Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Citow Review Book > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

<p>What is the Nerst equation?</p>

A

<p>used to determine the electrical potential of a cell membrane in regards to one type of ionNernst potential = 61 Log C intra/C extra </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

<p>What is the resting membrane potential in large myelinated peripheral nerves and skeletal muscle? </p>

A

<p>-90 mV</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

<p>The resting membrane potential is determined largely by which ion?</p>

A

<p>K+ </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

<p>What is the resting membrane potential in the soma of the neuron?</p>

A

<p>-65 mV</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

<p>What is the resting memebrane potential in small nerve fibers and smooth muscle?</p>

A

<p>-55 mV</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

<p>How is the resting membrane potential maintained?</p>

A

<p>leaky K+ channels (potassium is -94 mV and 100 times more permeable than sodium)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

<p>What is the mechanism of tetrodotoxin?</p>

A

<p>voltage gated Na+ channel blocker</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

<p>What is the mechanism of Tetraethylammonium (TEA)?</p>

A

<p>voltage gated K+ channel blocker</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

<p>What neurotransmitter and what ion are associated with presynaptic inhibition?</p>

A

<p>GABA and Cl-</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

<p>In what synapses is ACh used as a neurotransmitter?</p>

A

<p>- motor cortex</p>

<p>- skeletal muscle</p>

<p>- preganglionic autonomic nerves</p>

<p>- postganglionic parasympathetic nerves</p>

<p>- postganglionic sympathetic nerves for sweat glands</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

<p>In what synapses is Norepi used as a neurotransmitter?</p>

A

<p>- pontine locus ceruleus</p>

<p>- postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

<p>Is dopamine excitatory or inhibitory? In what synapses is Dopamine used as a neurotransmitter?</p>

A

<p>inhibitory</p>

<p>substantia nigra projectionsto the putamen and caudate</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

<p>What is the rate limiting step in dopamine synthesis?</p>

A

<p>conversion of tyrosine to 3,4 DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

<p>Is glycine excitatory or inhibitory? In what synapses is glycine used as a neurotransmitter?</p>

A

<p>inhibitory</p>

<p>spinal cord (Renshaw cells)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

<p>In what synapses is GABA used as a neurotransmitter?</p>

A

<p>- cortex</p>

<p>- basal ganglia</p>

<p>- cerebellum (Purkinje Cells)</p>

<p>- spinal cord</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

<p>Is glutamate excitatory or inhibitory? In what synapses is glutamate used as a neurotransmitter?</p>

A

<p>Excitatory</p>

<p>- cortex</p>

<p>- dentate gyrus of hippocampus</p>

<p>- striatum</p>

<p>- cerebellum (granular cells)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

<p>Is serotonin excitatory or inhibitory? In what synapses is serotonin used as a neurotransmitter?</p>

A

<p>inhibitory</p>

<p>- Median raphe nucleithat projectto the hypothalamus and spinal cord (dorsal horns)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

<p>What neurotransmitter serves as the precursor to melatonin?</p>

A

<p>Serotonin</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

<p>Where are nicotinic receptors located?</p>

A

<p>- NMJ</p>

<p>- preganglionic sympathetics and parasympathetics</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

<p>What are the subunits of the autonomic nicotinic receptor?</p>

A

<p>2 alpha, one beta, one gamma, and one delta</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

<p>Which subunit on the nicotinic autonomic receptor binds the ACh?</p>

A

<p>the alpha subunit</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

<p>What blocks the ACh binding receptor on the nicotinic autonomic receptor?</p>

A

<p>hexamethonium (not reversed by acetacholinesterase)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

<p>What are the subunits of nicotinic receptors at the NMJ?</p>

A

<p>2 alpha subunits</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

<p>Where are muscarinic receptors located?</p>

A

<p>-postganglionic parasympathetic</p>

<p>-postganglionic sympathetics for sweat glands</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

<p>What intracellular messaging system is paired with muscarinic receptors?</p>

A

<p>G protein via second messahnger system</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

<p>Muscarinic receptors are blocked by what toxin?</p>

A

<p>pertussis toxin</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

<p>What messenger system is used by dopamine receptors?</p>

A

<p>cAMP second messenger</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

<p>What is the competitive antagonist of glycine receptors?</p>

A

<p>Strychnine</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

<p>Mutations in what receptor causes stiff person syndrome?</p>

A

<p>mutations in glycine receptor (loss of inhibition)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

