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Patho flash cards > histo > Flashcards

histo Flashcards

1
Q

Form of chromatin that is most abundant

A

Euchromatin - active form

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2
Q

Site of DNA transcription

A

Nucleus

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3
Q

Responsible for ribosomal RNA synthesis

A

Nucleolus

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4
Q

A complex of DNA, histone and non-histone proteins

A

Chromatin

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5
Q

3 zones of nucleolus

A

Granular zone (pars granulosa): maturing ribosomes. Dense fibrillar zone (pars fibrosa): active zone. Fibrillar center: inactive DNA

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6
Q

Heterochromatin vs. Euchromatin

A

Heterochromatin - condensed/dark, inactive, Barr Body. Euchromatin - dispersed/light, actively transcribed.

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7
Q

Barr bodies in Klinefelter’s Syndrome

A

One 47XXY

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8
Q

Superfemale will have how many Barr Bodies?

A

Two 47XXX

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9
Q

Site of ATP synthesis

A

Mitochondria

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10
Q

Synthesis of membrane phospholipids, and steroid hormones. Drug detoxification. FA elongation.

A

Smooth ER

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11
Q

Synthesis of secretory and membrane proteins. Co-translational modification of proteins.

A

Rough ER

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12
Q

Site of protein sorting and packaging

A

Golgi apparatus

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13
Q

Site of mRNA translation into amino sequence

A

Free ribosomes

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14
Q

Organisms with abundant smooth ER

A

Ovaries, testes, adrenals

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15
Q

Organs with abundant rough ER

A

Pancreas, thyroid

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16
Q

Organs with abundant mitochondria

A

Red muscle fibers

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17
Q

Glycogen storage disease with a defect in lysosomal metabolism

A

Pompe’s Disease (type II): acid maltase deficiency - muscle weakness, cardiorespiratory failure

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18
Q

Mechanical support for cells

A

Microfilament - actin, myosin

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19
Q

Cytoskeleton that can function as a tumor marker

A

Intermediate filament - link between extracellular matrix, cytoplasm and nucleus

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20
Q

Intracellular vesicle and organelle transport. Ciliary and flagellar movement.

A

Microtubule (A and B tubulin) - centrioles in mitosis and meiosis

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21
Q

Thinnest of all cytoskeletons

A

Microfilaments - function inhibited by Amanita mushroom toxin

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22
Q

Tumor marker: endothelial cells, vascular smooth muscle, fibroblast, chondroblast

A

Vimentin

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23
Q

Tumor marker: skeletal and smooth muscle

A

Desmin

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24
Q

Tumor marker: neurons

A

Neurofilament

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25
Q

Tumor marker: epithelial cells

A

Cytokeratin

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26
Q

Tumor marker: inner membrane of nuclear envelope

A

Laminins A, B, C

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27
Q

ATPase activity for movement of vesicles (toward axon terminal)

A

Kinesin - anterograde transport

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28
Q

ATPase activity toward cell body

A

Dynein - retrograde transport

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29
Q

ATPase activity for elongation of nerve axons

A

Dynamin

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30
Q

Anti inflammatory drug that acts on tubules of cells

A

Colchicine

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31
Q

Anticancer drugs that act on microtubules of cells

A

Vinblastine, Vincristine, Paclitaxel (Taxanes)

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32
Q

Microtubule polymerization defect that results in decreased ability for phagocytosis

A

Chediak Higashi Syndrome - recurrent pyogenic infections, partial albinism, peripheral neuropathy

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33
Q

Anchor epithelial cells to the underlying basal lamina

A

Hemidesmosomes - involved in Bullous Pemphigoid

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34
Q

Collagen in the basal lamina

A

Type IV collagen

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35
Q

Prevents or retards the diffusion of material across an epithelium

A

Zonula occludens - tight or leaky

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36
Q

Filaments in zonula adherens

A

Actin filaments

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37
Q

Attach 2 adjoining cells with a plaque called desmoplakin

A

Desmosomes (macula adherens) - involved in Pemphigus vulgaris

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38
Q

What parts of the brain does the BBB not protect?

