Physio/Pharm Flashcards
What percent of neurons are lost by the age of 70?
Select one:
A.
15
B.
1
C.
40
D.
5
The correct answer is B.
Although neurons die at a rate of about 10,000 per day, less than 2% of neurons will be lost by the age of 70. Also, neurons regenerate through the lifespan in certain parts of the brain (neurogenesis).
Answers A, C, and D: Less than 2% of neurons will be lost by the age of 70.
Following a stroke, a 71-year-old woman exhibits loss of vision in her right visual field. Most likely, this impairment is the result of damage to the
Select one:
A.
visual cortex in her left hemisphere
B.
visual cortex in her right hemisphere
C.
left posterior temporal lobe
D.
right posterior temporal lobe
The correct answer is A.
Vision is mediated by the visual cortex. Most of the body’s functions-including vision-are mediated by the opposite side of the brain. Therefore, loss of vision in the right visual field would be caused by damage in the left hemisphere.
Answers B, C, and D: Vision is mediated by the opposite side of the brain. Loss of vision in the right visual field would be caused by damage in the left hemisphere.
Question ID #14196: _______ reduce or block the effects of a neurotransmitter.
Select one:
A.
Antagonists
B.
Agonists
C.
Partial agonist
D.
Inverse agonist
The correct answer is A.
Antagonist drugs produce no activity in cells on their own. Instead, they block or reduce the effects of a neurotransmitter (agonist). Direct antagonists attach to a neurotransmitter’s receptor site and indirect antagonists attach to a site other than the one being used by the neurotransmitter in question, thus interfering with the action of the neurotransmitter.
Answer B: Agonists facilitate the action of a neurotransmitter, either by mimicking the effect of that neurotransmitter at a receptor site or by binding on a receptor cell.
Answer C: Partial agonists produce effects similar to, but less effective than, a neurotransmitter.
Answer D: Rather than reducing or blocking, an inverse agonist produces the opposite effect of a neurotransmitter.
The “therapeutic window” refers to __________.
Select one:
A.
the time when a drug is effective to treat an injury
B.
the time when clinical interventions can be used prior to turning to drug treatment
C.
the time frame when the most effective progress can occur from treatment for neurological disorders, usually within 2 weeks from onset of symptoms
D.
the time frame when therapy combined with drug treatment is most effective
The correct answer is A.
The therapeutic window refers to the time between injury and drug treatment during which the treatment is still effective. Monitoring of individuals under drug treatment is recommended to ensure the therapeutic window and to treat any unusual reactions to a medication.
Answers B, C, and D: Incorrect. See rationale for answer A.
Which of the following conditions is not described accurately?
Select one:
A.
Multiple sclerosis is a musculoskeletal syndrome that produces muscular pain, stiffness, and spasms and is often accompanied by fatigue, gastrointestinal disorders, and depression.
B.
ALS is a progressive peripheral nerve disorder that causes muscle weakness, tremor, and spasticity.
C.
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular autoimmune disorder that produces weakness in the eye and facial muscles, difficulty swallowing, and slurred speech.
D.
Huntington’s disease is a hereditary disease that causes involuntary jerky movements, impaired memory and judgment, and depression.
The correct answer is A.
The conditions described in the answers to this question are neurological disorders that cause impairment in sensory and/or motor functioning. Note that the question is asking which condition is NOT accurately described. The symptoms presented in this answer describe fibromyalgia rather than multiple sclerosis (MS). MS is caused by demyelination of nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord and is believed to be due to an abnormal immune system response. Its primary symptoms include impairments in sensory and motor functioning (e.g., paresthesias, shooting pain in the back and limbs, problems with balance, and muscle weakness); deficits in memory, reasoning, and concentration; sexual dysfunction; and vision abnormalities.
Answer B: This correctly describes ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis), which is also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease and is a degenerative disease that eventually leads to a loss of muscle control and paralysis.
Answer C: The term myasthenia gravis means “grave muscle weakness”. This disorder can affect any of the body’s muscles, but the muscles that control the eyes, facial expression, chewing, and swallowing are ordinarily most affected.
Answer D: This answer accurately describes Huntington’s disease, which produces a combination of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms.
Tricyclics are used to treat all of the following disorders except _________.
Select one:
A.
premenstrual dysphoric disorder
B.
depression
C.
panic disorder
D.
bulimia
The correct answer is A.
SSRIs are commonly used to treat women with PMDD.
Answers B, C, and D: These are all common disorders treated by TCAs in addition to agoraphobia, OCD, enuresis, and neuropathic pain.
Specific to benzodiazepines, the drug abuse potential, behavioral-rewarding effects, and psychological dependency result from actions on ________ receptors.
Select one:
A.
serotonin
B.
dopamine
C.
GABA
D.
acetylcholine
The correct answer is C.
All benzodiazepines facilitate the inhibitory action of GABA binding. The behavioral-rewarding effects, drug abuse potential, and psychological dependency probably result from actions on GABA receptors that modulate the discharge of neurons located in the ventral tegmentum and the nucleus accumbens.
Answer A: Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that relays signals between nerve cells, or neurons, regulating their intensity. It plays a key role in the central nervous system, the general functioning of the body, and the gastrointestinal tract.
Answer B: Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in pleasure, motivation, and learning.
Answer D: Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system, the part of the autonomic nervous system that contracts smooth muscles, dilates blood vessels, increases bodily secretions, and slows the heart rate.
The onset of puberty occurs when certain cells in the __________ secrete gonadotropin-releasing hormones.
Select one:
A.
reticular formation
B.
thalamus
C.
hippocampus
D.
hypothalamus
The correct answer is D.
