways bony features can develop?

A
  1. functional (genetic)
  2. an adjacent structure applies a tensile or compressive force upon developing bone
  3. an adjacent structure is developing at the same time (foramen forms)
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85
Q

what is the name of the swelling on the superolateral humerus?

A

greater tubercle of the humerus

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86
Q

What is the name of the bony feature on the lateral side of the distal radius?

A

styloid process of the radius

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87
Q

what is the name of the bony feature on the lateral side of the distal humerus?

A

lateral condyle of the humerous

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88
Q

what is the name of the bony feature present on the medial side of the proximal femur? (just below the metaphysis)

A

lesser trochanter

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89
Q

what is the name of the bony feature present on the lateral side of the proximal femur?

A

greater trochanter

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90
Q

what is the name of the bony feature present on the lateral side of the distal femur?

A

lateral condyle of the femur

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91
Q

what is the name of the bony feature present on the medial side of the distal femur?

A

medial condyle of the femur

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92
Q

what is the name of the bony feature on the medial side of the distal humerus?

A

medial condyle of the humerous

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93
Q

what is an epicondyle?

A

a projection for the condyle with the purpose of providing a surface for muscle or ligament attachment

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94
Q

what is the bony feature of the medial side of the distal tibia?

A

medial malleolus

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95
Q

what is the name of the bony feater on the medial side of the proximal tibia?

A

tibial tuberosity

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96
Q

what are the names of the holes in the skull whiich allow the passing of cranial nerves and blood vessels?

A

foramen

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97
Q

What are the names of the cranial cavity fossae?

A

anterior cranial fossa
middle cranial fossa
posterior cranial fossa

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98
Q

What does the axial skeleton include?

A

bones of the:
skull,
neck (including cervical vertebrae and hyoid bone),
trunk (chest abdomen and back)

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99
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton include?

A 
bones of the:
pectoral girdle
upper limbs
pelvic girdle
lower limb
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100
Q

What articulations does the hyoid bone have?

A

none, it floats in muscle

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101
Q

what is the function of the pectoral girdle?

A

ataches upper limbs to the axial skeleton

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102
Q

what is the function of the pelvic girdle?

A

attaches lower limbs to the axial skeleton

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103
Q

Where is the base of the skull?

A

superior to the orbits to inferior to the ears

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104
Q

what lies inferior to the base of the skull?

A

viscerocranium

bones of the facial skeleton

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105
Q

what lies superior to the base of the skull?

A

neurocranium

bones of the cranial vault

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106
Q

What suture lies between the frontal bone and the parietal bones?

A

coronal suture

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107
Q

what are the 8 bones of the neurocranium?

A 
frontal bone
sphenoid bone
L/R temporal bone
L/R parietal bone
occipital bone
ethmoid bone
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108
Q

what suture lies between the left parietal bone and the right parietal bone?

A

sagittal suture

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109
Q

What bone separates the nasal cavity from the neurocranium and sits between both orbitals?

A

ethmoid bone

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110
Q

What are the bones of the viscerocranium?

A

L/R nasal bone
L/R zygoma (zygomatic arch)
L/R maxilla
L/R mandible

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111
Q

In early childhood the left and right sides of the madible fuse together at what?

A

midline mandible symphysis

previous a cartilaginous joint

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112
Q

Explain Le Fort 1.

A

facial skeleton fracture where teeth separate from upper face

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113
Q

Explain Le Fort 2.

A

facial skeleton fracture where central maxilla is separated from zygomatic areas

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114
Q

Explain Le Fort 3

A

facial skeleton fracture where facial bones are sepatated from the frontal bone (ie viscerocranium separated from the neurocranium at the base of the skull)

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115
Q

describe the vertebral column.

A
  • C1-C7
  • T1-T12
  • L1-L5
  • S1-S5 (fused to form 1 sacrum)
  • C1-C4 (fused to form 1 coccyx)
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116
Q

What areas of the vertebrae flip to form the secondary curvatures?

A

cervical and lumbar

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117
Q

What type of joint do the superior and inferior articular processes of adjacent vertebrae form?

A

synovial facet joint

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118
Q

what does the vertebral arch consist of?

A

pedicle (x2)

lamina (x2)

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119
Q

what is the function of the vertebral arch?

A

protect spinal cord

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120
Q

what is the function of the vertebral foramen?

A

convey and protect the spinal cord

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121
Q

what is the function of the vertebral body?

A

weight bearing

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122
Q

What is different about C1 vertebra? (atlas)

A

no body or spinous process

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123
Q

C2 has stolen C1’s body. What does this form?

A

odontoid process (peg)

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124
Q

what is the first spinous process that can be palpated in the posterior aspect of the neck?

A

C7

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125
Q

what is the name of C7?

A

vertebra prominens

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126
Q

what is the name of C1?

A

atlas

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127
Q

what is the name of C2?

A

axis

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128
Q

What is rib 1 protected by?

A

the clavicle

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129
Q

What costal cartilages are anterior to the pericardial sac?