A

Roof of 3rd and 4th ventricles, roof of diencephalon, pineal gland

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39
Q

Opens the BBB by temporarily shrinking the endothelial cells and stretching the tight junctions between them

A

Mannitol

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40
Q

Contains actin. Seen in brush border of apical layers of cells

A

Microvilli - function to increase cell surface area

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41
Q

Long microvilli. Found in vas deferens, hair cells of inner ear and epididymis

A

Stereocilia

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42
Q

Cilium found in the sensory epithelium of the inner ear

A

Kinocilium

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43
Q

Microorganisms that uses flagellum for locomotion

A

Giarda, Trichimonas, H pylori

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44
Q

Primary cilia dyskinesia. Defect in dynein arms.

A

Kartagener syndrome - infertility, absent mucociliary clearance (chronic sinusitis), situs invertus (dextrocardia)

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45
Q

Eukaryotic function: sensory and movement of fluid

A

Cilia

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46
Q

Provides tissue with smooth surface for easy movement

A

Hyaline - bluish white and semi transparent, numerous chondrocytes, (+) perichondrium

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47
Q

Provides support, flexibility and shape

A

Elastic cartilage - yellowish, (+) perichondrium

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48
Q

Shock absorber, deepens bone sockets

A

Fibrocartilage - chondrocytes scattered among thick interlace of collagen fibers, (-) perichondrium

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49
Q

Vitamin influence of bone

A

Vit D

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50
Q

Unmineralized bone

A

Osteoid

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51
Q

Most abundant type of bone cell

A

Osteocytes

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52
Q

Cell responsible for bone resorption

A

Osteoclasts - multinucleated cells from pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells

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53
Q

Bone cell that expresses receptors for PTH, Vit D and estrogen

A

Osteoblast - mononuclear cells that synthesize most of the protein in the bone

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54
Q

Trabecular or spongy bone

A

Cancellous bone - less dense, softer, weaker and less stiff

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55
Q

Compact bone

A

Cortical bone - 80% of the weight of the skeleton

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56
Q

Bone where hematopoiesis takes place. More affected in osteoporosis

A

Cancellous bone

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57
Q

Functional unit of a compact bone

A

Osteon/haversion system

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58
Q

Layer of bone matrix between concentric rings of osteocytes

A

Lamellar

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59
Q

Houses the osteocytes

A

Lacunae

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60
Q

Houses the osteoclast

A

Howship’s lacunae

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61
Q

Protoplasmic extensions from osteocytes by which maintenance of bone is performed

A

Canaliculi

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62
Q

Connects one haversian canal to another

A

Volkmann’s canal

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63
Q

Permanent flexion contracture of the hand at the wrist (claw-like). Due to a fracture at the elbow or upper arm.

A

Volkmann’s contracture - ulnar nerve affected, brachial artery compressed, muscles involved are FDP and FPL

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64
Q

X-ray: sunburst, fir tree or moth eaten

A

Osteosarcoma - most common primary bone Ca

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65
Q

Triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when a lesion (tumor) raises the periosteum away from the bone

A

Codman Triangle

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66
Q

Deficiency of Type 1 Collagen

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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67
Q

Deficiency of Type IV Collagen

A

Alport syndrome - deafness, eye disorders, hereditary nephritis

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68
Q

Type 2 cytotoxic immune response that presents with hematuria and hemoptysis

A

Goodpasture Syndrome - (+) glomerulonephritis

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69
Q

Epithelium in male urethra

A

Stratified columnar

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70
Q

Epithelium in fossa navicularis of male urethra

A

Stratified squamous non-keratinized

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71
Q

Histopathologic indicator of CNS injury

A

Gliosis

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72
Q

Conduct nerve impulse toward the cell body

A

Dendrites

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73
Q

Gaps between myelinated segments in the neuron

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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74
Q

