Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

cardiac muscle contraction

A

In the resting state, there is more Na+ and Ca++ outside the cell and more K+ inside the cell

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2
Q

frank-starling law

A

cardiac output= venous return

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3
Q

anterior pituitary gland secretions

A
ACTH= synthesis of cortisol
FSH= stimulates follicles in ovaries to produce estrogen, stimulate Sertoli cells for spermatogenesis
LH= stimulates ovulation, progesterone, Leydig cells to produce testosterone
GH= bone and tissue growth
TSH= stimulates the thyroid to produce thyroxin
Prolactin= breast development and milk
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4
Q

posterior pituitary gland secretions

A

oxytocin (paraventricular nucleus)= contraction of uterine muscle, milk ejection
ADH (supraoptic nucleus)= collecting ducts of kidney, prevents water from being excreted in the urine (water reabsorption by kidneys)

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5
Q

thyroid gland

A
T4= increase metabolism and is less active than T3
T3= increase metabolism and is more active than T4
calcitonin= puts calcium from the blood into bones
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6
Q

parathyroid gland

A

PTH= secreted by chief cells takes calcium from the bone and puts it into the blood, increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidney and gut
production of calcitriol (active form of vitamin D) which causes an increase in absorption of dietary calcium by the intestines

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7
Q

Cushing’s

A

increased ACTH or cortisol

moon-shaped face, buffalo hump, rapid weight gain, and hair loss

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8
Q

gigantism and acromegaly

A

increased GH

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9
Q

dwarfism

A

decreased GH

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10
Q

hypothyroidism

A

lack of iodine= decreased thyroxin produced (T3/T4), hyper-secretion of TSH, enlarged thyroid (goiter)

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11
Q

hyperthyroidism (graves)

A
increased thyroxin (T3/T4), decreased TSH
antibodies overstimulate the follicle cells of the thyroid gland, may present with bulging eyes
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12
Q

diabetes insipidus

A

decreased ADH

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13
Q

hyperparathyroidism

A

hypercalcemia from increased PTH, muscle fatigue

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14
Q

hypoparathyroidism

A

hypocalcemia from decreased PTH, tetany (cramping, spasms, convulsions, twitching)

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15
Q

adrenal gland

A

aldosterone= increases blood sodium levels (under influence of renin)
cortisol= increases blood glucose levels
epinephrine and nor-epinephrine (stimulates fight or flight)

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16
Q

zona glomerulosa

A

releases aldosterone

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17
Q

zona reticularis

A

estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone (sex hormones)

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18
Q

pancreas endocrine cells

A

islets of langerhans

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19
Q

pancreas - insulin

A

insulin is secreted by beta type of islet cells, reduce blood glucose levels

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20
Q

pancreas - glucagon

A

alpha cells, increase blood glucose levels

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21
Q

pancreas - somatostatin

A

delta islet cells and D cells (stomach), inhibits renin, insulin, GH, gastrin and glucagon

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22
Q

Mouth - salivary amylase

A

breaks down carbohydrates and starches into maltose

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23
Q

stomach - mucosal cells

A

g cells produce gastrin

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24
Q

stomach - chief cells

A

produce pepsinogen (protein digestion), gastrin

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25
Q

stomach - parietal cells

A

secretes HCL

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26
Q

small intestine

A
maltase= breaks down maltose into 2 glucose
lactase= breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose
sucrase= breaks down sucrose into glucose and fructose
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27
Q

where is most of the water in food absorbed

A

large intestine

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28
Q

where is vitamin K produced

A

large intestine

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29
Q

where are iron and folic acid absorbed

A

jejunum

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30
Q

Vitamin B12

A

attached to intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells in the stomach and delivered to the terminal ileum

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31
Q

what controls the gallbladder

A

cholecystokinin, causes contraction of the gallbladder

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32
Q

what produces cholecystokinin

A

I cells in the small intestine

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33
Q

what produces secretin

A

s cells in the crypts of lieberkuhn (small intestine), stimulates the release of bicarb from the pancreas

