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Citow Review Book > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

How many layers compose the cranial dura? What are there names?

A

External Periosteal Layer and Inner Meningeal layer

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2
Q

How many layers compose the spinal dura? What composes the spinal dura? Where does the spinal dura end?

A

One layer

The inner meningeal layer of the cranial dura

Ends at S2

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3
Q

What two layers compose the leptomeninges? Which one is characterized by the presence of tight junctions?

A

Arachnoid (tight junctions) and Pia

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4
Q

What are the two layers of the pia?

A

Initmal and Epipial Layers

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5
Q

The outer layer of the pia is covered by _____

A

simple squamous epithelium

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6
Q

What is the dentate ligament?

A

thickening of the pia that stretches from the midpoint between the dorsal and ventral roots on the lateral spinal cord to attach to the surface of the arachnoid and dura

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7
Q

What is the filum terminale? Where is it and what derives from it?

A

extension of epipia which condenses and continues from S2 down; ends as the coccygeal ligament

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8
Q

What are Virchow Robin Spaces?

A

a perivascular potential space existing between the blood vessels and the leptominges as the vessels enter the CNS tissue

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9
Q

Name the midbrain cisterns.

A

Interpeduncular

Crural

Ambient

Quadrigeminal

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10
Q

What vessels are contained within the ambient cistern?

A

vein of Galen

Posterior Cerebreal Artery (PCAs)

Superior Cerebellar Arteries (SCAs)

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11
Q

What are the three meningeal arteries and what vessels are they branches of?

A

Anterior Meningeal Artery branch of the Ophthalmic Artery

Mindle Meningeal Artery branch of the Maxillary Artery

Posterior Meningeal Artery branch fo the Occipital and Vertebral Arteries

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12
Q

Which nerves innervate the supratentorial dura?

A

V1 - Anterior Fossa

V2 - Middle Fossa

V3 - Posterior Fossa and mastoid air cells

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13
Q

What is the embryologic origin of the dura, subarachnoid, and pia?

A

Dura - Mesoderm

Leptomeninges - Neuroectoderm

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14
Q

What innervates the infratentorial dura?

A

CN X, C2-C3

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15
Q

What is Froin’s Syndrome? What triad characterizes is?

A

Characterized by the triad of: 1. Xanthrochromia 2. CSF coagulation 3. CSF protein increased (up to 1000)

Generally occurs whenever there is obstruction to flow causing stasis or if the CSF becomes loculated

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16
Q

What RBC to WBC ratio defines a traumatic tap?

A

at least 700 RBCs per 1 WBC

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17
Q

What cellular mechanism is fundamental to CSF production?

A

Na/K ATP pump

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18
Q

What nucleus and molecule control CSF production?

A

Raphe Nucleus sends serotonin to periependymal vessels

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19
Q

What two factors can increase production of CSF?

A

Volatile Anesthetics and CO2

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20
Q

What two factors decrease production of CSF?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide) and Norepinephrine

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21
Q

How much CSF is produced per hour? Per day? What is the total volume of CSF?

A

20 mL/h

450 mL/day

150 mL total

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22
Q

What comprises the choroid plexus?

A

single layer of cuboidal epithelial cells surrounding blood vessels

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23
Q

Where are the primary locations of choroid plexus?

A
  1. Roof of the 4th ventricle
  2. Inferior Medullary Vellum
  3. Lateral Recess to the foramen of Luschka
  4. Posterior roof of the 3rd Ventricle
  5. Floor of the body of the Lateral Ventricle
  6. Roof of the temporal horn of the lateral ventricle
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24
Q

What three components make up the Blood Brain Barrier?

A
  1. Capillary endothelial tight junctions (primary)2. Pinocytic Activity in endothelial cells3. Astrocytic foot processes
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25
Q

Which glucose configuration can travel across the BBB? Through what mechanism?

A

D-Glucose through Carrier Mediated Transport. BBB is impermeable to L-Glucose.

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26
Q

The Blood-CSF Barrier is formed by _______ .

A

tight junctions of choroid cuboidal epithelium

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27
Q

What are circumventricular organs?

A

Midline ventricular structures of specialized tissues with absent BBB due to fenestrated capillaries

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28
Q

How many circumventricular Organs are there? What are there names?

A
  1. Organum vasculosum (lamina terminalis)2. Neurohypophysis3. Median eminence of the Hypothalamus4. Subfornical Organ5. Subcommissural Organ6. Pineal Gland7. Area Postrema
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29
Q

Which is the only circumventricular organ with an intact BBB?

A

Subcommissural organ

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30
Q

What is the only paired circumventricular organ? Where is it located?

A

Area Postrema on the floor of the 4th Ventricle

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31
Q

What stimulates the area postrema to induce emesis?

A

Digitalis or apomorphine

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32
Q

What three major head and neck arteries are branched of the subclavian artery?

