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9/4/23 > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells release renin ?

A

Granular cells

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2
Q

Which cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus are responsible for sensing the concentration of sodium chloride in the distal convoluted tubule?

A

Macula densa cells

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3
Q

Central diabetes insipidus - low or high volumes of urine ?

A

Impaired ADH production = low ADH in posterior pituitary gland
Low ADH = low water reabsorption back into the body
therefore high volume of low osmolality urine is produced

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4
Q

Central diabetes insipidus diagnostic test ?

A

Low osmolality following water deprivation test shows DI
High osmolality following desmopressin shows central diabetes insipidus

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5
Q

Difference between central and nephrogenic DI with regards to ADH ?

A

Central = ADH deficiency
Nephrogenic = impaired ability to detect ADH

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6
Q

Does dehydration stimulate or inhibit the RAAS ?

A

Stimulates it

because dehydration decreases BP

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7
Q

Where does most glucose get reabsorbed ?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

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8
Q

What is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule ?

A

65% of sodium and water, as well as almost all glucose, amino acids, bicarbonate and phosphate

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9
Q

Why is creatinine clearance a good measure of kidney function ?

A

Creatinine is freely filtered at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed

therefore creatinine clearance rate is reflective of how well the kidney is working

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10
Q

Loss of outer third of eyebrow - what condition ?

A

Hypothyroidism

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11
Q

Heat intolerance - hypo or hyper ?

A

Hyperthyroidism

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12
Q

How does Vitamin D increase calcium levels ?

A

Increases intestinal calcium reabsorption

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13
Q

Iodine deficiency - what effect on thyroid levels ?

A

Hypothyroidism

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14
Q

Amiodarone - what effect on thyroid levels ?

A

Iodine toxicity which causes hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism

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15
Q

Conn’s syndrome - effects on potassium and BP

A

Hypokalaemia + high BP unaffected by BP medications

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16
Q

Most common cause of hypoparathyroidism ?

A

Damage during thyroid surgery

ACCIDENTAL PARATHYROIDECTOMY

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17
Q

Hypoparathyroidism electrolyte abnormality

A

Hypocalcaemia

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18
Q

How does DKA show on ABG ?

A

Metabolic acidosis

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19
Q

Where is ACTH produced ?

A

Anterior pituitary

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20
Q

ACTH deficiency = what condition ?

A

Secondary adrenal insufficiency

low ACTH leads to low adrenal activity

21
Q

Low cortisol = what condition ?

A

Addison’s disease

low cortisol production directly from adrenal glands
- primary adrenal insufficiency

22
Q

Prolactinoma causes what symptoms in females ?

A

Amenorrhoea
Galactorrhoea
Painful intercourse due to vaginal dryness
Acne and excessive body and facial hair growth

23
Q

Prolactinoma causes what symptoms in males ?

A

Erectile dysfunction
Decreased body and facial hair
Smaller muscles
Gynaecomastia

24
Q

What area does emphysema affect ?

A

Alveolar sacs

25
Q

Most common bacterial cause of community-acquired pneumonia

A

Strep. pneumoniae

26
Q

Most common viral cause of community-acquired pneumonia

A

Haemophilus influenzae type A

27
Q

Action of surfactant ?

A

Decreases surface tension therefore increases lung compliance

28
Q

Lung compliance = elasticity

What effect does pulmonary fibrosis have on lung compliance ?

A

Decreased

29
Q

What effect does emphysema have on lung compliance ?

A

Increased

30
Q

Where in the brain is the respiratory centre ?

A

Medulla oblongata and pons, in the brainstem

31
Q

What cells secrete surfactant ?

A

Type II pneumocytes

32
Q

Where is the clavicle most likely to fracture ?

A

Middle third

33
Q

Which nerves exit the skull via the internal acoustic meatus ?

A

Facial and glossopharyngeal nerves (CN 7 + 8)

34
Q

Where does the olfactory nerve pass through the skull ?

A

Cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

35
Q

Difficulty turning his neck and shrugging his shoulders after surgery - which nerve affected ?

A

Accessory nerve - innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

36
Q

Which nerves pass through the cavernous sinus ?

A

CN III, IV, V, VI

results in worsening fever, headache, periorbital swelling and ophthalmoplegia + associated with infections of the face and sinuses e.g. orbital cellulitis

37
Q

Which are the ‘floating ribs’ ?

A

11 and 12 - do not articulate with the sternum

38
Q

What part of the colon is the appendix attached to ?

A

Caecum

39
Q

Where in the nephron does the majority of glucose reabsorption take place?

A

PCT

40
Q

What does the coeliac artery/trunk supply ?

A

Foregut

Branches into 3 arteries: 1. Left gastric artery 2. Splenic artery 3. Common hepatic artery

Branches into the left gastric artery (supplies stomach), the splenic artery (supplies spleen, stomach, pancreas), and the common hepatic artery (which supplies the liver, stomach, gall bladder, duodenum, pancreas).

41
Q

What does the SMA supply ?

A

Midgut

Distal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, caecum, appendix, ascending colon and proximal two thirds of the transverse colon.

42
Q

What does the IMA supply ?

A

Hindgut (final 1/3 of large intestine)

43
Q

How does pancreatic cancer cause painless jaundice ?

A

Common bile duct is compressed as it passes through the head of the pancreas

44
Q

What vertebral level do the renal arteries arise from ?

A

L1-L2

45
Q

What is the name of the opening in the omental bursa between the greater and lesser sac of the abdominal cavity.

A

Epiploic foramen (Foramen of Winslow)

46
Q

Name for the mesentery that lies between the hepatic and splenic flexures

A

Transverse mesocolon

47
Q

Right lung has 3 lobes - Upper and middle lobe are separated by _______ ?

A

Horizontal fissure

48
Q

Left lung lobes (upper and lower) are separated by _______ ?

A

Oblique fissure

49
Q

Right lung has 3 lobes - Middle and lower are separated by _______?

A

Oblique fissure

9/4/23 (4 decks)

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