<p>GABA A receptors increase \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ permeability; GABA B receptors increase \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ conductance.</p>

A

<p>Cl-</p>

<p></p>

<p>K+</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

<p>What are the GABA A agonists? What is their function?</p>

A

<p>Barbituates (prolong duration of Cl - opening) and Benzodiazepines (increase frequency of Cl- opening)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

<p>What are GABA B agonists?</p>

A

<p>Baclofen</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

<p>What toxin blocks GABA receptor activity? What is the clinical manifestation?</p>

A

<p>Picrotoxin</p>

<p></p>

<p>Causes seizure like activity</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

<p>NMDA receptors use what type of neurotransmitter?</p>

A

<p>Glutamate (requires glycine for coactivation)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

<p>What blocks NMDA receptors?</p>

A

<p>Magnesium</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

<p>Kinesin mediates \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and dynein mediates \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>anterograde axonal transport</p>

<p></p>

<p>retrograde axonal transport</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

<p>Excitatory action potentials lead to \_\_\_\_\_ channels opening while inhibitory action potentials lead to \_\_\_\_\_ channels opening.</p>

A

<p>NA+</p>

<p></p>

<p>K+ and Cl-</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

<p>Action potentials start at the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ due to \_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>Neuronal axon hillock</p>

<p></p>

<p>Higher concentrations of Na+ channels</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are phasic vs tonic sensory receptors? Which receptors fall into each category?

A

Phasic (Rapidly adapting)- Pacinian and Hair receptors

Tonic (Slowly adapting)- everything else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Annulospiral endings of muscle spindles have what sensory nerve fiber?

A

Type Ia (alpha type A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What sensory fiber is found in Golgi tendons?

A

type Ib (alpha type A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Type II sensory nerves are found where?

A

cutaneous tactile receptors and flower spray endings of muscle spindles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the function of type III sensory fibers?

A

temperature, crude touch, and pricking pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the functions of type IV sensory nerve fibers?

A

unmyelinated fibers relaying pain, itch, temperature, and crude touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the three types of motor fibers? Where are they found? Myelinated vs unmyelinated?

A
  1. Skeletal muscle - alpha type A (myelinated, fastest)
  2. Muscle Spindle - gamma type A (myelinated)
  3. Sympathetic - type C (unmyelinated)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Rank the sensory fibers from fastest to slowest.

A
  1. Ia (a-type A)2. Ib (a-type A)3. II (B and g-type A)4. III (d-type A)5. IV (type C)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the function of Free Nerve Endings in somatic sensation?

A

respond to pain, touch, and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are Meissner Corpuscles? What type of nerve fibers do they use?

A

rapidly adapting receptors that respond to touch (end of finger tips)

large myelinated beta type A fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are Merkel Disks? What type of nerve fibers do they use?

A

slowly adapting receptors for touch and pressure (hairy and non hairy skin)myelinated beta type A fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are Pacinian corpuscles?

A

rapidly adapting receptors that respond to vibration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are Ruffini end organs? Where are they generally located?

A

slowly adapting receptors that respond to heavy touch and pressure (located in deep layers of the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are Hair End Organs?

A

rapidly adapting receptors that respond to touch; located at the base of hair follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What type of nerve fibers transmit touch?

A

mostly beta-type A fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What nerve fibers relay vibration?

A

beta-type A fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What somatic nerve fibers relay pain?

A

free nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What spinal cord laminae does crude touch originate from?

A

1, 4, 5, and 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The anterior and posterior spinothalamic tracts terminate at which thalamic nuclei? What functions?

A

VPL (body)

VPM (face)

Posterior Thalamic Nuclei- touch and temperature sensations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The spinoreticular tract terminates at what thalamic nuclei? What function(s) does it contain?

A

Intralaminar thalamic nucleus- pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The nucleus gracilis is located ________ and responsible for _______.

A

medial medulla

lower limb fine touch, vibration, proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The nucleus cuneatus is located ________ and responsible for _______.

A

lateral medulla

upper limb fine touch, vibration, proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The axons from the nucleus gracilis and cuneatus cross through arcuate fibers to form _______. What other fibers do they join?

A

medial lemniscus

main sensory nucleus of Trigeminal nerve and Upper Spinal Nucleus of V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where does the medial lemniscus terminate?