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34
Q

what produces glucagon-like peptide 1

A

k cells in the duodenum and jejunum, inhibits gastric emptying

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35
Q

where is ghrelin secreted

A

p cells in the stomach

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36
Q

where is motilin secreted

A

cells in duodenum

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37
Q

B cells

A

the adaptive immune system, bind to the foreign antigen to initiate an antibody response

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38
Q

T cells

A

cell-mediated immunity, a type of WBC that works with macrophages to fight viruses and pathogens

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39
Q

Never let my engine blow

Biting vines make pain happen

A
Neutrophils= bacterial infections
lymphocytes= viral
Monocytes= macrophage
Eosinophils= parasitic infection
Basophils= hypersensitivity of allergies
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40
Q

granulocytes

A

Basophils, E, N

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41
Q

agranulocytes

A

L, M

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42
Q

vascular damage activates what intrinsic pathway

A

XII, XI, IX, VIII, and X

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43
Q

tissue damages activates what extrinsic pathway

A

VII and X

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44
Q

B lymphocytes

A

humoral immunity

bone marrow

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45
Q

T lymphocytes

A

thymus, through production of activated T lymphocytes

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46
Q

CD8 T cells

A

cytotoxic t cells, kill things

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47
Q

CD4 T cells

A

helper t cells

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48
Q

IgG

A

secondary response (most abundant)

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49
Q

IgA

A

saliva, tears, breast milk

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50
Q

IgM

A

primary response, first in the fetus

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51
Q

IgD

A

surface antibody on B lymphocytes

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52
Q

IgE

A

parasitic infections and allergies

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53
Q

which bands shorten in skeletal muscle contractions

A

Z lines move closer together

I band becomes smaller

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54
Q

which band remains the same length in skeletal muscle contractions

A

A band

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55
Q

what do thick filaments contain

A

myosin

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56
Q

what do thin filaments contain

A

actin, troponin, and tropomyosin

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57
Q

pineal gland

A

melatonin produced from pinealocyte cells= regulates sleep cycle
tryptophan–> serotonin–> melatonin
controlled by light, high levels of light inhibit melatonin production, low levels of light increase melatonin production

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58
Q

testes

A
testosterone= stimulates the development of male secondary sex characteristics and sperm production
inhibin= inhibits FSH which stimulates spermatogenesis
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59
Q

ovaries

A
estrogen= stimulates the development of female secondary sex characteristics, menstrual cycle
progesterone= menstrual cycle, prepares the body for childbirth and maintaining pregnancy
60
Q

zona fasciculata

A

releases cortisol

61
Q

Addison’s disease

A

low levels of corticosteroids from the adrenal gland, resulting in low blood glucose and sodium
s/s= weight loss, bronzing of the skin, abdominal pain, cravings for salty food, weakness, nausea, vomiting, sweating

62
Q

Pancreas, islets of langerhan produce what

A

Alpha cells= ghrelin
Beta cells= insulin
Delta cells= somatostatin

63
Q

innate immune response (5 cells)

A

neutrophils (phagocytic cell attracted by chemotaxis)
macrophages (first line of defense)
cytokines (signaling molecule)
chemokines (similar to cytokine, but attracts cells from longer away)
natural killer cells (apoptosis, programmed cell death)

64
Q

electrical signaling

A

direct action of electrical potential, almost instantaneous response

65
Q

chemical signaling

A

through the action of chemical NT (such as serotonin or norepinephrine), utilizes hormones that are transported primarily through the bloodstream, where they bind to receptors on target cells, requires more time

66
Q

command centre for the endocrine system

main control for endocrine functions of the thyroid, adrenal cortex, ovaries, and testes

A

hypothalamus

67
Q

Heart: atrial natriuretic peptide

A

increase in BV or P= increase in ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) which causes the kidneys to reduce sodium reabsorption, therefore decreasing the amount of water reabsorbed to decrease BV
inhibits the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system RAAS

68
Q

GI tract: gastrin

A

stimulates the release of HCL acid

69
Q

GI tract: secretin

A

stimulates the release of bicarb from the pancreas

70
Q

GI tract: cholecystokinin

A

promotes the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and the release of bile from the gallbladder

71
Q

Kidney: renin

A

stimulates RAAS for the reabsorption of sodium and water

72
Q

Kidney: EPO

A

released in response to low oxygen levels, which stimulates RBC production from the bone marrow