A

costal cartilages of ribe 2-6

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130
Q

The pericardium is a 3 layer bag, describe the layers?

A
  1. outer fibrous pericardium
  2. serous parietal pericardium
  3. serious visceral pericadium
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131
Q

The heart itself is made of three layers of tissue, what are the three layers?

A

(superficial to deep)

  1. epicardium (visceral serous pericardium)
  2. myocardium (muscular layer)
  3. endocardium (internal lining- continous with the endotherlium of the blood vessels connecting within the heart)
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132
Q

how are the cardiac myoctes arranged?

A

basal and apical spirals (allows the heart to wring itself out when it contracts)

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133
Q

What is the function of the cardiac skeleton?

A

electrical insulator

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134
Q

Describe the 2 main features of cardiac muscle?

A

involuntary and striated

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135
Q

Describe the 2 main features of smooth muscle?

A

involuntary and non-striated

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136
Q

Describe the 2 main features of skeletal muscle?

A

voluntary and striated

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137
Q

What are skeletal muscles made of?

A

many fascicle

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138
Q

What are fascicle made of?

A

many muscle fibre

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139
Q

what are muscle fibres made of?

A

many myofribils

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140
Q

what are myofribils made of?

A

many actin and myosin microfilaments

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141
Q

What are striations in muscle due to?

A

the overlapping of actin and myosin microfilaments of the sarcomere

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142
Q

what are the 5 types of skeletal muscle?

A

flat muscle with aponeurosis, pennate muscles, fusiform muscle, quadrate muscle, circular/sphincteral muscle

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143
Q

what is an aponeurosis?

A

A flat tendon associated most commonly with flat muscle. Attaches muscle to soft tissue instead of bone.

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144
Q

What are the origins and insertion of the biceps brachii?

A

origins: 2 points on the scapula
insrtion: on radius

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145
Q

Where is the biceps brachii muscle?

A

spans the anterior aspect of the shoulder joint

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146
Q

What are the 3 functions of the biceps brachii?

A
  1. flexor of the shoulder
  2. flexor of the elbow
  3. supination of the forearm
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147
Q

What are the origins and the insertion of the deltoid?

A

origin on spine of scapula, acromion process of the scapula, lateral 1/3 clavicle.
insertion on the deltoid tuberosity of the humerous

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148
Q

what movement do the posterior fibres of the deltoid perform?

A

extension of the shoulder

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149
Q

what movement do the middle fibres of the deltoid perform?

A

abduction of the shoulder

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150
Q

what movement do the anterior fibres of the deltoid perform?

A

flexion of the shoulder

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151
Q

where does the head of the humerus articulate?

A

shallow socket of the glenoid fossa of the scapula

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152
Q

what is the bony feature of the ulna that articulates with the humerus?

A

trochlear notch of the proximal ulna

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153
Q

What ligament attaches the patella to the tibial tuberosity?

A

patellar tendon (be carful, not actually a tendon)

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154
Q

for a reflex movement, what is the whole route taken by the action potential called?

A

reflex arc

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155
Q

A muscle without a functioning motor nerve supply is known as?

A

paralysed- reduced tone

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156
Q

what is the tone like for a muscle with functioning motor nerves but non functioning descending controls from the brain?

A

increased tone (muscle is essentially being allowed to over contract continuously)

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157
Q

what can happen to the muscles when a limb is immobilised for a long period of time?

A

atrophy of the muscle

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158
Q

what happens to an atrophied muscle?

A

the individual muscle fibres become smaller, collectively reducing the muscles bulk

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159
Q

What is hypertrophy of a skeletal muscle?

A

each myocyte enlarges

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160
Q

What is hyperplasia of a skeletal muscle?

A

increased number of muscle cells produces.

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161
Q

What are the three muscle compartments of the thigh?

A

anterior, medial and posterior

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162
Q

What are the three muscle compartments of the leg?

A

anterior, posterior and lateral

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163
Q

What are the two muscle compartments of the arm?

A

anterior and posterior

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164
Q

What are the two muscle compartments of the forearme?

A

anterior and posterior

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165
Q

what is the biceps brachii nerve supply?

A

musculocutaneous nerve from the brachial blexus

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166
Q

Where does fertilisation take place?

A

the ampulla of the uterine tube

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167
Q

Which cavity are the ovaries in?

A

pelvic cavity

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168
Q

What is the name of the way into the pelvic cavity from the abdominal cavity?

A

pelvic inlet

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169
Q

What is the name of the way into the perineum from the pelvic cavity?

A

pelvic outlet

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170
Q

What suspends the uterus, uterine tube and ovary from the lateral wall of the pelvic cavity?

A

broad ligament of the uterus

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171
Q

What attaches the uterus to the perineum?

A

round ligament of the uterus

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172
Q

What are the three layers of the wall of the body of the uterus?

A

perimetrium
myometrium
endometrium

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173
Q

What are the female reproductive organs?