A

VPL (body)VPM (face)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the somatotopic organization at the spinal cord, thalamus, and cortex?

A

lower limbs are medially in the spinal cord, laterally in the thalamus, and medially in the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the pathway for lower limb proprioception?

A

Clark’s column neurons through the dorsal spinocerebellar tract to the cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the pathway for upper limb proprioception?

A

fasciculus cuneatus fibers synapse on accessary cuneate nucleus in the caudal medulla and then enter the cuneocerebellar tract before entering the cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Cortex Layers 5 and 6 have projection fibers which project to the _____ and ______, respectively.

A

brainstem/spinal cord

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Fast pain is relayed by what fibers?

A

delta-type A fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Slow pain is relayed by what fibers?

A

type C fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is Lissauer’s tract?

A

tract in the spinal cord by which pain fibers ascend or descend prior to entering the dorsal horns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Fast pain is transmitted within the ______ tract while slow pain is through the ______ tract.

A

neospinothalamic

paleospinothalamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Fast pain is transmitted through what spinal cord lamina?

A

Lamina 1 (lamina marginalis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Slow pain is transmitted through what spinal cord lamina?

A

2 and 3 followed by 5-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What areas release enkephalins?

A

periaquaductal gray and periventricular hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How does amitryptyline decrease pain?

A

increase 5-HT which activates pain inhibitory complex in the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How do NSAIDs decrease pain?

A

decrease prostaglandin production which increase pain receptor sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

DBS of what areas have been used to treat chronic pain?

A

periaqueductal gray and preventricular hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

increased sensitivity (i.e. decreased threshold) to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is hyperpathia?

A

increased reaction to pain (painful stimuli causing greater than expected pain response)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is allodynia?

A

Non-painful stimuli causing pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is Dejerine-Roussy syndrome? What is it caused by?

A

usually caused by posteroventral thalamic strokes

beginning symptoms are ataxia and contralateral hemianesthesia, with eventual return of crude sensation but also increased pain and discomfort on that contralateral side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What nerve is responsible for referred pain from supratentorial cranial structures? How does it manifest?

A

Trigeminal nerve; frontal headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What nerves are responsible for the referred pain from infratentorial cranial structures? How does it manifest?

A

C2, CN IX, CN X

occipital and retroauricular headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What causes post lumbar puncture headaches?

A

decreased CSF allows weight of the brain to stretch blood vessels bridging from the brain to the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What autonomic nerves innervate the cilliary muscle?

A

parasympathetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the vascular layer of the eye?

A

Choroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the blood supply to the retina?

A

inner layers: central retinal artery

outer layers: diffusion across the choroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The rod pathway goes from rods to ______ then _______ and finally ________.

A

bipolar cells; amacrine cells; ganglion cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The cone pathway goes from cones to _______ and then ________ .

A

bipolar cells; ganglion cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for rods and cones?

A

glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Amacrine cells neurotransmitters are _______ (excitatory/inhibitory).

A

inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Describe the parasympathetic innervation pathway of the eye.

A

begins at Edinger-Westphal nucleus, transmits via the third nerve to the ciliary ganglion -> short ciliary nerve to then the ciliary muscle (accomodation) and iris sphincter (miosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the parasympathetic functions of the eye?

A

accomodation and miosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Describe the sympathetic innervation pathway of the eye.

A

T1 level to the sympathetic chain - > super cervical ganglion, continue to head up along the carotid artery, as long and short ciliary nerves to the iris radial fibers (mydriasis), Muller muscle of the eyelid, and weakly ciliary muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the sympathetic functions of the eye?

A

mydriasis and lid retraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the characteristics of an Argyll-Robertson pupil?

A

intact accomodation reflex but no pupillary light reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the pathway of the light reflex?

A

impulses in retina > optic tract > pretectal nucleus > Edinger Westphal nucleus > third nerve > ciliary ganglion > short ciliary nerve > iris sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What causes Horner syndrome?

A

impaired sympathetic output to the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the symptoms of Horner syndrome?

A

miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis, enophthalmos, dilated facial vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which portion of the hypothalamus deals with circadian rhythms?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the primary function of the superior colliculous?

A

control of conjugate eye movements in response to head movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What part of the thalamus serves as a visual relay center?

A

lateral geniculate body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

How many layers are there in the LGB?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which layers of the LGB receive contralateral vs ipsilateral input?