Rough ER in the CNS

A

Nissl Substance - stacked RER

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75
Q

Stain used to localize Nissl substance

A

Aniline stain

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76
Q

Nissl substance moves and becomes concentrated in the periphery

A

Chromatolysis - fatigue or neuronal damage

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77
Q

Connective tissue cells of the nervous system

A

Neuroglia or Glial cells

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78
Q

Form myelin in the CNS

A

Oligodendrocytes

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79
Q

Phagocytic action in CNS

A

Microglia

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80
Q

Ependyma: circulation and absorption of CSF

A

Ependymyocytes - lines ventricle and central canals

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81
Q

Ependyma: transport CSF to the hypophyseal portal system

A

Tanycytes - line the floor of the 3rd ventricle

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82
Q

Ependyma: production of CSF

A

choroidal epithelial cells

83
Q

Project foot processes in the capillaries

A

Astrocytes - buffer potassium concentration of CNS

84
Q

Most common primary CNS tumor in children?

A

Astrocytoma

85
Q

Myelinate axons in the PNS

A

Schwann cells

86
Q

Tight junction between endothelial cells of capillaries

A

Blood brain barrier

87
Q

Tight junctions between choroid epithelial cells

A

Blood CSF barrier

88
Q

Found in squamous epithelial cells, gives skin tensile strength

A

Keratinocyte

89
Q

Epidermal dendritic cells

A

Langerhan cells - antigen presenting cells

90
Q

Origin of epidermis (outermost), devoid of blood vessels

A

Ectodermal

91
Q

Origin of dermis

A

Mesodermal

92
Q

Layer of loose vascular connective tissue with adipocytes

A

Hypodermis

93
Q

Melanin is formed from what amino acid?

94
Q

Sweat glands found everywhere that secretes a clear and odorless substance

A

Eccrine or Merocrine

95
Q

Produce pheromones via adrenergic stimulation

A

Apocrine glands

96
Q

Abnormal aggregation of cells that may be seen in SCC

A

Keratin pearls

97
Q

The endoplasmic reticulum in the muscles

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum - terminal cisternae stores the calcium

98
Q

Part of the sarcomere that does not shorten during muscle contraction

99
Q

Released by damaged muscle fibers into the bloodstream and causes renal failure

100
Q

Segment of adenohypophysis that contains MSH

A

Pars intermedia

101
Q

Procedure for surgical access to a sellar lesion

A

Transnasal Transsphenoidal Hypophysectomy

102
Q

Resting or reserve cells in the anterior pituitary

A

Chromophobes

103
Q

Most abundant cell type in the adenohypophysis

A

Somatotropes - secretes growth hormone

104
Q

Dilatations of axon terminals filled with vesicles containing ADH and oxytocin in the posterior pituitary

A

Herring bodies

105
Q

Calcified structures in the pineal gland

A

Corpora arenacea - “brain sand”

106
Q

Endocrine cells of the pancreas

A

Islet of Langerhans - large, light staining

107
Q

Exocrine cells of the pancreas

A

Pancreatic acini - dark staining, small, berry like clusters, pyramidal in shape

108
Q

Produces thyroglobulin

A

Follicular cells (thyroid epithelial cells)

109
Q

Produce calcitonin

A

Parafollicular cells

110
Q

Produce PTH

A

Chief cells - small, polygonal, dark staining cells

111
Q

Cells in parathyroid gland that presents at puberty. Function is unknown.

A

Oxyphil cells - large, light staining

112
Q

Most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Renal failure

113
Q

Hallmark of hypocalcemia

114
Q

Vertebral level of adrenal glands

115
Q

Largest area of adrenal gland

A

zona Fasciculata - pale staining cells in cords, (+) lipid droplets

116
Q

From neuroectoderm. Secrete epinephrine, NE and dopamine

A

Chromaffin cells - weakly basophilic columnar cells

117
Q

Most common location of extra adrenal pheochromocytoma

A

Organ of Zuckerkandl - near origin of IMA, to the L of the aortic bifurcation

118
Q

Most abundant papillae in the tongue. Mechanical function only, no taste buds.

A

Filliform - thin, long, V shaped, with increased keratinization

119
Q

Tongue papillae associated with Von Ebner’s glands

A

Circumvallate papillae

120
Q

Salivary gland is what type of gland?