A

Vertebral Artery
Thyrocervical Trunk
Costocervical Trunk

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33
Q

Which vertebral artery is usually dominate? What percent of time? What percent is usually the other side dominant?

A

Left 50%Right 25%Nondominant 25%

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34
Q

What percentage of the population has a hypoplastic vertebral artery?

A

40%

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35
Q

What are the branches of the external carotid artery from proximal to distal?

A

Superior thyroid arteryAscending pharyngeal arteryLingual arteryFacial arteryOccipital arteryPosterior auricular artery Superficial temporal arteryInternal MAXillary artery

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36
Q

Which branch of the external carotid supplies CN IX, X, and XI?

A

Ascending pharyngeal artery

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37
Q

What gives off the middle meningeal artery? Accessory meningeal arteries?

A

Internal maxillary artery for both

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38
Q

At what level is the carotid bifurcation?

A

C3-C4 or C4-C5

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39
Q

Name the segments of the ICA, proximal to distal.

A
  1. Cervical2. Petrosal3. Lacerum4. Cavernous5. Clinoidal6. Ophthalmic7. Communicating.
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40
Q

How many segments are there to the Petrous portion of the ICA?

A
  1. Vertical 2. Genu3. Horizontal
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41
Q

What are the branches at each ICA segment?

A

C1 - noneC2 - Caroticotympanic artery, Vidian artery (sometimes, usually ECA)C3 - noneC4 - Meningohypophyseal trunk, Inferolateral trunk, Medial Trunk (McConnell’s Capsular arteries)C5 - noneC6 - Ophthalmic artery, Superior hypophyseal artery,C7 - Anterior choroidal, ACA, MCA, PCom

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42
Q

What does the caroticotympanic artery supply? What does it anastamose with? What does an aberrant artery symptomatically present as?

A

Supplies the middle and inner ear

Anastamoses with the inferior tympanic artery, which is a branch of the ascending pharyngeal

Retrotympanic pulsatile mass

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43
Q

What is the most common origin of the Vidian artery? Second most common?

A

External Carotid Artery

Internal Carotid artery at the petrous portion

Serves as an anastamosis between the two.

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44
Q

The inferolateral trunk anastamosis with the ECA by ________.

A

maxillary artery (through foramen rotundum) and the MMA

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45
Q

What are the branches of the meningohypophyseal trunk? What do they supply?

A

Tentorial Artery (Bernasconi and Cassinari) - tentorium

Inferior Hypophyseal Artery - Neurohypophysis

Dorsal Meningeal Artery - CN VI and part of the clivus

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46
Q

Pt goes in for MMA embolization. Develops unilateral blindness. Why?

A

in 0.5% of the population, the ophthalmic artery comes off the MMA

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47
Q

What is the origin of the Anterior Choroidal Artery?

A

Communicating segment of the ICA just distal to the PcommA origin

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48
Q

Recurrent Artery of Heubner arises from where?

A

A1 or A2 segment (medial distal striate artery)

Usually off of the A2

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49
Q

What does the Recurrent Artery of Heubner supply?

A

Head of the caudate
Anterior limb of the internal capsule
Anterior Putamen and Globus Pallidus
Septal Nuclei
Inferior Frontal Lobe

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50
Q

What defines the M2 segment of the MCA?

A

from the bifurcation to the genu; insular segment

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51
Q

Lateral Lenticulostriate arteries emerge from what origin?

A

perforated arteries that emerge from M1 (supply much of the basal ganglia)

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52
Q

Which segment of the PCA lies within the ambient cistern?

A

P2

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53
Q

Which segment of the PCA lies within the quadrigeminal cistern?

A

P3

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54
Q

The medial and lateral posterior choroidal arteries arise from what origin?

A

P1 and P2 segments respectively

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55
Q

The vertebral arteries arise from what origin?

A

Subclavian arteries typically (many variants)

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56
Q

The verts enter the foramina transversarium at what level?

A

C6

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57
Q

Occlusion of what vessel causes lateral medullary syndrome? What are the classic symptoms?

A

PICAClassic signs:- loss of pain and temperature on ipsilateral face but contralateral body- CN IX and X dysfunction- horner’s syndrome

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58
Q

What are the branches of the basilar artery?

A

AICALabyrinthine Artery Paramedian ArteryPontine ArteriesSCAPCA(of note PICA comes off the Verts)

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59
Q

What’s the vascular supply to the striatum?

A

Mainly: MCA (lenticulostriates)Rostrally: Recurrent Artery of HuebnerCuadally: anterior choroidal artery

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60
Q

What’s the vascular supply to the internal capsule?

A

Anterior Limb: mostly ACA, RAH (also lateral MCA lenticulostriates)

Genu: ICA perforaters and MCA lenticulostriates)

Posterior Limb: Anterior Choroidal, PcommA

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61
Q

What’s the vascular supply to the Thalamus?