A

ovaries

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174
Q

What are the female accessory reproductive organs?

A

uterine tubes, uterus, vagina

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175
Q

What is the name of the part of uterine tube (closest to the ovaries), that forms a funnel?

A

infundibulum

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176
Q

What is the name of the part of the uterine tube closest to the uterus?

A

isthmus

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177
Q

What is the order of the parts of the uterine tube?

as if an egg is going through

A

infundibulum
ampulla
isthmus

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178
Q

The fimbrae which define the end of the uterine tube are in which cavity?

A

peritoneal cavity

179
Q

What is the opening of the uterine tube which opens into the peritoneal cavity?

A

abdominal ostium

180
Q

Where does implantation of the zygote usually occur?

A

body of the uterus

181
Q

What gland is responsible for regulating female hormone production and the development of ova?

A

pituitary gland

182
Q

What do ova develop from?

A

primitive germ cells

183
Q

What pushes the oocyte along the uterine tube?

A

cilia

184
Q

What causes an un-fertilised ovum to be expelled?

A

contractions of the myometrium

185
Q

What can give rise to cramping menstrual pain?

A

contractions of the myometrium

186
Q

What is the name of the process of a fertilised ovum implanting itself outwith the uterine cavity?

A

ectopic pregnancy

187
Q

What is the name of an ectopic pregnancy that occurs within the uterine tube? (97%)

A

tubal pregnancy

188
Q

What is the name of an ectopic pregnancy that occurs within the peritoneal cavity?

A

an abdominal preganancy

189
Q

Why is an ectopic pregnancy a potential emergency?

A

danger of haemorrhage

190
Q

What is the process of female sterilisation?

A

tubal ligation (clipping, cutting or cauterisation of the uterine tubes)

191
Q

What occurs when a STI is spread via the uterus and uterine rubes to the peritoneal cavity?

A

peritonitis

192
Q

What can be a complication of an STI due to damage or occlusion of the uterine tubes?

A

infertility

193
Q

What is the part of the female perineum that is anterior to the pubic bone?

A

mons pubis

194
Q

What are the two areas of the female perineum that are the ‘lips of the vagina?

A

labium majus (more superficial) and labium minus (deeper)

195
Q

What is the name of the external opening into the vagina?

A

vaginal orfice

196
Q

In a male, what is the function of the urethra?

A

passing of urine/ejaculation of sperm

197
Q

What is circumsicion?

A

surgical removal of the prepuce (foreskin/hood)

198
Q

What does the scrotum contain?

A

the testus

199
Q

What is the name of the visible ridge of tissue that extends from the anus through the perineum?

A

perineum raphe

200
Q

What is the name of the section of the perineum raphe that extends through the midline of the penis?

A

penile raphe

201
Q

What is the name of the section of the perineum raphe that extends through the midline of the scrotum?

A

scrotal raphe

202
Q

What can unreducible retraction of the prepuce cause?

A

paraphimosis

constriction of the neck of the glans calling the glands to swell

203
Q

Where is the original position of the testes during fetal development?

A

Posterior wall of the abdominal cavity (they descend to the scrotum)

204
Q

What gland is important in regulating the male hormone production and the development of sperm?

A

pituitary gland

205
Q

How many days do sperm take to develop to full maturity?

A

64 days

206
Q

Why are the testes within the scrotum and not within the body?

A

because spermatogenesis requires a temperature about 1 degree below core body temp

207
Q

What is the name of the muscle in the superficial fascia of the scortum?

A

dartos muscle

208
Q

Why does the dartos muscle contract?

A

to wrinkle/thicken the scrotal skin and reduce the surface area of the scrotum (to maintain correct scrotal lemp in cold conditions)

209
Q

Where do sperm form?

A

in the seminiferous tubules of the testes

210
Q

What is the journey of sperm to the vas deferens?

A

seminiferous tubules
rete testis
epididymis
vas deferens

211
Q

What does the spermatic cord contatin?

A

vas deferens, testicular artery, pampniform venous plexus

212
Q

What is the medical condition when the spermatic cord becomes twisted and disrupts the blood supply to the testis?

A

testicular torsion

213
Q

What can testicular torsion cause?

A

severe pain and testicular necrosis

214
Q

What do the seminal glands produce?

A

seminal fluid

215
Q

What does the prostatic urethra do?

A
  1. drains urine from bladder

2. passes semen in ejaculation

216
Q

Each spermatic cord passes through the anterior abdominal wall within what?

A

the inguinal canal

217
Q

What does the duct from the seminal gland and the vas deferins join to make?

A

ejaculatory duct

218
Q

Where do the right and left ejaculatory ducts open into?

A

prostatic part of the urethra

219
Q

Where is the prostatic part of the urethra?

A

within the prostate gland, immediately inferior to the bladder

220
Q

What are the names of the 3 cylinders of tissue within the body of the penis?

A

Right and left posterior: corpus cavernosum

anterior: corpus spongiusum

221
Q

What is the anterior surface of the penis?