A

Compound acinar

121
Q

70% of the saliva is produced by this gland

A

Submandibular gland - serous secretion, CN VII innervation

122
Q

What layer is missing in the esophagus?

123
Q

Presence of this cell in the esophagus is characteristic of Barrett’s metaplasia

A

Goblet cells

124
Q

Partial tear of the esophagus

A

Mallory weiss

125
Q

Full thickness tear of the esophagus. Considered a surgical emergency

A

Boerhaave syndrome

126
Q

Located in the submucosa of the duodenum. Alkaline secretion

A

Brunner’s glands - rich in mucous and bicarbonate

127
Q

Enzymes found in enterocytes

A

Lactase, Enterokinase, Maltase, Peptidase, Sucrase

128
Q

Antibacterial activity (lysozyme) in the crypts of lieberkuhn

A

Paneth cells

129
Q

80% of bile is absorbed in what intestinal segment?

A

Terminal ileum

130
Q

Peyer’s patches are found in what part of the SI?

131
Q

Lining of the stomach

A

Simple columnar epithelium

132
Q

Muscularis externa of stomach

A

Inner oblique, middle circular, outer longitudinal

133
Q

Lining of small intestines

A

Simple columnar epithelium with villi and goblet cells

134
Q

Muscularis externa of small intestine

A

Outer longitudinal, inner circular

135
Q

What makes the colon different from the small intestines?

A

HAT: haustra, appendices epiplocae, taenia coli

136
Q

Principal parenchymal cells of the liver

A

Hepatocytes - large polyhedral cells with large centrally located nucleus

137
Q

Liver macrophages found in the sinusoids

A

Kuppfer cells

138
Q

Stores Vit A in the liver, found in the Space of Disse

139
Q

Lining of gallbladder

A

Tall columnar cells with microvilli - except terminal ducts (cuboidal epithelium)

140
Q

Layer that the gallbladder lacks

A

Muscularis mucosae

141
Q

Pockets in the GB mucosa. Acquired herniations.

A

Rokitansky-Aschoff Sinus

142
Q

Most common area for a biliary enteric fistula to occur?

143
Q

Lining of trachea, main bronchi, lobar bronchi and segmental bronchi

A

Pseudostratified ciliated squamous epithelium with goblet cells

144
Q

Ratio between thickness of gland and the thickness of the wall that covers the bronchi

A

Reid’s index - normal is <0.4

145
Q

Protector of bronchial epithelium. Metabolize airborne toxins

A

Clara cells

146
Q

Secrete surfactant and are capable of regeneration and repair

A

Type II pneumocytes

147
Q

Heart failure cells seen in the lungs.

A

Hemosiderin laden macrophages - CHF, backflow of blood into lungs

148
Q

Allow passage of bacteria and exudates between adjacent alveoli

A

Pores of kohn

149
Q

Protein important in the maintenance of adequate oncotic pressure to prevent edema formation

150
Q

Lining of renal tubules

A

Simple cuboidal

151
Q

Lining of proximal tubule

A

Low columnar with extensive brush border

152
Q

Lining of loop of henle

A

Thin - simple squamous. Thick - simple cuboidal.

153
Q

Lining of distal tubule

A

Simple cuboidal without brush border

154
Q

Lining of collecting duct

155
Q

Cells in collecting duct that absorb Na and secrete K

A

Principal cells

156
Q

Cells in collecting duct that absorbs HCO3 and K, and secretes H

A

Intercalated cells

157
Q

Components of Glomerular Filtration Barrier

A

Capillary endothelium - filtration by size. Basement membrane and Podocyte foot processes - filtration by charge.

158
Q

Modified smooth muscle cells that secrete renin

A

JG cells - found in afferent arteriole

159
Q

Monitors the concentration of Na in the DCT

A

Macula densa

160
Q

Contains receptors for Angiotensin II and ANP

A

Mesangial cells

161
Q

RBCs are able to utilize glucose as fuel through:

A

Substrate level phosphorylation

162
Q

Where is EPO produced?

