Physiological Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

Who created phrenology?

A

Franz Gall

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2
Q

What is extirpation or ablation? Who pioneered this?

A

When various parts of the brain are surgically removed and the behavioral affects are observed.

Pierre Flourens

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3
Q

What is functionalism and who was the father of it?

A

Functionalism is a system of thought in psychology that was concerned with studying how mental processes help individuals adapt to their environments.

William James

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4
Q

What are the three types of nerve cells?

A

Motor neurons (efferent), sensory neurons (affarent), and interneurons.

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5
Q

Where are interneurons most found?

A

Brain and spinal cord.

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6
Q

What is an example of the reflex arc in action?

A

You step on a nail, the affarent neurons detect that and send a message up to the spinal cord, then directly back down the efferent neurons which take your foot away. This is without the neurons telling the brain initially. It’s the spinal cord at first.

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7
Q

What structures make up the CNS?

A

The brain and spinal cord.

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8
Q

What structures make up the PNS?

A

Nerve tissue and fibers outside the brain and spinal cord. The PNS connects the CNS to the rest of the body.

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9
Q

What categories are the PNS divided into?

A

The somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.

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10
Q

What type of fibers are affarent?

A

Sensory. Affarent fibers ASCEND up to the brain.

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11
Q

What type of fibers are efferent?

A

Motor. Efferent fibers EXIT the brain and spinal cord on their way down to the muscles.

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12
Q

What does the somatic nervous system consist of?

A

Sensory and motor neurons distributed throughout the skin and muscles.

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13
Q

What does the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) do?

A

Regulates heartbeat, respiration, digestion, and glandular secretions. It manages the involuntary muscles associated with many internal organs and glands in addition to helping to regulate body temperature. AUTONOMIC controls AUTOMATIC functions.

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14
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the ANS?

A

The sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system. These two often work in opposition to each other.

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15
Q

What is the main role of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

To conserve energy. It’s associated with resting and sleeping states, and acts to reduce heart and respiration rates. To summarize, the Parasympathetic Nervous System promotes RESTING AND DIGESTION.

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16
Q

What is the neurotransmitter responsible for parasympathetic responses in the body?

A

Acetycholine

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17
Q

When does the sympathetic nervous system kick in?

A

Whenever you’re in a stressful situation. It’s also closely related with the “fight or flight” response.

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18
Q

What are some effects of the sympathetic nervous system being activated?

A

Increased heart rate, blood-sugar level, and respiration as well as a decreasse in digestion and widening of pupils.

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19
Q

What are the 3 most basic subdivisions of the human brain?

A

forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain

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20
Q

What are the hindbrain’s primary functions?

A

Balance, motor coordination, breathing, digestion, and general arousal processes such as sleeping and waking.

The hindbrain manages vital functioning necessary for survival.

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21
Q

What is the midbrain’s primary function?

A

To receive sensory and motor information. It is associated with involuntary reflex responses triggered by visual or auditory stimuli.

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22
Q

What is the funtion of the forebrain associated with?

A

Complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes along with emotions and memory. The forebrain has the greatest influence on human behavior.

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23
Q

What structures make up the brainstem?

A

Hindbrain and midbrain

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24
Q

Through evolution, what was the next brain region to develop after the brain stem? What is it responsible for?

A

The limbic system. Associated with emotion and memory. Aggression, fear, pleasure, pain are all associated with the limbic system.

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25
Q

What is the term for evolutionary development in humans?

A

Phelogeny

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26
Q

What is the medulla oblongata responsible for and where is it located?

A

Regulating vital functions such as breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure. Located in the hindbrain.

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27
Q

What is the pons and where is it located?

A

Lies above the medulla and contains sensory and motor tracts between the cortex and the medulla.

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28
Q

What is the cerebellum?

A

Located in the hindbrain, the cerebellum helps maintain posture and balance and coordinates body movements.