A 
dorsal surface
(anatomical position, penis is pointing up)
222
Q

What do the 2 cylinders of corpus cavernosum transmit?

A

the deep arteries of the penis

223
Q

What does the cylinder of corpus spongiosum transmit?

A

the penile urethra

224
Q

What does the corpus spongiosum expand distally to form?

A

the glans

225
Q

In a male where does the urethra open at?

A

the external urethral meatus of the penis

226
Q

What are the male reproductive organs?

A

testes

227
Q

What are the male accessory reproductive organs?

A

vas deferens, seminal glands, prostate gland and penis

228
Q

What is the medical name for male sterilisation?

A

vasectomy

229
Q

What does the upper respiratory tract contain?

A

R/L nasal cavities
Oral cavity
Pharynx
Larynx

230
Q

What does the lower respiratory tract contain?

A 
trachea
R/L main bronchus
lobar bronchi
segmental bronchi
bronchioles
alveoli
231
Q

what is the name of the process by which cilia beat to sweep the mucous (and any foreign bodies stuck in the mucous) superiorly towards the pharynx to be swallowed?

A

mucociliary escalator

232
Q

what 2 things interfere with the normal beating of cilia?

A
  1. cooling/drying of the mucosa

2. toxins in cigarette smoke

233
Q

What supports the walls of the trachea and bronchi?

A

hyaline cartilage

234
Q

What is the function of the hyaline cartilage?

A

maintains patency of the airway

235
Q

As you move down the airway what happens to the cartilage?

A

gradually reduces

236
Q

as you move down the airway what happens to the smooth muscle?

A

becomes more prominent

237
Q

What does smooth muscle allow the bronchioles to do?

A

constrict and dilate

238
Q

What part of the airway has no cartilage or smooth muscle?

A

alveoli

239
Q

what facilitates gasous diffusion in the alveolar capillaries?

A

tissue fluid

240
Q

What 3 things does asthma cause?

A
  1. constriction of bronchiles
  2. swelling of the mucosa lining
  3. overproduction of mucous
241
Q

The bony posterior part of the nasal septum consists of what bones?

A

ethmoid (superiorly)

vomer (inferiorly

242
Q

The cardilaginous inferior part of the nasal septum contains what?

A

hyaline cartilage

243
Q

What is the floor of the nasal cavity formed by?

A

palate

244
Q

What cartilages are contained within the larynx?

A

epiglottits
thyroid cartilage
cricoid cartilage
2 arytenoid cartilages

245
Q

What are the 3 functions of the larynx?

A
  1. cartilages help maintain the patency of the URT
  2. helps prevent foreign bodies entering the LRT (vocal cords)
  3. produced sounds (vocal cords)
246
Q

What is the name of the entrance to the larynx?

A

laryngeal inlet

247
Q

What is the narrowest part of the larynx?

A

rima glottidis

248
Q

What are the 2 types of voice production?

A

phonation (producing sound)

articulation (producing speech)

249
Q

What are the 2 main dangers in the airways?

A
  1. cooling and drying out (damages the mucociliary escalator- predisposing to infection)
  2. breathing in infected foreign bodies ( causes infection)
250
Q

How is warmth provided to the air we breathe in? (preventing cooling)

A

good arterial blood supply within the respiratory mucosa

251
Q

What are the long, narrow curled protrusions of bone into the nasal cavity?

A

the conchae

superior, middle and inferior conchae

252
Q

What is the function of the conchae?

A
  1. greatly increase surface area of the lateral walls of the nasal cavities
  2. produce turbulent flow bringing the air into contact with the walls
253
Q

What are the 3 parts of the pharynx?

A
  1. nasopharyns (posterior to the nasal cavities)
  2. oropharynx (posterior to the oral cavity)
  3. laryngopharynx (posterior to the larynx)
254
Q

What membrane is between the thyroid cartilage and the cricoid cartilage?

A

cricothyroid membrane

255
Q

What part of the GI tract is within the head?

A

oral cavity and pharynx

256
Q

What part of the GI tract is within the neck?

A

pharynx and oesophagus

257
Q

What part of the GI tract is within the chest?

A

oesophagus

258
Q

What part of the GI tract is within the abdomen?

A

stomach, small intestine, large intestine

most of the acessory organs

259
Q

What part of the GI tract is within the pelvis?

A

rectum and anal canal

260
Q

What part of the GI tract is within the perineum?

A

anus

261
Q

What is the name for things being inhaled into the respiratory tract?

A

aspiration

262
Q

What are the muscles of mastication?

A

jaw closing: masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid

jaw opening: lateral pteryogoid

263
Q

What skeletal muscles voluntarily contact and pull the facial skin into expressions?

A

muscles of the facial expression

264
Q

What muscle is circularly arranged around the lips and produces an anterior oral seal that prevents dribbling?

A

orbicularis oris

265
Q

What is the mucosa of the oral cavity made of?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

266
Q

where in the oral cavity is surface keratin found?