A

Primarily through the PCA and its branches (including posterior choroidal)Rostrally: PcommA and Basilar Bifurcation perforators (thalamoperforating arteries)

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62
Q

What’s the vascular supply to the Medulla?

A

Anterior and Posterior Spinal ArteriesPICA and Verts

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63
Q

What’s the vascular supply to the Pons?

A

Basilar Paramedian arteries and branches Circumferential branches from the basilar

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64
Q

What’s the vascular supply to the midbrain?

A

Basilar artery, PCA, SCA, PcommA, Anteior Chroidal

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65
Q

What’s the vascular supply to Cerebellum?

A

PICA: Inferior cerebellar peduncle, vermis, tonsils, choroid of the 4th

AICA: Middle cerebellar peduncle, choroid of the 4th, anterior cerebellum

SCA: superior cerebellar peduncle, choroid of the 4th, and the DEEP nuclei

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66
Q

The SSS drains predominantly to which transverse sinus?

A

Right Transverse Sinus (60%)

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67
Q

Where does the SSS end and the transverse sinus begin?

A

internal occipital proturberance

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68
Q

The medial internal cerebral venous drainage pathway is as follows:

A

cortical medical hemisphere veins -> ISS ISS joins great cerebral vein of Galen to form Straight SInusStraight sinus - > Torcula -> transverse sinus (predominantly left)

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69
Q

What joins with the sigmoid sinus to become the superior jugular bulb?

A

inferior petrosal sinus

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70
Q

The vein of Trolard and Labbe drain into the which sinuses respectively?

A

SSS and Transverse Sinuse respectively (both originate at sylvian fissure)

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71
Q

What forms the internal cerebral veins?

A

union of the thalamostriate, choroidal, septal, and epithalamic, and lateral ventricular veins

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72
Q

What’s the course of the internal cerebral veins?

A

located in the tela choroidea of the roof of the third ventricle (velum interpositum)

travels through quadrigeminal cistern to contribute to the vein of Galen

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73
Q

What is the course of the Basal Vein of Rosenthal?

A

passes through the ambient cistern and joins the internal cerebral vein to form the vein of Galen

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74
Q

What is the course of the vein of Galen?

A

travels under the splenium and merges with the inferior sagittal sinus to form the straight sinus

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75
Q

Left vertebral artery arises from the aorta what percent of times?

A

5%

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76
Q

The ____ branch of the facial artery anastamoses with the ____ branch of the ophthalmic artery.

A

angular

orbital

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77
Q

The internal maxillary artery anastomoses with inferior lateral cavernous sinus trunk and ophthalmic artery through ____.

A

ethmoidal branches

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78
Q

What are the segments of the intracavernous ICA?

A
  1. Ascending portion2. posterior genu3. horizontal portion4. anterior genu5. remainder of ICA
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79
Q

The intracranial portion of the ICA begins at the ____.

A

distal dural ring

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80
Q

What are the branches of the medial trunk? What do they supply?

A

anterior and inferior capsular arteriesanterior and inferior pituitary

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81
Q

Aneurysms of the ICA arise from which four vessels? What is the orientation?

A

Ophthalmic - superiorly and anteriorly

Superior hypophyseal - inferiorly and medially

PComm - posterior

Anterior choroidal - superior lateral

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82
Q

Medial lenticulostriates branch from _____.

A

A1

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83
Q

The Acomm lies in what cistern?

A

cistern of the lamina terminalis

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84
Q

The recurrent artery of Heubner passes through what anatomical structure?

A

anterior perforating substance

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85
Q

The genu of the MCA courses around what structure?

A

island of Reil

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86
Q

The M3 is also known as the ______ segment.

A

opercular

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87
Q

The largest cortical branch of the MCA is the _____.

A

angular artery

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88
Q

Occlusion of what branch of the MCA causes Wernicke’s Aphasia and hemianopsia?

A

posterotemporal branch (M2 inferior trunk branch)

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89
Q

P1 lies within what cistern?

A

interpeduncular

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90
Q

What cistern does the Anterior choroidal artery go through?

A

ambient

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91
Q

The anterior choroidal artery enters the choroidal fissure at the _____.

A

plexal point (temporal horn of lateral ventricle)

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92
Q

What artery was historically sacrificed to treat parkinson’s disease? Why?

A

anterior choroidal probably due to decreased supply to VL thalamus

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93
Q

What percent of people have a complete circle of willis?

A

25%

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94
Q

What are the segments of the PICA?

A
  1. Anterior medullary segment
  2. Lateral medullary segment: supply CNs IX, X, and XI
  3. Tonsillomedullary segment: forms a large loop
  4. Telovelotonsillar segment: between tela choroidea and inferior medullary velum rostrally superior pole of the tonsils caudally
  5. Hemispheric branches
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95
Q

What are three midbrain stroke syndromes?