A

Contra: 1, 4, 6Ipsi: 2, 3, 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which layers of the LGB receive black/white vs color vision?

A

Black/White: 1, 2 (Y cell input)Color: 3-6 (X cell input)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What innervates the tensor tympani?

A

branch of V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What nerve innervates the stapedius?

A

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the acoustic reflex? What brain structure is associated with that reflex?

A

attenuation of loud sounds to protect the cochleasuperior olivary nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Loud noises cause what type of hearing loss?

A

high frequency hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Elderly people develop what type of hearing loss?

A

high frequency discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Ototoxic medications induce what type of hearing loss?

A

hearing loss at all frequencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Describe the auditory pathway.

A

Spiral Ganglioin (1st order) > Dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei (2) > contralateral (some ipsilateral) superior olivary nucleus (3) > lateral lemniscus (4) > inferior colliculus (5) > medial geniculate body (6) > auditory cortex (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What Brodmann’s area is the primary auditory cortex?

A

41

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Localization of sound is mediated by what brain structure?

A

superior olivary nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the innervation of taste on the tongue?

A

Anterior: Chorda tympani (CN VII)Posterior: CN IXBase: CN X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the innervation of sensation on the tongue:

A

Anterior: CN V3Posterior: CN IXBase: CN X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Describe the taste pathway.

A

CN VII, IX, X to the nucleus solitarius > VPM > cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Describe the olfactory pathway.

A

Axons from olfactory cells (1st order) > glomeruli in olfactory bulb (2) which travels along the CN I > divide into the medial and lateral olfractory striae which go to the medial and lateral olfactory areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What composes the medial olfactory area?

A

septal nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What composes the lateral olfactory area?

A

prepyriform and pyriform cortex, cortex over the amygdala nucelus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are the types of anterior motor neurons?

A

a-motor neuronsg-motor neurons

121
Q

Where are renshaw cells located?

A

anterior horn

122
Q

What neurotransmitter do renshaw cells use?

123
Q

Where are muscle spindles located?

A

within the muscle belly

124
Q

What do muscle spindles detect?

A

detect length and velocity changes in the muscle

125
Q

What are the sensory endings for the muscle spindle? What sensory fibers are they associated with?

A

Annulospiral ending - type Ia fiberFlower-spray ending - type II fiber

126
Q

What is the fastest sensory fiber in the body?

A

annulospiral (type Ia) ending in muscle spindle

127
Q

What is the myotatic (muscle stretch) reflex?

A

when the muscle is stretched, impusles travel from the spindle’s type Ia fibers to the a-motor neuron; induces contraction

128
Q

What fibers are associated with Golgi tendon organs?

A

Type Ib fibers

129
Q

What is the function of the dorsal spinocerebellar tracts?

A

transmit signals from the muscle spindles and Golgi’s tendon organs to the reticular formation and cortex and cerebellum

130
Q

What are Betz cells?

A

large pyramidal neurons found only in primary motor cortex, mediate corticospinal output

131
Q

What cortical layer are Betz cells located in?

132
Q

How long does it take for SMA syndrome to resolve?

A

usually under 6 weeks

133
Q

What is the macula?

A

sensory organ of the utricle and saccule

134
Q

In what planes do the utricle and saccule sense gravitational force?

A

Utricle - upright (macule in horizontal plane)Saccule - when lying down (macule in verticle plane)

135
Q

What are the three semicircular canals?

A

anterior, posterior, lateral

136
Q

What is the main function of the MLF?

A

control of eye movements

137
Q

How many vestibular nuclei are there? What are their functions?

A

Superior and Medial: eye reflexesLateral (Deiter’s): postureInferior: integrates vestibular and cerebellar

138
Q

Removal of the anterior lobe of the cerebellum results in what motor finding?

A

Spasticity

139
Q

Which vestibular organ detects static and linear acceleration?

140
Q

Which vestibular organ detects angular acceleration?

A

semicircular canals

141
Q

What tracts lie in the inferior cerebellar peduncle? Afferent or efferent?

A

Juxtarestiform body (afferent and efferent)Restiform body (afferent)

142
Q

What tracts lie in the middle cerebellar peduncle? Afferent or efferent?

A

Corticopontocerebellar pathway (afferent)

143
Q

What tracts lie in the superior cerebellar peduncle? Afferent or efferent?