A

gingivae and the hard palate

267
Q

how many types of papilla are there on the dorsum of the tongue and what are there names?

A 
4:
foliate papillae
vallate papillae
fungiform papillae
filiform papillae
268
Q

whats are the 2 functions that the different types of papilla can perform?

A
  1. provide surface texture (to help the tongue manipulate food)
  2. special sense of taste
269
Q

Where is the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue located?

A

oral cavity

270
Q

Where is the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue located?

A

oropharynx

271
Q

What 3 types of papilla are involved with taste?

A

foliate papillae
vallate papillae
fungigorm papillae

272
Q

what 1 type of papilla is involved with touch and temperature?

A

filiform

273
Q

What is the muscle of the cheek?

A

buccinator

274
Q

What is the function of the buccinator?

A

helps to position the food bolus between the occlusal surfaces of the teeth for mastication

275
Q

how many teeth does an adult have?

A

32 (all should be erupted by age 18)

276
Q

what are the teeth of type 1 and 2?

A

incisors

277
Q

what are the of type teeth 3?

A

canines

278
Q

what are the teeth of type 4 and 5?

A

premolars

279
Q

what are the teeth of type 6, 7 and 8

A

molars (8 = wisdom teeth)

280
Q

what stimulates salivating?

A
  1. thought, sight, small of food
  2. prescence of food in mouth
  3. painful oral conditions eg teething or fractured mandible
281
Q

what is the pharynx lined with?

A

non-keratinised statisfied squamous epithelium

282
Q

what type of muscle is inthe pharynx?

A

skeletal

283
Q

what is the name of the ring of tonsils that provide defence against invading pathogens in the pharynx/

A

waldeyers ring of tonsils

284
Q

what guides the food bolus away from the midline laryngeal inlet?

A

the uvula of the soft palate

285
Q

what is the oesophagus lined with?

A

non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

286
Q

What is the function of the outer longitudinal layer of smooth muscle in the small intestine?

A

shortens the tube

287
Q

What is the function of the inner circular layer of smooth muscle in the small intestine?

A

constricts the diameter (peristaltic wave)

288
Q

what is contained within mesenteries?

A

arteries, veins, nerves, lymphatics

289
Q

the aorta passes through the diaphragm and enters where?

A

the retroperitoneum

290
Q

what are the 3 midline branches of the abdominal aorta? (superior to inferior)

A
  1. celiac trunk
  2. SMA
  3. IMA
291
Q

where do foregut structures drain their lymph?

A

via nodes located along the splenic artery towards celiac nodes (located around the origin of the celiac trunk)

292
Q

where do midgut structures drain their lymph?

A

via nodes located around the SMA towards the SM nodes (located around the origin of the SMA)

293
Q

where do hind gut structures drain their lymph?

A

via nodes located along the IMA towards the IM nodes (located around the origin of the IMA)

294
Q

What is the body’s response to an obstruction?

A

increased peristalsis proximal ot the obstruction

295
Q

what are endocrine glands responsible for manufacaturing, storing and releasing?

A

at least one type of hormone

296
Q

hormones are involved in regulating what 4 things?

A
  1. metabolism
  2. growth
  3. reproductive function
  4. bodies response to physiological stress
297
Q

endocrine gland tumours can affect hormone production in what 2 ways?

A
  1. functioning (too much hormone secreted)

2. non-functioning (too little hormone secreted)

298
Q

What are the main endocrine glands in the head?

A

hypothalamus and the pituitary gland (hypophysis)

299
Q

What are the main endocrine glands in the neck?

A

4 parathyroid glands and the thyroid gland

300
Q

what are the main endocrine glands in the abdomen?

A

2 adrenal glands (suprarenal) and the pancreas

301
Q

what are the main endocrine glands in the pelvis?

A

2 ovaries

302
Q

what are the main endocrine glands in the perineum?

A

2 testes

303
Q

What is the diencephalon made of?

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

304
Q

What connections does the diencephalon have?

A

connecions with right and left cerebral hemispheres and the midbrain

305
Q

what foramen in the brain transmits the spinal cord?

A

foramen magnum

306
Q

what do the right and left temporal bones contain?

A

the organs of hearing and balance

307
Q

whay connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland?

A

infundibulum (pituitary stalk)

308
Q

What are the 2 parts of the pituitary gland?

A

anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary

309
Q

What passes from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland in the infundibulum?

A

axons of the hypothalamic neurones

310
Q

What 2 hormones do the hypothalamic neurones manufacture and transport to the posterior pituitary?

A

oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH)

311
Q

What is the name of the cytoplasm of the axons?

A

axoplasm

312
Q

How are the hormones transported from the hypothalmic neurones to the posterior pituitary?

A

axoplasmic transport within the axoplasm

313
Q

What type of hormones that target the anterior pituitary gland are secreted by the hypothalamic neurones?

A

releasing hormones

release-inhibiting hormones

314
Q

What effect do hypothalamic releasing hormones have?