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29
Q

What is the reticular formation and where is it located?

A

Extends from the hindbrain into the midbrain and regulates arousal, alertness and attention.

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30
Q

What do the superior and inferior colliculi do?

A

The superior colliculus receives visual input, and the inferior colliculus reveives sensory information from the auditory system. Superior is involved in SEEING.

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31
Q

What does the thalamus do and where is it located?

A

It’s a structure within the forebrain that serves as a relay station for incoming sensory information, except the sense or smell.

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32
Q

Where is the hypothalamus and what does it do?

A

The hypothalamus is responsible for a number of homeostatic functions: emotional experience during high arousal states, aggressive behavior and sexual behavior.

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33
Q

Who developed the conceptualization of a homeostasis?

A

Walter Cannon.

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34
Q

What is the maintenence of water balence in the body called and what structure regulates it?

A

Osmoregulation. Hypothalamus.

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35
Q

True or False?

The hypothalamus is also important in drive behaviors such as hunger, thirst, and sexual behavior.

A

True.

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36
Q

What are the 3 subdivisions of the hypothalamus?

A

Lateral hypothalamus, ventromedial hypothalamus, and anterior hypothalamus.

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37
Q

What is referred to as “The Hunger Center” and why?

A

The lateral hypothalamus because it has special receptors to detect when your body needs more food or liquids.

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38
Q

What is aphagia?

A

The disorder in which someone refuses to eat or drink, possibly as a result of a damaged hypothalamus. Lacking Hunger= Lateral Hypothalamus.

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39
Q

What is the “Satiety Center” and what does it do?

A

Ventromedia hypothalamus. It tells us when we’ve had enough to eat. Brain lesions in this area usually lead to obesity.

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40
Q

What is hyperphagia?

A

Excessive eating. Very Hungry= Venromedia Hypothalamus.

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41
Q

What portion of the brain manages the “fight or flight” response and what area of the brain typically inhibits the response?

A

The hypothalamus manages the response and the cortex typically inhibits it.

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42
Q

What is the anterior hypothalamus associated with?

A

Sexual behavior. A stimulated AH causes increased sexual behavior while damage to it leads to permenent inhibition of sexual activity.

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43
Q

What are the basal ganglia and what do they do?

A

Group of structures in the middle of the brain that coordinates muscle movement as it receives information from the cortex and relays this information (via the extrapyramidal motor system) to the brain and spinal cord.

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44
Q

Extrapyramidal motor system

A

Gather information about body position (from areas such as the basal ganglia) and carries this info to the brain and spinal cord. It helps to make our movements smooth and our posture steady.

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45
Q

What diseases are associated with the basal ganglia?

A

Parkinson’s disease and also possibly schizophrenia

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46
Q

What are ventricles?

A

Fluid-filled cavities in the middle of the brain that link up with the spinal canal that runs down the middle of the spinal cord.

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47
Q

What structures make up the limbic system?

A

Septum, amygdala, and hippocampus as well as portions of the hypothalamus and cortex.

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48
Q

What is the septum associated with?

A

Pleasure and aggression. It is one of the primary pleasure centers in the brain. In addition, if the septal area is damaged, aggressive behavior goes unchecked and the result is vicious behavior called septal rage.

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49
Q

James Olds and Peter Milner discovered the function of what structure of the brain in the 1950’s?

A

The septum. Stimulation of this area of the brain is intensely sexually arousing and pleasurable.

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50
Q

What does the amygdala do?

A

Plays an important role in defensive and aggressive behaviors.

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51
Q

Heinrick Kluver and Paul Bucy performed studies in which they damaged a part of monkeys’ brains which caused docility and hypersexual states. This is called Kluver-Bucy syndrome. What part of the brain did they damage?

A

The amygdala.

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52
Q

What does the hippocampus play a role in?

A

Learning and memory processes.

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53
Q

What is the type of amnesia called that renders the patient unable to retain any new memories?