A

Ventral spinocerebellar pathway (afferent)Int. Zone to VL/VPL to red nucleus (and other grey matter) (efferent)Lat. Zone to dentate nucleus to VL/VPL to Area 4 (efferent)

144
Q

What is the juxtarestiform body?

A

vestibulocerebellar pathway: vestibular nucleus to the fastigial nucleus of the flocculonodular lobethis pathway is both afferent and efferent

145
Q

What comprises the restiform body?

A

Olivocerebellar PathwayReticulocerebellar pathway (reticular nucleus to the vermis)Dorsal Spinocerebellar Pathway

146
Q

What is the center of the functional unit of the cerebellum?

A

Purkinje Cells

147
Q

What are the layers of the cerebellum? What cells reside in each?

A

Molecular: basket and stellatePurkinje: purkinje cellsGranular: granule and Golgi type II cells

148
Q

What are climbing fibers?

A

inferior olivary complex to purkinje and deep nuclear cellsexcitatory

149
Q

What are mossy fibers?

A

excitatoryeverything (except inferior olivary complex) to the deep nuclear cells and granule layer

150
Q

Which of the following are excitatory/inhibitory?Granule CellsBasket cellsStellate CellsPurkinje CellsGolgi Type II Cells

A

Granule cells are excitatory, all other are inhibitory

151
Q

What is the function of the flocculonodular lobe?

A

mediates rapid changes in body position

152
Q

What is the function of the intermediate zone?

A

movement control/fine tuning and ballistic/short/fast actions (no time for feedback)

153
Q

What does damaging the intermediate zone lead to?

A

intention tremors, decreased force, slow movements, and inability to stop a movement once initiated

154
Q

What does the lateral zone control?

A

motor planning and timing (in conjunction with pre motor area)

155
Q

What does damage to the lateral zone cause?

A

discoordination of speech and limbs

156
Q

<p>What is the function of the putamen circuit?</p>

A

<p>executes motor activity patterns</p>

157
Q

<p>What is the function of the caudate circuit?</p>

A

<p>cognitive control of motor patterns</p>

158
Q

<p>All basal ganglia circuits to the cortex are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (excitatory/inhibitory).</p>

A

<p>inhibitory</p>

159
Q

<p>Damage to the GP causes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>athetosis (slow, involuntary, convoluted, writhing movements of the fingers, hands, toes, and feet)</p>

160
Q

<p>Damage to the ST causes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>hemiballismus</p>

161
Q

<p>Damage to the caudate causes \_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>chorea</p>

162
Q

<p>Damage to the putamen causes \_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>chorea</p>

163
Q

<p>Damage to the SN causes \_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>rigidity and tremor</p>

164
Q

<p>What causes parkinson's disease?</p>

A

<p>degeneration of the pars compacta of the SN</p>

165
Q

<p>What are the four cardinal characteristcis of parkinson's disease?</p>

A

<p>Rigidity</p>

<p>Tremor (3-6 cycles/s)</p>

<p>Akinesia</p>

<p>Postural Instability</p>

166
Q

<p>What causes the rigidity and tremor seen in Parkinson's disease?</p>

A

<p>unapposed corticospinal stimulation</p>

167
Q

What neurotransmitter is decreased in Parkinson’s disease?

168
Q

What neurotransmitter is decreased in Huntington’s disease?

169
Q

What neurotransmitter is decreased in dementia disease?

170
Q

What neurotransmitter is decreased in depression?

A

NE and 5-HT

171
Q

How do MAO inhibitors treat depression?

A

decrease destruction of NE and 5-HT

172
Q

How do TCAs treat depression?

A

block the reuptake of NE and 5-HT

173
Q

How does shock therapy treat depression?

A

increase NE transmission (which occurs after seizures)

174
Q

What neurotransmitter is affected in schizophrenia?

A

increased DA

175
Q

What are of the brain is overactive in schizophrenia?

A

Ventral tegmentum

176
Q

Where is the nucelus basalis of Meynert located?

A

beneath GP in the substantia innominata

177
Q

What neurotrasmitter is decreased in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

ACh (also Substance P and somatostatin)

178
Q

Which nucleus is affected by Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Nucleus basalis of Mynert (75% loss of neurons)

179
Q

Where are granular (stellate) cells more numbers in the cerebrum?

A

sensory areas

180
Q

Incoming sensory information generally enters what cortical layer?