A

Weber’s (CN III palsy w/ contralateral hemiplegia)

Benedikt (same plus red nucleus lesion aka tremors)

Claude (CN III, contralateral hemiparesis and ataxia)

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96
Q

What percent of patients with persistent trigeminal arteries have vascular malformations or aneurysms?

A

25%

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97
Q

What is the second most common persistent fetal artery?

A

hypoglassal (after trigeminal)

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98
Q

What is the Artery of Adamkiewicz?

A

Major anterior radicular artery Originates usually at lower thoracic or upper lumbar levels (most commonly T7 but 75% arise between T9 - T12)Most frequently on the left side (70 - 80%)Joins the anterior spinal artery

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99
Q

Where do radicular arteries arise from?

A

originate from segmented branches off of the aorta (i.e. intercostals, ascending cervical, etc.)

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100
Q

What is the entrance of the radicular artery into the spinal canal?

A

intervertebral foramina

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101
Q

What is the vascular supple to the dorsal root ganglion?

A

Posterior Radicular Arteries

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102
Q

What regions of the spinal cord are especially vulnerable to ischemia?

A

border/transition areas especially T1-T4 and L1

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103
Q

Intracranial-Extracranial Anastamoses:Occipital artery

A

Vertebral (C1 and C2)

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104
Q

Intracranial-Extracranial Anastamoses:Ascending Pharyngeal Artery

A

Vertebral
ICA via petrous and cavernous branches

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105
Q

Intracranial-Extracranial Anastamoses:Angular Branch of Facial Artery

A

ICA vis angular branch of the facial artery to the orbital branch of the ophthalmic artery

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106
Q

Intracranial-Extracranial Anastamoses:Posterior Auricular Artery

A

ICA via stylomastoid artery

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107
Q

Intracranial-Extracranial Anastamoses:Middle Meningeal Artery (Maxillary)

A

ethmoidal branch of the ophthalmic

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108
Q

Intracranial-Extracranial Anastamoses:Artery of foramen rotundum (Maxillary)

A

inferior lateral trunk

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109
Q

Intracranial-Extracranial Anastamoses:Accessory meningeal artery (Maxillary)

A

inferior lateral trunk

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110
Q

Intracranial-Extracranial Anastamoses:Vidian Artery (Maxillary)

A

Petrous ICA

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111
Q

Intracranial-Extracranial Anastamoses:Pharyngeal Artery

A

Cavernous ICA

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112
Q

Intracranial-Extracranial Anastamoses:Temporal branches (Maxillary)

A

Ophthalmic Artery

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113
Q

Intracranial-Extracranial Anastamoses:Infraorbital Artery

A

Ophthalmic Artery

114
Q

Which cells are the main source cortical output?

A

pyramidal cells

115
Q

Which cortical areas contain allocortex?

A

olfactory, hippocampus, dentate gyrus

116
Q

What neocortical layers contain Martinotti’s cells?

A

internal and external pyramidal layers

117
Q

External and internal band of ballinger are located in what neocortical layers?

A

External - internal granular layer

Internal - internal pyramidal layer

118
Q

Betz cells are located in the _____.

A

internal pyramidal layer

119
Q

Primary somatosensory cortex is located on _______ on BA ______.

A

post central gyrus

1,2,3

120
Q

Primary motor cortex is located on ______. on BA ______.

A

Precentral gyrus

4

121
Q

Tertiary somatosensory is located on ______. on BA ______.

A

superior parietal lobule

5

122
Q

Supplementary and Premotor cortex is located on ______. on BA ______.

A

Precentral gyrus and anterior adjacent cortex

6

123
Q

Frontal eye field is located on ______. on BA ______.

A

Superior and middle frontal gyri

8

124
Q

Primary visual cortex is located on ______. on BA ______.

A

banks of calcarine fissure

17

125
Q

Secondary and tertiary visual cortex are located on ______. on BA ______.

A

medial and lateral occipital gyri

18 and 19 respectively

126
Q

Higher order auditory cortex is located on ______. on BA ______ and is responsible for _____.

A

superior temporal gyrus

22

hearing and speech

127
Q

Primary olfactory cortex is located on ______. on BA ______.

A

parahippocampal gyrus and temporal pole

28, 34-26, 38

128
Q

Angular gyrus is located on BA ____.

129
Q

Supramarginal gyrus is located on BA ______.

130
Q

Primary and secondary auditory cortex are located on ______. on BA ______.

A

Heschl’s and superior temporal gyrus

41 and 42 respectively

131
Q

Primary gustatory cortex is located on ______. on BA ______.

A

insular and frontoparietal operculum

43

132
Q

Broca’s area is located on ______. on BA ______.