A

Anterograde amnesia

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54
Q

What is retrograde amnesia?

A

Memory loss of events that transpired before the brain injury.

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55
Q

What are the numerous bumps and folds in the cerebral cortex called?

A

Convolutions

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56
Q

What are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex?

A

Frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, and temporal lobe.

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57
Q

What are the two basic regions of the frontal lobe?

A

Prefrontal lobes and motor cortex.

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58
Q

What does the prefrontal cortex do?

A

Governs and integrates numerous cognitive and behavioral processes. This lobe supervises processes associated with perception, memory, emotion, impulse control, and long-term planning.

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59
Q

What is an example of the prefrontal cortex working?

A

In memory, for instance, the role of the prefrontal cortex is not to store any memory traces, but rather to remind you that you have something to remember.

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60
Q

Why is the prefrontal cortex an example of an association area?

A

Because it integrates information from different cortical regions. For example, multiple inputs may be necessary to solve a complex puzzle, to plan ahead for the future, or to reach a difficult solution.

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61
Q

What are projection areas?

A

Areas that receive incoming sensory information or send out motor-impulse commands. Examples include the visual cortex, which receives visual input from the retina.

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62
Q

What does the motor cortex do?

A

Initiates voluntary motor movements by sending neural impulses down the spinal cord toward the muscles.

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63
Q

True or False?

In humans, the amount of cortex devoted to association areas is substantially larger than the amount devoted to projection areas.

A

True.

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64
Q

In the 1950’s, what was used to treat schizophrenia?

A

Prefrontal labotomies. Surgeons would disconnect the frontal lobe from the limbic system and hypothalamus, both of which regions are associated with mood and emotion.

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65
Q

How are the neurons in the motor cortex arranged?

A

Starting at the top of the motor cortex, motor neurons are connected to the toes of the opposite foot. As you move down the motor cortex, motor neurons are connected to the toes of the opposite foot.

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66
Q

Where is Broca’s area and what is it important for?

A

Broca’s area is in the left hemisphere and is vitally important for speech production.

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67
Q

What is located in the parietal lobe?

A

Somatosensory cortex

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68
Q

What is the somatosensory cortex?

A

It is involved in somatosensory processing. This projection area is the destination for all incoming sensory signals for touch, pressure, temperature, and pain.

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69
Q

True or false?

The somatosensory cortex and motor cortex are not closely related at all.

A

False. The somatosensory cortex and motor cortex are very closely related. In fact, they are so interrelated they sometimes are described as a single unit: the sensorimotor cortex.

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70
Q

What is the central region of the parietal lobe associated with?

A

Spatial processing and manipulation. This region makes it possible for you to orient yourself in a 3D space.

71
Q

Where are the occipital lobes and what do they contain?

A

They are at the very rear of the brain and include the visual cortex. Areas in the occipital lobe have also been implicated in learning and motor control.

72
Q

What researchers made important advances in discovering function of the visual cortex?

A

David Hubel and Torsten Wiesel.

73
Q

Where are the auditory cortex and Wernike’s area?

A

The temporal lobes

74
Q

What is Wernicke’s area associated with?

A

Language reception and comprehension. It enables us to understand spoken language.

75
Q

What are some of the functions of the temporal lobes?

A

Serves in memory processing, emotional control, and language. Electrical stim of the temporal lobe can evoke memories for past events. This makes sense because the hippocampus is located inside the temporal lobe.

76
Q

What generally is the side of the brain that is considered the dominant?

A

The dominant hemisphere is generally located opposite to the hand used for writing. It’s estimated that for this reason, the left hemisphere is dominant for about 97% of all people.

77
Q

What is the function of the left or dominant hemisphere?

A

It’s primarily analytic in function. Logic, language and math skills are all located in the left hemisphere. Broca and Wernicke’s areas are both located here.

78
Q

What is the role of the right or nondominant hemisphere?