181
Q

Output from the cortex generally comes from what cortical layers?

A

Layer 5 - brainstem and spinal cordLayer 6 - thalamus

182
Q

What Brodmann’s areas compose Wernicke’s area?

A

22, 39, 40

183
Q

What Brodmann’s area composes the angular gyrus?

184
Q

Where is the angular gyrus located?

A

posterior inferior parietal lobe

185
Q

What is the angular gyrus responsible for?

A

visual processing of words

186
Q

Damage to the angular gyrus causes ________.

A

dyslexia (inability to read)

187
Q

What B-man’s areas compose Broca’s?

188
Q

What is prosopagnosia? A lesion where causes it?

A

inability to recognize facesb/l damage to the medial basal occipitotemporal cortex

189
Q

What is habituation?

A

inhibition of memory of useless sensory information

190
Q

A hippocampal lesion causes ________ amnesia while a thalamic lesion causes ________ amnesia.

A

retrograde and anterograde retrograde

191
Q

Damaging the reticular activating system induces _____

192
Q

Where is the reticular activating system?

A

middle/lateral pons and brainstem

193
Q

What neurotransmitter is used by the reticular activating system?

194
Q

Where is the inhibitory reticular formation located?

A

lower brainstem in the medial ventral medulla

195
Q

What neurotransmitter is used by the inhibitory reticular formation?

196
Q

Where is the locus ceruleus located?

A

bilateral posterior pontine-midbrain junction

197
Q

Where is the raphe nucleus located?

A

lower pons/medulla

198
Q

What neurotransmitter is released by the gigantocellular layer of the reticular activating system?

199
Q

What is the median forebrain bundle?

A

bidirectional tract that connects the septal nuclei and orbitofrontal gyrus to the reticular formationAlso connects the reticular formation to the thalamus, hypothalamus, and cortex

200
Q

What structure does the median forebrain bundle go through?

A

hypothalamus

201
Q

The lateral hypothalamus controls what functions?

A

regulates thirst, hunger, emotion, and sympathetic output

202
Q

The medial hypothalamus controls what functions?

A

controls satiety

203
Q

Stimulation of the anterior hypothalamus causes ________.

A

decreases in temperature, HR, and BP while increase parasympathetic output

204
Q

Stimulation of the posterior hypothalamus causes ______.

A

increases in temp, HR, and BP while increasing sympathetic tone

205
Q

Where is temperature mainly regulated?

A

anterior hypothalamus by the preoptic area

206
Q

Where is ADH produced?

A

supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus

207
Q

Where is oxytocin produced?

A

paraventricular nucleus

208
Q

What cerebral structure controls feeding reflex?

A

mammillary bodies

209
Q

What cerebral structure controls sex drive?

A

anterior/posterior hypothalamus

210
Q

What regions of the cerebrum control rage?

A

lateral hypothalamus and periventricular region

211
Q

What region of the hypothalamus controls fear and anxiety?

A

midline preoptic nucleus

212
Q

What is the primary goal of the limbic system?

A

to determine whether a sensation is pleasant or unpleasant

213
Q

Ablation of the temporal tip of the limbic cortex produces _______.

A

Kluver Bucy Syndrome

214
Q

Bilateral ablation of the amygdala produces _______.

A

Kluver Bucy Syndrome

215
Q

What is Kluver Bucy Syndrome characterized by?

A

oral fixation, tameness, fearlessness, hypersexuality, psychological blindness (inability to determine an objects function or use by sight)

216
Q

How many layers are in the hippocampus?

A

three layers (paleocortex)

217
Q

Slow wave sleep constitutes what percentage of sleep?

218
Q

What is the theory behind sleep activation mechanism?

A

active inhibition of the ascending reticular activating system

219
Q

Which of the deep cerebral nuclei when stimulated elicits sleep?

A

Raphe nucleus

220
Q

Lesions of the _________ decrease REM sleep.

A

locus ceruleus

221
Q

What cortical layers are brainwaves primarily derived from?

A

cortical layers 1 and 2

222
Q

What are the characteristic of a-waves (EEG)?

A

8 to 13 waves/s and amplitude of 50 mV

223
Q

When are a-waves (EEG) present?

A

during wakefulness but not with activity or intense stimulation

224
Q

Where are a-waves (EEG) primarily located?

A

occipital lobes

225
Q

What are the characteristics of B-waves (EEG)?