A

inferior frontal gyrus (frontal operculum)

44

133
Q

What structure in the auditory pathway is needed for sound localization?

A

trapezoid body (commissure)

134
Q

What BA is Wernicke’s?

135
Q

The MGB is organized ____ with ____ frequencies located _____.

A

tonotopically

higher

medially

136
Q

Which motor areas have bilateral projection from the cortex?

A

eyes, face, and tongue

137
Q

Which thalamic nuclei comprise the primary motor input to M1?

A

Ipsilateral thalamic ventrolateral (VL) and ventrolateral pars oralis (VLo)

138
Q

Which side of the cerebellum has inputs to M1?

A

contralateral

139
Q

What composes the epithalamus? What is its function?

A

Pineal gland, habenulae, stria medullaris, roof of the third ventricle

circadian rhythm, linking olfactory to the brainstem

140
Q

What composes the anterior nuclear group of the thalamus?

A

anteroventral

anterodorsal

anteromedial

141
Q

What is the function of the anterior nuclear group of the thalamus?

A

regulation of visceral function

142
Q

What is the function of the mediodorsal nuclear group?

A

Integrates somatic and visceral activities and controls affective behavior

143
Q

A lesion of the mediodorsal nuclear group causes ______.

A

Korsakoff’s psychosis

144
Q

What composes the intralaminar nuclear group?

A

Centromedial

Parafascicular

Rostral intralaminar

145
Q

What is the function of the intralaminar nuclear group?

A

thalamic pacemaker for controlling electrical activities and wakefulness; interacts with RAS

146
Q

What composes the midline nuclei of the thalamus?

A

periventricular gray

Massa intermedia

147
Q

What composes the dorsal lateral nuclear group?

A

LD, LP, Pulvinar

148
Q

What is the primary function of the pulvinar? What are its principle inputs and outputs?

A

extrageniculate visual pathway (secondary visual areas)inputs from inferior colliculus and visual cortex; outputs to areas 18 and 19

149
Q

What composes the metathalmus?

A

medial and lateral geniculate bodies

150
Q

What composes the ventral lateral nuclear group?

A

VA, VL, VP (VPLo, VPLc, VPM, VPI)

151
Q

The mamillothalamic tract passes through what thalamic nuceli?

152
Q

What is the function of VA?

A

integrating cortical and basal ganglia programming

153
Q

What are the four thalamic peduncles?

A

Anterior: fibers from the medial and anterior thalamic nuclei → frontal lobe.

Superior: connections → sensorimotor to precentral and postcentral gyri.

Posterior: connections → visual to calcarine cortex.

Inferior: connections → auditory to Heschl’s gyri

154
Q

The habenula is involved in ______.

A

pathways of smell and basic emotions that influence visceral responses

155
Q

What endocrine hormones are secreted by the pineal gland?

A

Thyroid-releasing hormone, luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone, and somatostatin

156
Q

What is the neostriatum or striatum?

A

caudate and putamen

157
Q

What is the paleostriatum?

A

globus palidus

158
Q

What is the corpus striatum?

A

Neostriatum and paleostriatum

159
Q

What is archistriatum?

160
Q

What is the lentiform nuclei?

A

Putamen and globus palidus

161
Q

What are the subcomponents of the caudate?

A

Head, Body, Tail, Nucleus accumbens

162
Q

What is contiguous with the head of the caudate?

A

anterior perforated substance

163
Q

The tail of the caudate forms the roof of the _____.

A

temporal horn

164
Q

What are the five main inputs into the striatum? What are the three main outputs?

A
  1. Corticostriate fibers (most important) 2. Amygdalostriate fibers 3. Thalamostriate fibers 4. Niagrostriatal 5. Raphe Nucleus
  2. Striatonigral 2. Striatopallidal 3. Niagorthalamic
165
Q

The Lateral Medullary Lamina separates the _______ and ______.

A

putamen; GP

166
Q

The Medial Medullary Lamina separates the _______ and ______.

A

Medial and lateral GP

167
Q

The Accessory Medullary Lamina separates the _______ and ______.

A

inner and out segments of medial GP

168
Q

Huntington’s disease involves decrease in what neurotransmitters in what locations?

A

substance P and enkephalin in GP and SN

169
Q

What is the main output tract of the globus palidus?

A

Ansa lenticularis

170
Q

A lesion to the subthalamus causes what clinical presentation?

A

contralateral hemiballisumus

171
Q

What composes the basal ganglia?

A

corpus striatum, amygdala, subthalamic nuclei, substantia niagra

172
Q

What is the zona incerta?

A

gray matter between the thalamic and lenticular fasciculi

173
Q

What is the overall output of the corpus straitum?

A

inhibitory to MGP and SNpr that inhibits the thalamic output to the premotor and supplementary motor cortex, but not to area 4

174
Q

What is the putamen circuit?