A

It is more sensitive to the emotional tone of the spoken language and permits us to recognize the mood of others by their tone of voice. It is also associated with intuition, creativity, music, and spatial processing. None of these things are logical, so it make sense that they are controlled by the right hemisphere.

79
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

A large collection of fibers connecting the left and right hemispheres.

80
Q

Who studied the effects of severing the corpus collosum?

A

Roger Sperry and Michael Gazzaniga

81
Q

What did Sperry and Gazzaniga discover?

A

They studied epileptic patients whose corpus collosum had been severed to limit seizures. In a “split brain” patient, each hemisphere has its own function and specialization that is no longer accessible to each other. Associate SPlit brain with SPerry and Gazzaniga.

82
Q

What is resting potential?

A

A slight negative eleictrical charge (-70 mV) stored inside the membrane of the neuron- a charge waiting to be transformed into a nerve impulse.

83
Q

What is the neuron said to be in its resting state?

A

Polorized. When charged particles are separated, this is the resting state of the neuron. The charge outside the neuron is more positive than the inside of the neuron.

84
Q

Generally speaking, are Na ions inside or outside the cell? What about K?

A

Sodium (-) ions are outside the cell generally, Potassium (+) are generally inside.

85
Q

What does the sodium-potassium pump do?

A

Pumps K ions out of the cell as Na ions move in. This ensures that the cell’s electricity never equals the outside of the cell. If this happened, the neuron would not be able to fire.

86
Q

What are the four stages of the firing of a neuron in order?

A

Resting potential, depolarization, action potential spike, and hyperpolarization.

87
Q

What is depolarization of a neuron?

A

The actual firing of a neuron. Occurs when a stimulus has been significant enough to cause the membrane’s ential to increase to the threshold potential, typically about -50 mV.

88
Q

What is the action potential spike?

A

The rapid electrical pulse that the membrane produces when the neuron reaches the -50mV threshold. Occurs when the cell membrane’s charge suddenly becomes positive because of the influx of sodium ions.

89
Q

What is repolarization?

A

The act of the cell becoming negative again by allowing positively charged K ions to rush out of the cell.

90
Q

What is hyperpolarization?

A

When the restoration of the membrane’s negative charge happens, it occurs so quickly that the membrane briefly overshoots its original negative charge from resting potential.

91
Q

What is the absolute refractory period?

A

The achievement of the action potential. During the ARP, the neuron is completely unresponsive to additional stimulation.

92
Q

What law states that when depolarization reaches the critical threshold, -50mV, the neuron is going to fire, each and EVERY TIME.

A

The All-or-Nothing Law.

93
Q

What is the point where the axon meets the cell body?

A

The axon hillock.

94
Q

What is the basic function of myelin?

A

To insulate the axon and speed up conduction.

95
Q

What is the process by which an action potential jumps from node to node on a myelinated axon?

A

Saltatory conduction.

96
Q

What are the nodes of Randier?

A

The gaps in myelin along an axon.

97
Q

Where does depolarization occur?

A

The nodes of Randier. The action potential skips from node to node, which is faster than having a single impulse traveling sequentially down the axon.

98
Q

What is the process in which neurotransmitters from a fired neuron are drawn back into the vesicles of the terminal buttons?

A

Reuptake

99
Q

Neurotransmitters fit into receptors like a lock and key- if you don’t have the right neurotransmitter key, it won’t fit into the receptor lock. What is the occurence called when the correct neurotransmitter fits into the right receptor?

A

Binding.

100
Q

What is a postynaptic potential?

A

The tiny electrical charge that is generated once a neurotransmitter binds to the receptor site on the dendrite.

101
Q

What is it called when the postsynaptic potential makes it more likely that a neuron will fire?

A

Excitatory postsynaptic potential

102
Q

What is it called when the postsynaptic potential makes it less likely to fire?

A

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential

103
Q

What is a graded potential?