A

stimulate the anterior pituitary to release its hormones into the bloodstream

315
Q

What effect do hypothalamic release-inhibiting hormones have?

A

prevent the anterior pituitary gland releasing hormones into the bloodstream

316
Q

What 6 hormones does the anterior pituitary release?

A
  1. growth hormone (GH)
  2. prolactin
  3. thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
  4. adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
  5. lutenising hormone (LH)
  6. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
317
Q

Where do the hypothalamic neurones secrete the releasing hormones or release-inhibiting hormones?

A

into the hypophyseal portal system

318
Q

what does the hypophyseal portal system do?

A
  1. drains venous blood from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary capillary beds (this blood contains the release or release-inhibiting hormones)
  2. drains venous blood from the anterior pituitary to the hypophyseal veins and eventually the SVC (this blood contains anterior pituitary hormones)
319
Q

what is a portal system?

A

when a capillary bed lies between 2 sets of veins

320
Q

what are the 2 portal systems in the body?

A
  1. hepatic portal system

2. hypophyseal portal system

321
Q

What do the anterior pituitary hormones do?

A

control the output of hormones from many other endocrine glands

322
Q

What connects the left and right lobe of the thyroid gland?

A

the isthmus of the thyroid gland

323
Q

What are the 2 thyroid hormones?

A

triiodothyonine (T3)
[we cannot live without this]
thyroxine (T4)

324
Q

what is an important element in the manufacture of the 2 thyroid hormones?

A

iodine

325
Q

what can happen to the thyroid gland if there is a dietary lack of iodine?

A

enlarge/swollen thyroid gland

goitre

326
Q

What hormones do the 4 parathyroid glands manufacture and secrete?

A

PTH (parathyroid hormone)

[we cannot live without this]

327
Q

What is special about PTH?

A

not under pituitary control

the gland monitors blood Ca2+ and responds directly

328
Q

What does PTH do?

A

control the amount of calcium in blood and bone

329
Q

where are the 4 parathyroid glands located?

A

on the posterior surfaces of the thyroid glands lobes

330
Q

What is the blood supply to the thyroid and parathyroid glands?

A

the right and left inferior thyroid atery,

the right and left superior thyroid artery

331
Q

What drains the thyroid and parathyroid glands?

A

R/L superior, middle, inferior thyroid veins

then to the internal jugular veins

332
Q

What is special about the endocrine pancreas?

A

not under pituitary control

333
Q

what hormones are produced in the adrenal cortex?

A

glucocorticoids (pituitary ATCH control)
mineralcorticoids
androgens

334
Q

what hormones are produced in the adrenal medulla?

A

adrenaline

noradrenaline

335
Q

what do glucocorticoids control?

A

metabolism

336
Q

what do mineralcorticoids control?

A

BP

337
Q

what 3 arteries supply each adrenal gland?

A

R/L superior suprarenal artery (branch of the inferior phrenic artery);
R/L middle suprarenal artery (branch of the abdominal aorta);
R/L interior suprarenal artery (branch of the renal artery)

338
Q

what are the 3 paired branches of the abdominal aorta?

A

adrenal arteries, renal arteries gonadal arteries

339
Q

What is the venous drainage of the adrenal glands?

A

right suprarenal vein into the IVC directly

left surarenal vein drains ino the left renal vein

340
Q

The testes secretes testosterone in response to what?

A

LH from the anterior pituitary

341
Q

the ovaries secrete oestrogen and progesterone in response to what?

A

FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary

342
Q

What is the venous drainage of the gonads?

A

the right gonadal vein drains directly into the IVC

the left gonadla vein drains into the left renal vein

343
Q

what 3 functions do testosterone and oestrogen have?

A
  1. control development of secondary sexual characteristics
  2. promote closure of the epiphyseal growth plates
  3. stimulate sperm or ovum development
344
Q

what is the function of progesterone?

A

prepares the uterus for pregnancy

345
Q

in the CNS a group of nerve cell bodies is called what?

A

nucleus

346
Q

in the PNS a group of nerve cell bodies is called what?

A

ganglion

347
Q

What is the function of the myelin sheath?

A

acts as an electrical insulater and therefore the nerve conducts action potentials faster

348
Q

What is a bundle of axons wrapped up in connective tissue, travelling together to/from the same region of the body or structure called?

A

a peripheral nerve

349
Q

At a synapse what happens to the AP?

A

AP (electrical signal) becomes a neurotransmitter (chemical signal) and then back to an AP again

350
Q

what is the name of the outermost layer of the cerbral hemispheres (consisting of all the gyri and sulci)?

A

cerebral neocortex (cortex)

351
Q

how many lobes of each cerebral hemisphere are there? (and name them)

A 
4:
frontal lobe
parietal lobe
temporal lobe
occipital lobe
352
Q

what separates the 2 cerebral hemispheres sagitally?

A

longituidinal fissure

353
Q

Name CN I and its foramen?

A

olfactory nerve

cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone

354
Q

Name CN II and its foramen?