At puberty, the gonads (testes and ovaries) produce hormones that are responsible for sexual maturation. The secretion of the gonadotropin-releasing hormones by the hypothalamus stimulates the production and release of the gonadotropic hormones by the pituitary gland, which then stimulates the gonads to release sex hormones.
Answer A: The reticular formation plays a role in promoting arousal and consciousness. This function is mediated by the reticular activating system (RAS), also known as the ascending arousal system.
Answer B: The thalamus is composed of different nuclei that serve roles ranging from relaying sensory and motor signals, as well as the regulation of consciousness and alertness.
Answer C: The hippocampus is part of the limbic system that is involved in the formation of new memories and is associated with learning and emotions.
The pituitary gland is responsible for secreting which hormone?
Select one:
A.
progesterone
B.
gonadotropic
C.
androstenedione
D.
estrogen
The correct answer is B.
The pituitary gland secretes gonadotropic hormones.
Answer A: The ovaries secrete progesterone in females. In males, the testes produce progesterone.
Answer C: The testes secrete two types of androgens: testosterone and androstenedione.
Answer D: The ovaries secrete estrogen in females. In males, estrogen is secreted by the testes.
When working with a “split-brain” patient, you would notice that he or she has the most difficulty with regard to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
reflexive functions
B.
executive functions
C.
memory functions
D.
sensory functions
The correct answer is D.
Split-brain patients have had their corpus collosum severed, usually as a treatment for severe epilepsy. A primary function of the corpus collosum is to transfer sensory (and some motor) information from one hemisphere to the other. When the corpus callosum is severed, messages from the right brain cannot be transferred to the left brain and visa versa. This deficit is most apparent in tasks involving sensory input.
Answers A, B, and C: Incorrect. See rationale for answer D.
Wernicke’s area is located in which area of the brain?
Select one:
A.
occipital lobe
B.
temporal lobe
C.
frontal lobe
D.
parietal lobe
The correct answer is B.
Wernicke’s area is the region of the brain that is important for language development. It is located in the temporal lobe on the left side of the brain and is responsible for the comprehension of speech.
Answer A: The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for vision.
Answer C: The frontal lobe is part of the brain that controls important cognitive skills such as emotional expression, problem-solving, memory, language, judgment, and sexual behaviors.
Answer D: The parietal lobe contains the primary sensory cortex, which controls sensation (i.e., touch and pressure).
An MRI of a patient with Huntington’s disease is most likely to show atrophy in which brain structure?
Select one:
A.
caudate nucleus
B.
suprachiasmatic nucleus
C.
septum
D.
medulla
The correct answer is A.
Huntington’s disease (chorea) is a basal ganglia disorder, and the basal ganglia are involved in the control of motor movements. The caudate nucleus and putamen are structures of the basal ganglia and have been found to be the brain areas most severely affected by Huntington’s disease.
Answer B: Damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus would impact circadian rhythms and the sleep-wake cycle.
Answer C: Atrophy to the septum would result in impulse control issues and possibly addictive disorders.
Answer D: The medulla regulates vital functions like breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure. Damage to this area is cause for serious concern and can be fatal.
The development of the nervous system naturally includes the production and alteration of neurons. ________ is the production of new cells.
Select one:
A.
Synaptogenesis
B.
Myelination
C.
Migration
D.
Proliferation
The correct answer is D.
Proliferation is the production of new cells. Early in development, cells lining the ventricles of the brain divide.
Answer A: Synaptogenesis is the formation of synapses that continues throughout life.
Answer B: After axons form, myelination occurs. This is the formation of the myelin sheath. Myelin sheaths are made of myelin, and myelin is produced by different types of neuroglia.
Answer C: Migration is the directed movement of a single or group of cells toward their eventual destination in the brain after proliferation occurs.
Damage to the ___________ causes emotional lability, poor impulse control, and impaired social insight.
Select one:
A.
orbitofrontal area of prefrontal cortex
B.
mediofrontal area of prefrontal cortex
C.
somatosensory cortex of parietal lobe
D.
dorsolateral area of prefrontal cortex
The correct answer is A.
Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex of the prefrontal cortex results in a condition known as pseudopsychopathy (or orbitofrontal disinhibition syndrome). Symptoms include aggressive outbursts, inappropriate sexual behavior, making lewd comments, and inappropriate joking.
Answer B: Incorrect. Damage to the mediofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex produces pseudodepression. Symptoms present as depression but without the negative cognitions, vegetative symptoms, or dysphoria that are characteristic of major depression.
Answer C: Damage to the somatosensory cortex affects the ability to sense pressure, temperature, pain, proprioception, and gustation.
Answer D: Damage to the dorsolateral area of the prefrontal cortex results in impaired organization, planning, and insight.
Over secretion of thyroxine leads to ________.
Select one:
A.
hypoglycemia
B.
hypothyroidism
C.
diabetes mellitus
D.
Grave’s Disease
The correct answer is D.
Grave’s Disease is also known as hyperthyroidism. This occurs when the thyroid produces too much thyroxine. Symptoms include a sped-up metabolism, elevated body temperature, heat intolerance, increased appetite with weight loss, agitation, reduced attention span, fatigue, and emotional liability.
Answer A: Hypoglycemia is low blood glucose. Symptoms include dizziness, hunger, headaches, blurred vision, palpitations, anxiety, and confusion.
Answer B: Hypothyroidism is the opposite of Grave’s Disease. It occurs from reduced secretion of thyroxine and symptoms include slowed metabolism, reduced appetite with weight gain, low body temperature, lethargy, depression, apathy, and impaired memory and concentration.
Answer C: Excessive blood glucose leads to diabetes mellitus. When left untreated it can cause increased appetite with weight loss, polyuria, polydipsia, increased infection, apathy, and mental dullness.