A

This is what postsynaptic potentials in dendrites are. This means their voltage can vary in intensity. Post-synaptic potentials are not subject to the all-or-nothing law. The voltage depends on how much receptor sites are stimulated by neurotransmitters.

104
Q

Who first studied the neural networks in aplysia (sea snails)?

A

Eric Kandel

105
Q

What did Eric Kandel discover by studying the aplysia’s gills?

A

He discovered HABITUATION. He found that when lightly touched, their gills withdraw automatically. As the snails gradually learned that this stimulation was harmless, they stopped withdrawing their gills. He found that after they had habituated, the neurons governing the gill-withdrawal reflex released smaller amounts of neurotransmitter.

In other words: changes in synaptic trasmission underlie changes in behavior!

106
Q

What neurotransmitter is used to transmit nerve impulses to the muscles in the PNS?

A

Acetylcholine

107
Q

What illness is associated with acetylcholine?

A

Alzheimer’s disease. Alzheimer’s is specifically associated with with the loss of acetylcholine in neurons that connect with the hippocampus- a vital memory structure in the brain.

108
Q

What neurotransmitters are known as catecholmines?

A

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine

109
Q

What neurotransmitter is involved in controlling alertness and wakefulness?

A

Norepinepherine

110
Q

What disorders is Norepinepherine associated with?

A

Mood disorders such as depression and mania.

111
Q

What neurotransmitter plays an important role in movement and posture?

A

Dopamine. High concentrations are found in the basal ganglia- a brain structure that helps make our movements smooth and posture steady.

112
Q

What is the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?

A

The argument that delusions, hallucination, and agitation associated with schizophrenia arise from either too much dopamine or an oversensitivity to dopamine in the brain. This theory has not been proven nor disproven.

113
Q

Is dopamine believed to play a role in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Yes. Disruptions of dopamine transmission lead to tremors and jerky motor movements.

114
Q

What is L-Dopa a treatment for?

A

Parkinson’s disease. It increases the dopamin production in the brain and reduces symptoms. Side effects due to an oversupply of dopamine in the brain are psychotic symptoms in these patients.

115
Q

What role does seratonin play in the brain?

A

Seratonin is thought to help regulate mood, eating, sleeping, and arousal. It’s also thought to play a role in depression and mania- like norepinepherine.

116
Q

What is GABA’s function?

A

Produces inhibitory postsynaptic potentials and is thought to play an important role in stabilizing neural activity in the brain.

117
Q

What are two or more amino acids joined together called?

A

Peptides

118
Q

What are natural painkiller peptides produced in the brain called?

A

Endorphins. These are very similar in structure to morphine and other opiates.

119
Q

What behavior is epineprine (adrenaline) associated with?

A

The “fight or flight” response.

120
Q

What are the main effects of deppressants?

A

Also known as sedative-hypnotic drugs, depressants act to slow down the functioning of the central nervous system. At low doses, they reduce anxiety. Medium doses produce sedation and high doses induce anesthesia or a coma.

121
Q

What does it mean to say that depressants are synergistic?

A

They are additive in effect. When two different drugs are taken together, their combined effect is greater than either drug alone.

122
Q

What type of drugs are benzo diazepines and barbiturates?

A

Depressants.

123
Q

What are barbituates and what do they do?

A

Depressants that facilitate and enhance the action of GABA, which stabilizes brain acitivity. Barbituates are relatively potent tranquilizers often used as sedatives.

124
Q

What is a benzodiazepine?

A

Tranquilizers that are often used to reduce anxiety. Valium is an example.

125
Q

What is Korsakoff’s sydrome?

A

A disorder that includes anterograde amnesia that is common in alcoholics. The loss in memory actually occurs from a thiamin (vitamin B1) deficiency often seen in chronic alcoholics.

126
Q

What is the class of drugs that increases behavioral activity by increasing motor activity or by counteracting fatigue?