73
Q

what cell produces testosterone

A

leydig cells

74
Q

what do sertoli cells do

A

secrete signalling molecules that promote sperm production

75
Q

epididymus

A

where newly formed sperm go to mature

76
Q

what is glomerular filtration rate

A

the volume of filtrate formed by both kidneys per minute (125mL/min in men and 105mL/min in women)

77
Q

hydrostatic pressure

A

is the pressure produced by a fluid and solute through a semipermeable barrier while osmotic pressure works in the opposite way

78
Q

blood hydrostatic pressure

A

55mm Hg past glomerulus

79
Q

blood colloid osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure

A

-45mm Hg against glomerulus

80
Q

net movement

A

10mm Hg past glomerulus

81
Q

tubular reabsorption

proximal convoluted tubule

A
reabsorbs= glucose, amino acids, protein, vitamins, and lactate
secretes= urea, uric acid, creatinine, and some drugs
82
Q

descending loop of henle

A

reabsorbs= water

83
Q

ascending loop of henle

A
reabsorbs= sodium, potassium and chloride
secretes= urea
84
Q

distal convoluted tubule

A
reabsorbs= sodium, chloride, bicarb, and water
secretes= hydrogen ions, potassium, and nitrates
85
Q

collecting tubule

A

reabsorbs= urea and water

86
Q

what does tropomyosin do

A

winds around the chains of actin filaments and covers myosin-binding sites to prevent actin from binding myosin.
in order for a muscle contraction to happen, tropomyosin has to expose the myosin-binding site on actin filaments to allow the actin-myosin cross bridge to form

87
Q

what does troponin do

A

has a binding site for calcium ions

88
Q

what must happen for thick filaments to slide past thin filaments

A

the myosin head must pull the actin at the binding sites, detach, recock, and then attach another binding site.
this pulls the z lines closer together. ATP is required in order to make this work

89
Q

what do intercalated discs in cardiac muscle do

A

allows the cardiac muscle cells to contract in a wave-like pattern, so that the heart can work as a pump

90
Q

what protein does smooth muscle use to regulate it

A

calmodulin, which causes slow and longitudinal rhythmic motion versus an abrupt shortening

91
Q

what is autorhythmicity

A

is the ability for the cardiac cells to initiate an electrical potential at a fixed rate that spreads rapidly from cell-to-cell to trigger the contractile mechanism

92
Q

cell types of the heart, contractile cells

A

conduct impulses and are responsible for contractions that pump blood through the body

93
Q

cell types of the heart, conducting cells

A

initiating and propagating action potential that travels throughout the heart and triggers contractions to pump the blood out of the heart

94
Q

what establishes the normal cardiac rhythm of the heart for sinus rhythm

A

SA node

95
Q

what conductive cells allow for a delay between atrial and ventricular contractions

A

AV node

96
Q

what spreads the impulse from the AV node around the heart

A

bundle of His

97
Q

what spreads the impulse to the ventricles

A

Purkinje fibers

98
Q

what controls membrane potential

A

sodium and potassium ions
sodium ions depolarize (-60 to -40 mV), then calcium channels open causing further depolarization
calcium channels close, potassium channels open and ions repolarize cell potential

99
Q

what type of cells in the heart have a more stable resting phase

A

contractile cells (-80 mV for cells in atria, -90 mV for cells in ventricle)

100
Q

PQRST, P wave

A

represents the depolarization of the atria

101
Q

QRS wave

A

represents the depolarization of the ventricles

102
Q

T wave

A

represents the repolarization of the ventricles

103
Q

Inflammatory response stages

A
1= tissue injury (histamine increases the diameter of local blood vessels= swelling)
2= vasodilation (produced from histamine= swelling and redness)
3= increased vascular permeability (causes leakage of fluid into interstitial space, resulting in swelling and edema)
4= recruitment of phagocytes (leukotrienes and macrophages are recruited to clean up)
104
Q

T-cell mediated response, antigen processing

A

the mechanism that enzymatically cleaves antigen into smaller pieces, which are then brought to the cell’s surface