A

Interstitial cells of peritubular capillary bed

163
Q

Protein that maintains the biconcave shape of RBCs

164
Q

Least common of granulocytes

A

Basophils - large cytoplasmic granules

165
Q

Important in immediate hypersensitivity reactions (Type I) and anaphylaxis

A

Basophils or mast cells - minor role in parasitic infections

166
Q

Hematologic indicator of lead poisoning

A

Basiphilic stippling in RBCs

167
Q

Most common type of WBC or PMN cells

A

Neutrophils - multilobulated nucleus

168
Q

Involved in immune responses against parasites and viruses

A

Eosinophils - bilobulated nucleus with pink orange granules

169
Q

Allergic inflammatory condition of the esophagus that presents as heartburn and food impaction

A

Eosinophilic esophagitis - trachealization of esophagus

170
Q

Lymphocytes in cell mediated immunity

171
Q

Lymphocytes in humoral immunity (antibodies)

172
Q

Lymphocytes that defends the host from tumors and virally infected cells

A

Natural killer cells

173
Q

Changes on this surface molecule is recognized by NK cells

A

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) Class 1

174
Q

Can differentiate into macrophages and densritic cells to elicit an immune response

A

Monocytes - large, bilobulated U shaped nucleus

175
Q

Fragments of megakaryocytes that are stored in the spleen. Releases serotonin causing vasoconstriction

A

Platelets/Thrombocytes - life span of 5 to 9 days

176
Q

Predisposing factors in thrombus formation: Virchow’s Triad

A

Stasis of blood flow, hypercoagulability, endothelial injury

177
Q

Platelet abnormality in which they lack glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

A

Glanzmann’s Thrombosthenia - normal PT, PTT and platelet count but prolonged bleeding time

178
Q

Y shaped protein produced by B cells that recognizes a unique part of a foreign target or an antigen

A

Immunoglubulins - paratope on each tip of the Y that recognizes an epitope on an antigen (lock an key)

179
Q

Secretory immunoglobulin in mucosal areas

180
Q

Functions as an antigen receptor on B cells that have not been exposed to antigens

A

IgD - activates basophils and mast cells to produce antimocrobial factors

181
Q

Binds to allergens and triggers histamine release from mast cells and basophils

A

IgE - also protects against parasitic worms

182
Q

Only antibody capable of crossing the placenta and giving passive immunity to the fetus

A

IgG - provides majority of antibody based immunity against pathogens

183
Q

Eliminates pathogens in the early stages of B cell mediated (humoral) immunity before there is sufficient IgG

184
Q

Middle vascular layer of eye

185
Q

First and most powerful structure of the eye

186
Q

Center of our central vision

A

Fovea - highest concentration of cone cells

187
Q

Enable the lens to change its shape

188
Q

Film of the eye

189
Q

Relay station of the visual cortex

A

Lateral geniculate body

190
Q

Keeps images focused in the retina

191
Q

Where aqueous humor is produced

A

Ciliary body

192
Q

Structures that are blocked in glaucoma

A

Canal of schlemm

193
Q

Oval shaped highly pigmented yellow spot near the center of the retina

194
Q

Scotopic visions, sensitive to scattered light, low VA, slow response to light, confer achromatic vision

A

Rods - loss can cause night blindness

195
Q

Photopic vision, sensitive to direct light, high VA, confer a central vision

A

Cones - loss can cause legal blindness

196
Q

Lining of epithelium of the eye exposed to air

A

Stratified squamous non keratinized

197
Q

Thickest layer of cornea

A

Stroma - collagen type 3 and 4

198
Q

Lining of endothelium of eye exposed to aqueous humor

A

Simple squamous

199
Q

Highly elastic basement membrane in the eye covered by a single layer of cuboidal cells

200
Q

Lining of external surface of tympanic membrane

A

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

201
Q

Internal surface of tympanic membrane lining

A

Simple squamous epithelium

202
Q

Kinetic labyrinth: angular deceleration and acceleration

A

Semicircular ducts - cells are covered by a gelatinous mass called cupula

203
Q

Static labyrinth: linear acceleration and pull of gravity

A

Utricle and saccule - cells are covered by otoliths

Patho flash cards (33 decks)

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