A

Behavioral stimulants

127
Q

What do amphetamines do?

A

Speed up the CNS in ways that mimic the action of sympathetic nervous system. These drugs are thought to stimulate receptors for dopamine, norepinephrine, and seratonin.

128
Q

Antidepressants do what?

A

They are used to treat clinical depression. They elevate mood, increase overall activity level and appitite. Tricyclics and monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors are antidepressants.

129
Q

How do tricyclic antidepressants reduce depression?

A

By facilitating the transmission of norepinephrine or serotonin at the synapse. They block the reuptake of monoamines.

130
Q

What do MAO inhibitors do?

A

Inhibit the action of the enzyme MAO, which normally breaks down and deactivates norepinephrine and serotonin in the synapse. By supressing the action of this enzyme, they increase the supply of norepinephrine and seratonin.

131
Q

Prozac is an example of what type of antidepressant that stops the reuptake of seratonin?

A

SSRI’s or Selective Seratonin Reuptake Inhibitors.

132
Q

What is methylphenidate and what is it used for?

A

It is Ritalin and is an ampetamine used to treat children who suffer from ADHD. This stimulant increases alertness and decreases motor activity in hyperactive children.

133
Q

Thorazine, chlorpromazine, phenothiazine, and haloperidol (Haldol) are all what kind of drugs? What are they used to treat?

A

THey are antipsychotic drugs used to treat delusional thinking, hallucinations, and agitation commonly associated with schizophrenia. They are thought to block receptor sites for dopamine as well as reduce sensitivity for it.

134
Q

What ype of drugs are opium, heroin, and morphine?

A

Narcotics. They are among the most effective pain-relieving drugs available.

135
Q

What are the chemical messengers for the endocrine system?

A

hormones

136
Q

What part of the brain does the endocrine system work very closely with?

A

The hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is involved with the “four F’s”: feeding, fighting, fleeing, and sexual functioning. It works directly with the “master gland” of the endocrine system, the pituitary gland.

137
Q

What are androgens?

A

Hormones that are required during the critical stages of fetal development for males. Testosterone is an androgen.

138
Q

What does the Thyroid gland control?

A

Metabolism rate, growth, and development.

139
Q

What ype of drugs are opium, heroin, and morphine?

A

Narcotics. They are among the most effective pain-relieving drugs available.

140
Q

What are the chemical messengers for the endocrine system?

A

hormones

141
Q

What part of the brain does the endocrine system work very closely with?

A

The hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is involved with the “four F’s”: feeding, fighting, fleeing, and sexual functioning. It works directly with the “master gland” of the endocrine system, the pituitary gland.

142
Q

What are androgens?

A

Hormones that are required during the critical stages of fetal development for males. Testosterone is an androgen.

143
Q

What does the Thyroid gland control?

A

Metabolism rate, growth, and development.

144
Q

What is a device used to locate brain areas when electrodes are implanted to make lesions or stimulate nerve cell activity?

A

A stereotaxic instrument.

145
Q

What hormone prepares the uterus for implantation of the embryo?

A

Progesterone. PROGESTERONE promotes PREGNANCY.

146
Q

What is the follicle-stimulating hormone?

A

THe hormone that the pituitary gland first secretes at the start of a woman’s menstrual cycle that stimulates the grownth of an ovarian follicle, which is a small protective sphere surrounding the egg or ovum.

147
Q

What hormone is associated with ovulation?

A

The luteinizing hormone

148
Q

What is an ablation or (extirpation)?

A

Any surgically induced brain lesion. Researchers often do this in animals to study the affects of lesions to certain areas of the brain.

149
Q

What is a device used to locate brain areas when electrodes are implanted to make lesions or stimulate nerve cell activity?

A

A stereotaxic instrument.

150
Q

Who pioneered methods involving electrically stimulating the brain and recording activity?

A

Wilder Penfield. By using electrical stimulation of the brain, Penfield mapped out diffferent areas on the brain’s surface.

151
Q

What does an electroencephalograph record?

A

Broad patterns of electrical activity. This machine produces an EEG. Sleep research relies heavily on EEGs.

152
Q

What does a rCBF do?

A

A regional cerebral blood flow is a noninvasive procedure that detects broad patterns of neural activity based on increased blood flow to different parts of the brain. When a specific cognitive function, such as listening to music, activates specific areas of the brain, the blood flow in that region increases.

153
Q

Define: Agnosia.

A

The impairment of visual recognition. A person can see an object, but not recognize what that object is. Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize faces.

154
Q

What is apraxia?

A

The impairment in the organization of motor action. The patient has problems executing step-by-step sequences entailed in every day acts such as lighting a cigarette.

155
Q

What are neurological disorders characterized by a loss in intellectual functioning?

A

Dementias. Alzheimer’s disease is an example.

156
Q

What structure of the brain keeps our cortex awake and alert?

A

Reticular formation.

157
Q

What is our daily cycle of waking and sleeping called?

A

Circadian rhythm

158
Q

What are the four characteristic EEG patterns tha correspond to different stages of waking and sleeping?

A

beta, alpha, theta, and delta waves.

159
Q

What part of waking or sleeping do beta waves characterize?

A

Beta waves have a high frequency and occur when a person is alert or attending to some mental task that requires concentration.

160
Q

When do alpha waves occur?

A

When we are awake but relaxing with our e

161
Q

Why is REM sleep called paradoxical sleep?

A

Because EEG brain waves look alot like beta brain waves, but our muscle tone remains relaxed

162
Q

What is going on in Stage 1 of sleep?

A

Theta waves are produced. During this stage the person is lightly sleeping; EEG shows “sleep spindles” and K complexes appear.

163
Q

What happens in Stage 2 of sleep?

A

Theta waves are produced.

164
Q

What does the Cannon-Bard Theory of emotion state?

A

Emotions and bodily reactions occur simultaneously. We tremble and feel scared in response to danger.

165
Q

What is happening in Stage 4 of sleep?

A

Delta waves are produced. The person is in deepest sleep. The slowest EEG activity is recorded and steepest “sleep spindles,” relaxed muscle tone; decreased respiration and heart rates

166
Q

When do sleepwalking, sleep talking, and night terrors occur?

A

Non-REM sleep.

167
Q

What is REM rebound?

A

The phenomenon in which people who have been previously deprived of REM sleep spend most of their next night’s sleep in REM sleep.

168
Q

What does the James-Lange Theory of emotion state?

A

We become aware of our emotion after we notice our physiological reactions (crying, fleeing, trembling, etc.) to some external event. Emphasizes the role of the peripheral nervous system.

Event –> Physiological Response –> Emotion

169
Q

What does the Cannon-Bard Theory of emotion state?

A

Emotions and bodily reactions occur simultaneously. We tremble and feel scared in response to danger.

170
Q

What does the Schacter-Singer Theory of emotion state?

A

Says emotions are the product of physiological reactions, but they claim cognitions are the missing link in the chain. A particular bodily state is felt and how we interpret the state is the key. For example, when a situation causes us to tremble, we feel fear or anger depending on the ideas we have about what emotion fits the situation.

171
Q

What is Cannon famous for?

A

Studying the autonomic nervous system including the “fight or flight” response and homeostasis. He also, with Bard, proposed the Cannon-Bard Theory of emotions.

172
Q

What is Kandel famous for?

A

Demonstrating that simple learning behavior in sea sanils (aplysia) is associated with changes in neurotransmission.

173
Q

Who was Alexander Luria?

A

A Russian neurologist who studied how brain damage leads to impairment in sensory, motor, and language functions.

174
Q

Who was Brenda Milner?

A

Studied severe anterograde amnesia in H.M., a patient whose hippocampus and temporal lobes were removes surgially to control epilepsy.