A

optic nerve optic canal

355
Q

Name CN III and its foramen?

A

oculomotor nerve

superior orbital fissure

356
Q

Name CN IV and its foramen?

A

trochlear nerve

superior orbital fisure

357
Q

Name CN V and its foramen?

A

trigeminal nerve
V1 (ophthalmic branch)- superior orbital fissure
V2 (maxillary branch)- foramen rotundum
V3 (mandibular branch)- foramen ovale

358
Q

Name CN VI and its foramen?

A

abducent nerve

superior orbital fissure

359
Q

Name CN VII and its foramen?

A

facial nerve

internal acoustic meatus and stylomastoid foramen

360
Q

Name CN VIII and its foramen?

A

vestibulocochlear nerve

internal acoustic meatus

361
Q

Name CN IX and its foramen?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

jugular foramen

362
Q

Name CN X and its foramen?

A

vagus nerve

jugular foramen

363
Q

Name CN XI and its foramen?

A

spinal accessory nerve

jugular foramen

364
Q

Name CN XII and its foramen?

A

Hypoglossal nerve

hypoglossal canal

365
Q

What is the name of pathology in the jugular foramen affecting CN IX, X and XI?

A

jugular foramen syndrome

366
Q

Where in the brain is grey matter located?

A

superficially

367
Q

Where in the brain is white matter located?

A

deep to the grey matter

368
Q

What does grey matter contain?

A

cell bodies

369
Q

What does white matter contain?

A

axons (the myelination gives the whiter appearance)

370
Q

Where in the spinal cord is grey matter located?

A

deep to the white matter

371
Q

Where in the spinal cord is white matter located?

A

superficially

372
Q

in which cranial bone is the foramen magnum?

A

occipital bone

373
Q

Where are the 2 enlargements of the spinal cord?

A

cervical (due to upper limb nerves)

lumbosacral (due to lover limb nerves)

374
Q

Where does the solid structure of the spinal cord end?

A

conus medullaris (L1/L2 intervertebral disc level)

375
Q

what is inferior to the conus medullaris?

A

cauda equina

376
Q

Where are the spinal nerves located?

A

in the intervertebral foramens

377
Q

What connects the spinal nerve to the spinal cord?

A

the roots and rootlets

378
Q

What connects the spinal nerve to the structures of the body wall (soma)?

A

anterior and posterior rami

379
Q

what rami supply the limbs?

A

anterior rami via plexi

380
Q

What spinal nerves supply the upper limbs?

A

C5-T1 anterior rami

Forms the R/L brachial plexus

381
Q

What spinal nerves supply the lower limbs?

A

L1-L4 anterior rami (R/L lumbar plexus)

L5-S4 anterior rami (R/L sacral plexus) [also supplys pelvis/perineum]

382
Q

What spinal fibres supply the neck wall?

A

C1-C4 anterior rami (R/L cervical plexus)

383
Q

What spinal nerves supply the R/L musculocutaneous nerve?

A

C5 and C6 anterior rami

384
Q

what are the 5 named nerves of the brachial plexus?

A 
axillary nerve
median nerve
musculocutaneous nerve
radial nerve
ulnar nerve
385
Q

What vertebral bodies have lateral horns? (and therefore can have sympathetic fibres pass through)

A

T1-L2

386
Q

what cranial nerves contain parasympathetic axons?

A

III, VII, IX, X

387
Q

what is it called when arteries, veins and nerves run together in the same bundle?

A

neurovascular bundle

388
Q

What are the 2 functions of the elastic fibres which are present in the largest, most proximal arteries?

A
  1. permit expansion of the aorta to accommodate the blood forced into it during systole
  2. the elastic recoil help to maintain blood pressure during diastole
389
Q

what is the name of the background, low level contraction of arteriolar smooth muscle?

A

sympathetic tone

390
Q

How does sympathetic tone occur?

A

tonic conduction of action potentials

391
Q

what are the 3 things in the body wall that sympathetic fibres supply?

A
  1. skin sweat glands
  2. skin arrector muscles
  3. all arterioles
392
Q

What are the 2 branches of the ascending aorta?

A

R/L coronary arteries

393
Q

what are the 3 branches of the arch of the aorta?

A

brachiocephalic artery, left common carotid artery, left subclavian artery

394
Q

what does the brachiocephalic artery bifurcate into?

A

the right common carotid artery and the right subclavian artery

395
Q

What is the route of the right vertebral artery?

A

starts at the right subclavian artery, passes through the transverse foraminae in cervical vertebrae, enters cranial cavity through foramen magnum

396
Q

What is the anastamosis on the inferior aspect of the inferior aspect of the brain?

A

the circle of willis

made of the R/L internal carotids and the basilar artery

397
Q

when the right and left vertebral arteries go through the foramen magnum they join to form what artery?

A

the basilar artery

398
Q

What is the dilated, most proximal part of the internal carotid artery?

A

the carotid sinus

399
Q

At what level is the carotid sinus?