A

14 to 80 waves/s, decreased amplitude compared to a-waves

226
Q

Where are B-waves (EEG) primarily located?

A

frontal and parietal lobes during activity

227
Q

What are the characteristics of theta-waves (EEG)?

A

4-7 waves/s with increased amplitude

228
Q

What are the characteristics of g-waves (EEG)?

A

less than 3.5 waves/s, increased amplitude

229
Q

When are theta-waves (EEG) present?

A

parietal and temporal lobes in childrenmay appear during stress in adults or with brain disorders

230
Q

When are g-waves (EEG) present?

A

occur with deep sleep

231
Q

What are the EEG findings during sleep at each stage?

A

Stage 1: very light sleep w/ elimination of a-wavesStage 2: sleep spindles (short a-wave bursts) and K complexes; may exhibit theta-wavesStage 3: g-waves, may exhibit theta-wavesStage 4: g-wavesREM: B-waves

232
Q

What is the overall prevalence of epilepsy in society?

233
Q

Absence seizures are activated by what area of the brain?

A

basal forebrain

234
Q

What EEG findings are seen with absence seizures?

A

3 waves/s spike and dome

235
Q

Where do preganglionic sympathetic fibers originate?

A

spinal cord from a cell body in the intermediolateralcell column (extending from T1 to L2)

236
Q

Which ramus do preganglionic fibers course through?

A

white ramus

237
Q

Where do postganglionic sympathetic fibers originate?

A

sympathetic change ganglia or prevertebral ganglia

238
Q

What type of fibers are sympathetic nerves?

239
Q

What are splanchic nerves?

A

preganglionic sympathetic fibers that pass through the sympathetic chain without synapsing and go straight to the adrenal medulla

240
Q

Sympathetic fibers from what spinal level supply the head?

241
Q

Sympathetic fibers from what spinal level supply the neck?

242
Q

Sympathetic fibers from what spinal level supply the thorax?

243
Q

Sympathetic fibers from what spinal level supply the abdomen?

244
Q

Sympathetic fibers from what spinal level supply the lower limbs?

245
Q

In what nerves are parasympathetic fibers found?

A

CN III, VII, IX, X (75%) S1-S4

246
Q

Preganglionic autonomic fibers are _______ (receptor type).

A

Cholinergic

247
Q

Post ganglionic parasympathetic fibers are _______ (receptor type).

A

Cholinergic

248
Q

Post ganglionic sympathetic fibers are ________ (receptor type).

A

Adrenergic except for fibers going to sweat, piloerectors, and blood vessels (Muscarinic)

249
Q

What is the mechanism of Resperine?

A

blocks NE synthesis and storage; prevents DA uptake into vesicles

250
Q

What is the effect of Gaunethidine?

A

decreases NE release

251
Q

Phenylepherine stimulate _____ receptor(s).

A

alpha receptors

252
Q

Name two alpha blockers.

A

Phentolamine and Phenoxybenzamine

253
Q

Name three autonomic (primarily sympathetic) ganglionic blockers. What is their overall effect?

A

hexamethonium, TEA, Pentolinimdecrease BP

254
Q

Name two muscarinic receptor agonists.

A

pilocarpine and methacholine

255
Q

Name three muscarinic receptor blockers.

A

atropine, pertussis toxin, and scopolamine

256
Q

Name three reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

A

neostigmine, pyridostigmine, physostigmine

257
Q

Name the irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

A

organophosphates

258
Q

Name three ACh receptor agonists.

A

ACh, nicotine, and methacholine

259
Q

What is the mechanism of tetanus?

A

prevents fusion of vesicle with cell membrane, such as blocking glycine release from Renshaw cells

260
Q

What is the mechanism for Cholera toxin?

A

decreased GTP hydrolysis

261
Q

What is the effect of Diptheria toxin?

A

inactivates tRNA transferase

262
Q

What is the mechanism of Strychnine?

A

glycine antagonist

263
Q

What is the mechanism of cocaine?

A

blocks DA and NE uptake

264
Q

What is the mechanism of cyanide?