A

involved in discrete motor movements

Fibers from motor and somatosensory cortex → putamen → GP → thalamus → supplementary motor cortex.

175
Q

What is the caudate circuit?

A

involved with cognitive function

Fibers from cortical association areas → caudate → GP → thalamus → supplementary motor cortex

176
Q

The ______ area of the hypothalamus is continuous with the periaqueductal gray.

A

median hypothalamic

177
Q

What hypothalamic nuclei secrete vasopressin and oxytocin?

A

paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei respectively

178
Q

Which hypothalamic nuclei serve as the biologic clock?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

179
Q

What is the median forebrain bundle?

A

From basal olfactory areas, septal nuclei, periamygdala, and subiculum → lateral preoptic and lateral hypothalamic areas

Information related to basic emotional drives and smell

180
Q

The fornix connects the ____ to the _____.

A

hippocampus to the mammillary bodies

181
Q

What is the strai terminalis?

A

Travels within the terminal sulcus (between the thalamus and caudate).

Amygdala → hypothalamus (anterior and preoptic nuclei

Information related to emotional drives and smell

182
Q

The dorsal longitudinal fasciculus connects the ____ to the ______.

A

midbrain’s central gray

periventricular hypothalamus

183
Q

What’s another name for the mammillothalamic tract?

A

“Hypothalamic–thalamic tract of Vicq d’Azyr”

184
Q

What general region of the hypothalamus controls each of the following:
Parasympathetic:
Sympathetic:
Decreases body temperature:
Increases body temperature:
Satiety center:
Feeding center:
Arousal center:

A

Parasympathetic: anterior and medial (ventromedial) hypothalamic nuclei.
Sympathetic: posterior and lateral hypothalamic nuclei.
Decreases body temperature: anterior hypothalamic nucleus.
Increases body temperature: posterior hypothalamic nucleus.
Satiety center: medial hypothalamic nucleus.
Feeding center: lateral hypothalamic nucleus.
Arousal center: posterior hypothalamic nucleus

185
Q

What is the origin of the adenohypophysis?

A

Ectodermal origin from roof of the stomodeum

186
Q

What are the components of the adenohypophysis?

A
  1. Pars tuberalis
  2. Pars intermedia
  3. Pars distalis: majority of the gland, has no directarterial supply
187
Q

What is the origin of the neurohypophysis?

A

diencephalic

188
Q

What are the components of the neurohypophysis?

A
  1. Pars nervosa (posterior lobe)
  2. Infundibulum
  3. Nuclei (supraoptic and paraventricular)
189
Q

What is the only sensory system without thalamic relay?

190
Q

What composes primary olfactory cortex?

A

pyriform cortex + periamygdaloid cortex

191
Q

What is the pyriform cortex?

A

the lateral olfactory gyrus from the lateral olfactory stria to the amygdala

192
Q

What are the three lobes of the cerebellum?

A

anterior, posterior, flocculonodular

193
Q

How many lobules are there of the vermis?

194
Q

What composes the archicerebellum?

A

flocculus and nodules

195
Q

What composes the paleocerebellum?

A

anterior lobe and part of the vermis (lingula, centralis, and culmen)

196
Q

What composes the neocerebellum?

A

posterior lobe and part of the vermis (declive, folium, tuber, pyramis, and uvula)

197
Q

What neurotransmitter is used by Purkinje cells?

198
Q

Which spinocerebellar tract is crossed and which is uncrossed?

A

dorsal - uncrossed

ventral - crossed

199
Q

What are the upper extremity equivalents spinocerebellar tracts?

A

cuneocerebellar tract, rostral spinocerebellar tract

200
Q

Name the deep nuclei of the cerebellum from medial to lateral.

A

Fastigial, Globose, Emboliform, Dentate

201
Q

The fastigial nucleus of the cerebellum is mainly involved what?

A

vestibular function

202
Q

What forms the hippocampal formation?

A

presubiculum, subiculum, prosubiculum, hippocampus, and dentate gyrus

203
Q

What is the indusium griseum?

A

composed of supracallosal gyrus and medial and lateral longitudinal striae

Connects septal area with hippocampus

204
Q

Entorhinal cortex is BA ____.

205
Q

The primary source of output of the hippocampus is through the _____.

A

fornix and subiculum

206
Q

Stimulation or lesioning of the hippocampus causes what type of seizures?

A

psychomotor

207
Q

What is the circuit of Papez?

A

Bidirectional connection from the subiculum → mamillary bodies → mammillothalamic tract → anterior thalamic nucleus → entorhinal cortex → subiculum. Mnemonic: Some Merry Mothers Are Extremely Silly

208
Q

What are the second order neurons in the olfactory pathway?