105
Q

Memory T cells and effector cells

A

allow for faster action and generated as a result of being activated by a particular antigen that is present to eliminate it

106
Q

Helper T cells

A

secrete cytokines to enhance other immune functions

107
Q

Cytotoxic T cells

A

kill target cells by inducing apoptosis

108
Q

Suppressor T cells

A

suppress other T cell immune responses to prevent over-reaction

109
Q

B-cell mediated response

A

differentiate in bone marrow, regulated through central or peripheral tolerance
after B cells are activated by binding to an antigen, they differentiate into plasma cells, which release antibodies until they die

110
Q

Memory B cells

A

function in a way similar to memory T cells, allowing a stronger and faster secondary response

111
Q

what is ventilation

A

the movement of air into and out of the lungs

112
Q

what is perfusion

A

the flow of blood in the pulmonary capillaries

113
Q

internal respiration

A

gas exchange that occurs at the level of the body tissues

114
Q

what does the medulla oblongata contain and do

A

dorsal respiratory group= maintains constant breathing rhythm
ventral respiratory group= involved in forced breathing

115
Q

apneustic center

A

has neuronal cell bodies that stimulate neurons, controlling the depth of inspiration

116
Q

pneumotaxic center

A

allows for relaxation after inspiration

117
Q

what is the first pass effect

A

the concentration of the drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation (a portion of the drug is lost when absorbed in the liver and gut)

118
Q

glycolysis

A

breaks down glucose into 3-carbon compounds to generate energy, 2 ATP per 1 glucose

119
Q

glycogenolysis

A

breaks down glycogen into glucose-1-phosphate and glycogen, takes place in the hepatocytes and myocytes

120
Q

gluconeogenesis

A

transforms non-carbohydrate substrates (lactate, amino acids, glycerol) into glucose, 6 ATPs are used;
running on an empty stomach (fasting and intense exercise)

121
Q

liver enzyme

A

ALT

122
Q

pancreas enzyme

A

amylase lipase

123
Q

kid scraped elbow but then got arthritis at the hip

A

hematogenous spread

124
Q

what pathway do NSAIDs work on

A

cyclooxygenase 2, cox

125
Q

what passes from the mom to the baby in the placenta

A

IgG

126
Q

what organ is affected in Von Gierke’s disease

A

liver, due to G6P build-up, not being able to break down glycogen

127
Q

what does calcitonin do

A

activates Vit D, also tones the bones

128
Q

DVT is caused from

A

an event that damaged blood vessel wall

129
Q

what can result from chronic NSAID use w/ abdominal pain and rigidity

A

gastric ulcer

130
Q

what are gallstones made from vs kidney stones

A

bile vs. calcium oxalate

131
Q

M spike of IgG antibodies indicates what

A

multiple myeloma

132
Q

syringomyelia affects what tracts

A

anterior and lateral spinothalamic spares medial lemniscus

133
Q

Cushing’s is a disease from what

A

excess ACTH from pituitary adenoma which results in excess cortisol from the adrenal gland

134
Q

what causes diabetes insipidus

A

decreased ADH

135
Q

fractured cribriform plate, what sense is lost

A

sense of smell CN I

136
Q

positional vertigo is caused by

A

degenerative particles floating in the semicircular canals

137
Q

what tract is involved if someone has a resting tremor and spastic paralysis of the right arm

A

pyramidal

138
Q

what condition is decreased dopamine seen in

A

Parkinson’s

139
Q

what condition is decreased GABA from caudate nucleus seen in

A

Huntington’s

140
Q

what organ gives LRQ pain

A

appendix

141
Q

what does a spike in LH in the menstrual cycle mean

A

ovulation

142
Q

collecting tubule is acted upon by which hormone

A

ADH to absorb water, if it’s not working diabetes insipidus

143
Q

Krebs in mitochondria

A

38 ATP total -2 from glycolysis= Net 36 ATP

144
Q

what is epinephrines role

A

it increases the rate of contraction, increasing blood output and blood pressure;
stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to glucose, increasing blood glucose

145
Q

estimated time it takes to remove 50% of the drug from the body

A

half-life

146
Q

bradykinin

A

vasodilation

147
Q

what is the most common level for a AAA to occur at

A

L2-L3