A

blocks Na/K pump, disrupting active transport

265
Q

<p>What is a sarcomere?</p>

A

<p>muscle unit that lies between two Z discs/lines</p>

266
Q

<p>What composes the motor unit?</p>

A

<p>one alpha motor neuron and numerous muscle fibers (various in number)</p>

267
Q

<p>How is organophophate inhibition of acetylcholinesterase treated?</p>

A

<p>2-pyridine aldoxime methochloride (PAM)</p>

268
Q

<p>What is the mechanism of Curare?</p>

A

<p>blocks ACh at the NMJ</p>

269
Q

<p>What is the pathologic cause of myesthenia gravis?</p>

A

<p>antibodies to the ACh receptor</p>

270
Q

Where is the vasomotor center located?

A

reticular formation of the medulla and caudal pons

271
Q

Where is the vasoconstrictor (C1) area of the vasomotor center? What are its outputs?

A

anterolateral upper medullarelays NE to the spinal cord

272
Q

Where is the vasodilator (A1) area of the vasomotor center? What are its outputs?

A

anterolateral lower medullaprojects to vasoconstrictor area to inhibit it

273
Q

Where is the sensory (A2) area of the vasomotor center? What are its inputs?

A

located in the tractus solitarius in the posterolateral pons and medullareceived input from CN IX and X

274
Q

The medial vasomotor center relays ______ output to the heart while the lateral relays ______ output.

A

parasympatheticsympathetic

275
Q

Stretching the carotid sinus stimulates what nerve?

A

Hering’s nerve (CN IX)

276
Q

Where does Hering’s nerve synapse onto?

A

solitary tract which eventually proceeds to the sensory area of the vasomotor center

277
Q

Stretching of the aorta causes stimulation of which nerve?

A

vagus nerve which eventually synapses onto the solitary tract

278
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus detects serum osmolarity?

A

anteroventral third ventricular region (AV-3V)

279
Q

What composes the AV-3V of the hypothalamus?

A

superior: subforniceal organinferior: organ vasculosum of the lamina terminalisIn between: median preoptic nucleus

280
Q

What comprises the respiratory?

A

Dorsal respiratory group Ventral respiratory groupPneumotaxic center

281
Q

Where is the dorsal respiratory group located? What are its functions?

A

dorsal medulla controls inspiration

282
Q

Where is the ventral respiratory group located? What are its functions?

A

ventrolateral medulla in the nucleus ambiguus and retroambiguuscontrols inhalation and exhalation when large efforts needed

283
Q

Where is the pneumotaxic center located? What are its functions?

A
  • dorsal superior pons in the nucleus parabrachialis- rate and pattern of breathing
284
Q

What is the Herin-Breur inflation reflex?

A

stretch receptors in the bronchi and bronchioles sent afferent signals via the vagus to the dorsal respiratory nucleus to stop inhalation

285
Q

What is Auerbach’s myenteric plexus?

A

located between the longitudinal and circular layers of muscle; controls GI movements

286
Q

What is Meissner’s submucosal plexus?

A

located in the GI submucosa; controls secretions and blood flow

287
Q

Where is the salivatory nucleus located?

A

pontomedullary junction

288
Q

What are the associated nerves and ganglion with each of the following glands:- submandibular- sublingual- parotid

A

Submandibular - CN VII - submandibular ganglionSublingual - CN VII - submandibular ganglionParotid - CN IX - otic ganglion

289
Q

Name three substances that increase gastric secretions?

A

ACh, gastrin, histamine

290
Q

Which pelvic nerves provide paraysmpathetics to the bladder?

291
Q

Which portion of the hypothalamus detects temperature?

A

anterior hypothalamus and preoptic area

292
Q

What endocrine hormones or equivalents are released by hypothalamus?

A

thyrotropin, corticotropin, growth hormone releasing hormone, gonadotropin releasing hormone, somatostatin, DA

293
Q

Somatostatin inhibits _______ and _________.

A

growth hormone releasing hormonethyrotropin releasing hormone

294
Q

Where is somatomedin C synthesized? What triggers its synthesis? What is its function?

A

LiverGHIncreases somatostatin levels which decrease GH levels

295
Q

Prolactin is tonically inhibited by _______.

296
Q

What is the effect of ADH?

A

increase distal tubule H2O absorption and NaCl loss

297
Q

Which hypothalamic releasing hormone inhibits ADH?

A

Corticotropin releasing hormone

298
Q

Gonadotropin releasing hormone is released mainly by the _______ of the hypothalamus.

A

arcuate nucleus

299
Q

Which nerve is responsible for an erection in males/females?

A

nervi erigentes

Citow Review Book (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions