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Patho flash cards > physioj > Flashcards

physioj Flashcards

1
Q

In the cell cycle, when does a new nuclear membrane develop?

A

Telophase

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2
Q

In the cell cycle, when do spindle fibers form?

A

Prophase

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3
Q

What do you call division of the cytoplasm into two cells?

A

Cytokinesis

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4
Q

Ca that demonstrates a nucleus with no nucleolus

A

Papillary thyroid Ca - Orphan Annie

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5
Q

Smooth ER is involved mostly in detoxication and synthesis of lipids. Where is it commonly found?

A

Liver

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6
Q

“Protein factory” of the cell that is found in the liver, neurons, pancreas and thyroid

A

Rough ER

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7
Q

Rough ER in the neurons

A

Nissl substance

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8
Q

What wear and tear pigment accumulates in the lysosome?

A

Lipofuscin

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9
Q

A microtubule motor protein causing transport from the center of the cell to the periphery

A

Kinesin

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10
Q

A microtubule motor protein causing transport from the periphery of the cell to the center

A

Dynein

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11
Q

Disease with dynein missing in cilia and flagella

A

Kartagener’s syndrome

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12
Q

What is the functional unit of a gap junction

A

Connexon

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13
Q

Disc shaped junctional complex that allows firm intercellular adhesions

A

Macula adherens/desmosomes

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14
Q

What are the 3 components of a glycocalyx?

A

Glycoprotein, Glycolipids, Proteoglycans

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15
Q

Which disease involves a mutation in a gene of Chromosome 7 that encodes for an ABC transporter called CFTR

A

Cystic fibrosis

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16
Q

Mediate secretion of hormones, neurotransmitters from intracellular vesicles during exocytosis

A

SNARE proteins

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17
Q

Which effective osmole is used in the treatment of brain edema?

A

Mannitol

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18
Q

What are the 2 important functions of the Na-K pump?

A

Maintains electrical potential across the membrane and prevents cellular swelling

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19
Q

What is the functional subunit of the Na-K-ATPase pump that is inhibited by cardiac glycosides?

A

Alpha subunit

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20
Q

What is the earliest sign of ASA toxicity?

A

Tinnitus

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21
Q

What cells cause myelination in your CNS? PNS?

A

CNS - oligodendrocytes. PNS - Schwann cells.

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22
Q

What kind of conduction happens in your nodes of ranvier?

A

Saltatory or jumping

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23
Q

Enzyme that degrades Ach to acetate and choline

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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24
Q

Where is dopamine found?

A

Substantia nigra pars compacta and ventral tegmental area

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25
Q

Where is the “happy hormone” secreted?

A

Serotonin - median raphe of the brainstem

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26
Q

The number 1 inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

A

GABA

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27
Q

What are the functions of GABA?

A

GABA - A is chloride influx, GABA - B is potassium efflux

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28
Q

What is the number 1 excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain?

A

Glutamate

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29
Q

Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Acetylcholine

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30
Q

Site of decussation of the corticospinal tract

A

Medulla

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31
Q

What connects your 2 cerebral hemispheres?

A

Corpus callosum

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32
Q

Loss of accommodation due to paralysis of ciliary muscle

A

Cycloplegia

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33
Q

What produces the aqueous humor and where does it exit?

A

Produces by ciliary body and exits into the canal of schlemm

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34
Q

What is the difference between rods and cones in the eye?

A

Rods - nighttime vision, Cones - daytime vision

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35
Q

Depression in macula lutea with the highest cone density

A

Fovea

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36
Q

Deterioration of pigment epithelium in the eye

A

Macular degeneration

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37
Q

Night blindness due to Vit A deficiency

A

Nyctopia

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38
Q

Genetic defect in Type I procollagen, sclera appears blue

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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39
Q

Hexosaminidase A deficiency where patients have a characteristic macular “cherry red spot” appearance

A

Tay - Sach’s Disease

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40
Q

Define occupational hearing loss

A

More than 10yrs exposure to daily 8 hour sound levels of >85dB

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41
Q

Part of the outer ear that functions to amplify and localize sound

A

Pinna

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42
Q

What is the content of the Endolymph? Perilymph?

A

Endolymph - potassium, Perilymph - sodium.

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43
Q

True or false: low frequency sounds are more damaging to the Organ of Corti

A

TRUE

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44
Q

Fibers used by the sense of smell

A

Unmyelinated C fibers

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45
Q

Components of a fast twitch muscle

A

Type II, fast, large, more active, high myosin ATPase

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46
Q

Components of unitary smooth muscles

A

Muscle units act together as one, (+) gap junctions, (+) spike and plateau potentials, may exhibit spontaneous contractions, found in intestines/bile ducts/ureters

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47
Q

Plasma membrane that surrounds the muscle fiber

A

Sarcolemma

48
Q

Functional unit of the muscle with thick and thin filaments

A

Sarcomere

49
Q

Largest protein in the body, tethers myosin to Z lines

A

Titin

50
Q

Stabilizes plasmalemma and prevents contraction induced rupture

A

Dystrophin

51
Q

Effect that states each contraction occurs after complete relaxation

A

Staircase (Treppe) Effect

52
Q

Components of an isometric contraction

A

Length is held constant, no muscle shortening or lengthening

53
Q

True or false: muscle fatigue occurs earlier in slow twitch fibers

A

FALSE

54
Q

Type of calcium channels in the cardiac muscle

A

Voltage gated L type slow calcium channel

55
Q

Rope like structures of the cytoskeleton that may act as tumor markers

A

Intermediate filaments

56
Q

Spinal cord neuron that facilitates lateral inhibition

A

Renshaw cell

57
Q

True or false: muscle spindle detects length while golgi tendon organ detects tension

A

TRUE

58
Q

Components of dynamic change and static change in a muscle spindle

A

Dynamic change - sudden stretch, mediated by NUCLEAR BAG (group Ia afferents), Static change - slow stretch, mediated by NUCLEAR CHAIN (group II afferents).

59
Q

Where is the micturition center located?

A

Pons

60
Q

Functional unit of the cerebellum

A

Purkinje and Deep Nuclear Cell

61
Q

Functional unit of the cerebellum for planning and initiation of movement

A

Cerebrocerebellum

62
Q

Circuit in the basal ganglia that helps plan learned, complex movements

A

Putamen Circuit

63
Q

Lesions of the globus pallidus resulting to snake like or writhing movements

A

Athetosis

64
Q

Where is the lesion in hemiballismus?

A

Subthalamic nucleus of Luys

65
Q

Where is the lesion in chorea?

A

Corpus striatum

66
Q

Autosomal genetic disorder caused by CAG trinucleotide repeats

A

Huntington’s Disease - depletion of GABA and acetylcholine

67
Q

Regulation of body temperature is mediated by the ?

A

Hypothalamus

68
Q

Majority of heat loss happens through?

A

Radiation (60%), evaporation (22%)

69
Q

Most important effect of decreased oxygenation at high altitude

A

Decreased mental proficiency

70
Q

Changes in natural acclimitization

A

Increase chest size, decrease body mass, larger hearts, better oxygen delivery

71
Q

Caused by sudden ascent during diving

A

Decompression sickness - nitrogen bubble blocks blood vessels

72
Q

Part of the kidney that is vascular

A

Cortex

73
Q

True or false: proteinuria is always abnormal

A

TRUE

74
Q

What is the capacity of the urinary bladder?

A

500-600mL

75
Q

What muscle empties the bladder

A

Detrusor muscle

76
Q

What innervates the external urethral sphincter?

A

Pudendal nerve

77
Q

What does the capillary epithelium of the nephron secrete?

A

Nitric oxide, endothelin 1

78
Q

Normal GFR?

A

180L/ day

79
Q

What happens to your GFR if you constrict your efferent arteriole?

A

Increase

80
Q

What happens your GFR if you constrict your afferent arteriole

A

Decrease

81
Q

True or false: glucocorticoids increases GFR

A

False - glucocorticoids increase both GFR and RBF

82
Q

True or false: histamine increases GFR

A

False - histamine increases RBF only

83
Q

What 3 hormones decrease GFR?

A

Norepinephrine, epinephrine and endothelin

84
Q

Massive sympathetic stimulation that results in massive vasoconstriction of the kidneys?

A

CNS ischemic response

85
Q

Part of the glomerulus that senses changes in Na

A

Macula densa

86
Q

Effect of Adenosine and Nitric oxide on the afferent arteriole

A

Adenosine - vasoconstricts, nitric oxide - vasodilates

87
Q

Workhorse of the nephron, where most reabsorption and secretion occurs

A

Proximal Tubule

88
Q

Epithelial lining of proximal tubule

A

Low columnar with extensive brush border

89
Q

What segment of the Loop of Henle is permeable to water

A

Descending limb

90
Q

What is the role of Principal cells on the distal tubule?

A

Secrete K, absorb sodium and water

91
Q

Site for regulation of final urine volume and concentration

A

Medullary collecting tubules and collecting ducts

92
Q

Gold standard to diagnose left sided heart failure

A

BNP

93
Q

Hormone secreted by the DT and CD that acts in a manner similar to ANP

A

Urodilatin

94
Q

Used to estimate GFR

A

Clearance of Inulin and Creatinine

95
Q

Used to estimate Renal Plasma Flow, Renal Blood Flow

A

Clearance of Para-Amino Hippuric Acid (PAH)

96
Q

Threshold of glucose in the renal system

A

200mg/100mL. Maximum of 376mg/100mL.

97
Q

True or false: Sodium is actively transported in all parts of the renal tubule

A

False - sodium is actively transported in all parts of the renal tubule except the descending limb of the Loop of Henle

98
Q

Factors that shift Potassium into the cells

A

Insulin, Aldosterone, B adrenergic stimulation, Alkalosis

99
Q

Normal serum Potassium level

A

4.2 mEq/L

100
Q

Calcium reabsorption in the kidneys is controlled by?

A

Vitamin D and PTH

101
Q

Phosphate throwing hormone

A

PTH - decrease phosphate reabsorption in proximal tubule

102
Q

65% of magnesium is reabsorbed where?

A

Loop of Henle

103
Q

Countercurrent multipliers that create graded osmolarity

A

Loops of Henle

104
Q

Countercurrent exchangers that preserve and maintain osmolarity (prevents dissipation of gradient)

A

Vasa recta

105
Q

This hormone stimulates Urea receptors

A

ADH

106
Q

Where is the thirst center?

A

Anteroventral wall of 3rd ventricle and preoptic nuclei

107
Q

What pH is compatible with life?

A

pH = 6.8 - 8

108
Q

Abnormality which increases RR will cause:

A

Reapiratory alkalosis

109
Q

In metabolic acidosis, what is the normal serum anion gap?

A

12 mEq/L, + or - 4

110
Q

Protein responsible for the biconcave shape of RBCs

A

Spectrin

111
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced?

A

90% in the interstitial cells of peritubular capillaries (kidneys), 10% in the liver

112
Q

Why is EPO produced and what is its effect?

A

Produced in response to decreased oxygenation, stimulates proerythroblast production

113
Q

What is the active form of iron?

A

Ferrous - Fe 2+

114
Q

Main storage center of iron

A

Ferritin, found in liver

115
Q

Where is Transferrin produced and secreted?

A

Produced in liver, secreted into the bile and duodenum

116
Q

Where do you see hemosiderin laden macrophages?

A

Heart failure cells - left heart failure

117
Q

Graveyard of RBCs

A

Spleen

Patho flash cards (33 decks)

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