A

mitral and tufted cells in the olfactory bulb

209
Q

Mitral cells transmit information to the _____ olfactory area while tufted cells transmit to ______ olfactory area.

A

lateral

medial and all others

210
Q

What composes the lateral olfactory area?

A

Uncus, Entorhinal area, Limen Inusla, Amygdala

211
Q

What composes the intermidiate olfactory area?

A

anterior peforated substance

212
Q

What composes the medial olfactory area?

A

septal area (subcallosal region of the medial frontal lobe)

213
Q

_______ connects all three olfactory areas.

A

Diagonal band of broca

214
Q

CN III passes between what major vessels?

A

PCA and SCA

215
Q

What are the divisions of the oculomotor nerve?

A

(Superior division: supply superior rectus and levator palpebrae superioris muscles. It ascends lateral to the optic nerve

Inferior division: supply inferior rectus, inferior oblique, and medial rectus muscles. Parasympathetic fibers travel with the inferior division

216
Q

The _____ cilliary nerve carries parasympathics from the ciliary ganglion.

217
Q

The oculomotor complex is located at the level of the _______.

A

superior colliculus

218
Q

The trochlear nucleus is located at the level of the _______.

A

inferior colliculus

219
Q

CN IV courses between which major intracranial vessels?

A

PCA and SCA (with CN III)

220
Q

Which cranial nerve is the only nerve to exit from the dorsum of the brainstem?

221
Q

Which cranial nerve has the longest intracranial course?

222
Q

Which is the smallest cranial nerve?

223
Q

What are the three sensory nuclei of CN V? What are their functions?

A

Mesencephalic nucleus: conveys proprioceptor information from the muscles of mastication.

Chief sensory nucleus: conveys light touch from face.

Spinal nucleus: conveys pain, temperature, and deep pressure information.

224
Q

What are the two nerve roots of the trigeminal nerve? General function?

A

Portio major (sensory)

Portio minor (motor)

225
Q

What are other names for the trigeminal ganglion?

A

semilunar and gasserian

226
Q

Where is the trigeminal ganglion located?

A

in Meckel’s cave on the floor of the middle fossa

227
Q

What are the three sensory divisions of the trigeminal nerve? Where do they exit the skull base?

A

ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2), and mandibular (V3), exit the skull via superior orbital fissure, foramen rotundum, and foramen ovale, respectively

228
Q

What muscles are innervated by CN V?

A

Mastication (masseter, temporalis, medial, and lateral pterygoids).

Mylohyoid.

Anterior belly of the digastric muscle (note: posterior belly = CN VII).

Tensor tympani.

Tensor veli palatini

229
Q

The CN V branches of the tensor veli palatini and tensor tympani pass throug the ______ but do not synapse.

A

otic ganglion

230
Q

What are the three components of the spinal trigeminal nucleus?

A

Pars oralis, pars interpolaris, pars caudalis

231
Q

The tearing reflex is mediated by ______.

A

CN V1 to the superior salivatory nucleus

232
Q

What is the sneezing pathway?

A

CN V → nucleus ambiguus → respiratory center of the reticular formation → phrenic nerves → intercostal muscles

233
Q

Which cranial nerves enter the annulus of Zinn?

A

CN III and VI

234
Q

The paramedian pontine reticular formation connects _______.

A

horizontal and vertical gaze centers

235
Q

What is the most frequently injured cranial nerve? Why?

A

CN VI

position low along the clivus/dorello’s canal

236
Q

A lesion of the CN VI nerve causes _____ while damage to the nucleus causes ______.

A

impaired ipsilateral lateral gaze

impaired ipsilateral lateral gaze for both eyes

237
Q

What forms the facial colliculus?

A

CN VII axons wrapping around the CN VI nucleus

238
Q

What is the first muscle brance of CN VII?

A

nerve to the stapedius (arises 6 mm above the stylomastoid foramen)

239
Q

What fibers are located in the nervus intermedius?

A

GVE, GSA, and SVA

240
Q

The Greater Superficial Petrosal Nerve is a branch of ______.

A

nervus intermedius

241
Q

The GSPN exits the petrous temporal bone via the _______ and enters the _____ to join the ______ to form the ______.

A

greater petrosal foramen

vidian (pterygoid) canal

deep petrosal nerve

nerve of the pterygoid canal

242
Q

The nerve of the pterygoid canal joins the ____ nerve to innervate the ______.

A

V2

lacrimal gland and mucosa of the mouth

243
Q

The chorda tympani joins the _____ nerve to innervate ______.

A

V3

submandibular and sublingual glands

244
Q

The chorda tympani exits the skull base via the ______.

A

petrotympanic fissure

245
Q

CN VII provides sensation to what region? Through what ganglion?

A

external auditory meatus and back of the ear

geniculate ganglion

246
Q

Taste in CN VII travels through what CN? Through what ganglion? To what nucleus?