A

level of the superior border of the thyroid cartilage

400
Q

What is the carotid sinus and the carotid body innervated by?

A

CN IX

401
Q

What is the function of the carotid sinus?

A

detects stretch in the walls to detect beat to beat changes in arterial BP

402
Q

Where is the carotid body?

A

at the exact point of bifurcation of the internal and external carotid arteries

403
Q

what does the carotid body do?

A

monitors blood gas levels/pH

404
Q

what type of junctions are between the brain capillary endothelial cells?

A

tight junctions

405
Q

as well as endothelial cells, what other cells surround the brain capillaries?

A

astrocytes (support cells)

406
Q

What do astrocytes and tight junctions in the brain capillaries achieve?

A

prevent diffusion of some substances

407
Q

What can weaken the blood-brain barrier?

A

brain injury, inflammation and neoplasia

408
Q

What is the advantage of the Circle of Willis?

A

alternative routes during an arterial occlusion (prevents CVAs)

409
Q

What is the disadvantage of the Circle of Willis?

A

bleeds will occu from both sides of a cut- so haemorrhages will be worse

410
Q

what is the name of the arterial blood supply to an area of the body where there are no collaterals?

A

end artery

411
Q

Describe the change of name of the subclavian artery.

A

subclavian- axillay- brachial- then bifurcation into radial artery and ulnar artery

412
Q

describe the 2 sets of veins.

A

superficial veins run in the superficial fascia (drain into deep veins)
deep veins are larger and run deep to the deep fascia

413
Q

where does the right lymphatic duct drain lymph to?

A

right venous angle

414
Q

where does the thoracic duct drain lymph to?

A

left venous angle

415
Q

What are the 7 key functions of the kidneys?

A
  1. bood pH control
  2. water balance
  3. electrolyte balance
  4. blood pressure control
  5. metabolism of waste products and drugs
  6. stimulates RBC production
  7. required for absorption of calcium
416
Q

describe the passage of urine?

A

kidney
ureter
bladder
urethra

417
Q

What is the function of the kidney?

A

produces urine

418
Q

what is the function of the ureter?

A

drains urine from kidney to bladder

419
Q

what is the function of the bladder?

A

stores/voids urine

420
Q

what is the function of the urethra?

A

excretion of urine (and semen in the male)

421
Q

What is the ureter to the upper urethra lined with?

A

transitional epithelium (urothelium)

422
Q

what is the distal urethra lined with?

A

protective stratified squamous epitheliume

423
Q

what ribs protect the kidneys?

A

ribs 11/12

424
Q

why does the right kidney lie slightly inferiorly to the left kidney?

A

the size of the liver

425
Q

from the visceral peritoneum describe the layers to the kidney. (anterior to posteriorly)

A 
visceral peritoneum
paranephric fat
renal (deep) fascia
perinephric fat
renal capsule
426
Q

what is the blood supply to the ureters?

A

multiple arterial branches from the renal arteries, the gonadal arteries, and the aorta

427
Q

how many renal segments are there?

A

5 segments per kidney

428
Q

what does a kidney consist of?

A

an outer cortex and an inner medulla

429
Q

describe the drainage of urine from a nephron collecting duct?

A 
nephron collecting duct
minor calyx
major calyx
renal pelvis
ureter
430
Q

What happens at the pelviureteric junction?

A

the wider renal pelvis constricts and becomes a narrower ureter

431
Q

where are the nephrons situated?

A

in the renal pyramids in the medulla

432
Q

what are the 3 sites of uretic constriction?

A
  1. pelviureteric junction
  2. ureter crossing the anterior aspect of the common iliac artery
  3. ureteric orfice
433
Q

what is the opening on the posterior surface of the bladder that the ureter goes through?

A

ureteric orfice

434
Q

what can a renal calculus cause?

A

renal colic

435
Q

what is the trigone of the floor of the bladder made of?

A

3 points
R/L ureteric orfice
urethral orfice

436
Q

what smooth muscle is within the walls of the bladder?

A

detrusor muscle

437
Q

why does the detrusor contract?

A

to void during micturition

438
Q

What encircles the bladder neck in males?

A

internal urethral sphincter (involuntary)
made of detrusor muscle fibres
(prevents ejaculatory reflux)

439
Q

why do detrusor muscle fibres encircle the ureteric orfices like a sphincter?

A

to prevent reflux of urine into the ureters during micturition

440
Q

what can enlargment of the prostate gland cause?

A

obstruction of the prostatic urethra leading to urinary retention

441
Q

where is the external urethral sphincter?

A

around the urethra

in males just inferior to the prostate gland

442
Q

what type of function does the external urethral sphincter have?

A

voluntary

443
Q

compare the female urethra to the male urethra?

A

femal urethra is much shorter

444
Q

what can urinary tract obstruction cause?

A

back pressure causing the urinary tract pressure to exceed the pressures favouring filtration at the glomerulus- renal failure

Principles (8 decks)

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