A

chorda tympani

geniculate ganglion

rostal nucelus solitarius

247
Q

What are the branches of the facial nerve from proximal to distal?

A

Greater superficial petrosal nerve (just before the geniculate ganglion).

Nerve to the stapedius

Chorda tympani

Motor branches: temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical branches (mnemonic: “Ten Zebras Bit My Clock”)

248
Q

The acoustic reflex involves _____ output to the ______ nerves.

A

superior oliverary complex

CN VII (stapedius), CN V (tensor tympani)

249
Q

A lateral lemniscus lesion causes _______.

A

contralateral deafness

250
Q

Unilateral damage to MLF rostral to CN VI causes _____ while bilateral causes ______.

A

weakness of the ipsilateral lateral rectus, contralateral nystagmus, and normal convergence

internuclear ophthalmoplegia damage, no eye adduction

251
Q

CN IX leaves the medulla between _____.

A

olive and inferior cerebellar peduncle

252
Q

CN IX sends off a ______. branch prior to exiting the skull.

A

tympanic (jacobson’s

253
Q

CN IX provides sensatio to _____

A

Back of the ear, Inner surface of the tympanic membrane, Posterior one-third of the tongue, Upper pharynx

254
Q

Jacobson’s nerve goes through the ______ ganglion, joining the ______ nerve, exiting the skull base through the ______, to synapse in the _____ ganglion, and travels with the _____ nerve to the ______ gland.

A

inferior

lesser petrosal nerve

foramen ovale

otic

auricotemporal branch (V3)

parotid

255
Q

How does glossopharyngeal neuralgia present?

A

pain behind the ear or in the mouth, often precipitated by swallowing or coughing

256
Q

The two ganglia of the vagus nerve are _____ and are located ______.

A

superior (jugular), inferior (nodose)

beneath the jugular foramen

257
Q

Arnold’s nerve is a branch of ______.

258
Q

Arnold’s nerve provides sensation to ______.

A

ear, external auditory meatus, and external surface of the tympanic membrane

259
Q

The vocal chords and subglottis are supplied by which nerve? What’s it a branch of?

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

vagus

260
Q

The pharyngeal branch of CN X supplies ______ except for _____.

A

all the muscles of the pharynx and soft palate

stylopharengeus (IX) and tensor veli palatini (V)

261
Q

The cardiac plexus is supplied by what nerve?

262
Q

CN XII innervates all muscles of the tongue except ______.

A

palatoglossus (X)

263
Q

In the midbrain, what important structures are at the level of the superior colliculus?

A

superior colliculus, oculomotor nucleus, red nucleus, superior cerebellar peduncle, and SN

264
Q

Unilateral damage to the superior colliculus causes _____.

A

contralateral visual field neglect, impaired tracking, but no deficit with eye movements

265
Q

Stimulation of the superior colliculus causes _____.

A

contralateral conjugate eye deviation

266
Q

How do you calculate Cerebral Perfusion Pressure?

A

CPP = MAP - ICP = (2/3 DBP + 1/3 PP) - ICP

267
Q

Hypoxia causes _______ of cerebrovasculature.

A

vasodilation

268
Q

Hypotension leads to _________ of cerebrovasculature.

A

Vasodilation (therefore increased ICP)

269
Q

CNS blood vessels have what embryologic origin?

270
Q

The anterior perforating substance is perforated by what artery?

A

Recurrent artery of Huebner

271
Q

The M3 segment of the MCA is called the____.

A

opercular segment

272
Q

What is the largest cortical branch of the MCA?

A

angular artery (M2 inferior trunk)

273
Q

What are Forel’s Field?

A

white matter areas below the thalamus that contain the output tracts of the GP to the thalamus

274
Q

The ansa leticularis passes _____ the IC and the leticular fasciculus passes _____ the IC.

A

around

through

275
Q

What is contained within the Anterior commissure?

A

Anterior: connection between olfactory bulbs

Posterior: connection between bilateral GP, putamen, external capsules, claustra, and inferior and middle frontal gyri

276
Q

What is the function of the dorsal spinocerebellar tract?

A

propioception from joints, muscle spindles, golgi tendons

277
Q

What is the function of ventral spinocerebellar tract?

A

conveys efferent copies of motor commands to alpha-motor neurons; lower extremities

278
Q

What is the function of the cuneocerebellar tract?

A

conveys proprioception in upper extremities

279
Q

What is the function of the rostral spinocerebellar tract?

A

conveys efferent copies of motor commands to alpha-motor neurons; upper extremities

280
Q

What’s the difference between mossy and climbing fibers?

A

Climbing fibers go to the cerebellum from the inferior olivary complex. Mossy fibers comes from everywhere else. They are both stimulatory (glutamate)

281
Q

What are the sensory and autonomic ganglia associated with each cranial nerves?

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