Physio Flashcards
1
Q
the sperm binds to the ____, which is comprised of 3 glycoproteins that form a mucus-like latticework
A
zona pellucida
2
Q
the acrosomal rxn requires which ion
A
calcium
3
Q
what portions of the sperm enter the oocyte
A
cytoplasmic portion of sperm head and tail
4
Q
purpose of cortical reaction in the oocyte
A
prevents polyspermy
5
Q
the cortical rxn in the oocyte requires which ion
A
calcium (and IP3)
6
Q
at the early stage of pregnancy, what produces steroid hormones necessary to maintain pregnancy
A
the corpus luteum
7
Q
HCG very closely resembles which hormone
A
LH
8
Q
______ (hormone) sustains corpus luteum in the beginning of pregnancy, immunosuppressive agent, growth-promoting activity, promotes placental development
A
HCG
9
Q
during early weeks of pregnancy, fetus derives nutrition from the endometrial _____. Subsequently, nutrition is provided by diffusion thru the placenta
A
endometrial decidua
10
Q
most important placental peptide hormone
A
HCG
11
Q
____ (hormone) coordinates fuel economy by contributing to the conversion of glucose to fatty acids and ketones. Promotes mammary gland development in the pregnant mother
A
somatomammotropins
12
Q
the _____ is critical for steroid hormone synthesis in the pregnant mother
A
placenta
13
Q
why is estriol more delayed than progesterone and estradiol in pregnancy
A
estriol contributes to development of placenta. the corpus luteum is first so estriol can be late
14
Q
the (corpus luteum/placenta) can produce adequate amounts of cholesterol, the precursor for steroid hormone synthesis
A
corpus luteum
15
Q
the (placenta/fetus) lacks 3-B hydroxysteroid DHase, aromatase so it needs the maternal-placental-fetal unit to make estrogen and progesterone
A
the fetus lacks 3-B hydroxysteroid DHase, aromatase.
16
Q
the (fetus/placenta) lacks 17-a-hydroxylase and 17,20-desmolase and 16-a hydroxylase
A
the placenta
17
Q
maternal pregnancy response: blood volume (increases/decreases)
A
increases due to increased plasma volume and erythrocytes. meets demands of enlarged uterus, vascular system
18
Q
maternal pregnancy response: mean arterial pressure (increases/decreases)
A
decreases during midpregnancy then rises during third trimester, but remains lower than normal
19
Q
maternal pregnancy response: cardiac output (increases/decreases)
A
increases during first trimester, mostly due to increase in SV. Much of increased blood flow is to kidney and uterus
20
Q
maternal pregnancy response: alveolar ventilation (increases/decreases)
A
increases due to increased tidal volume, due to steroid effects on medullary respiratory centers
21
Q
maternal pregnancy response: maternal arterial pCO2 (increases/decreases)
A
decreases as a result of increased alveolar ventilation
22
Q
maternal pregnancy response: demand for dietary protein (increases/decreases)
A
increases, as well as iron and folic acid (increased production of RBCs)
23
Q
maternal pregnancy response: BMR (increases/decreases)
A
increases by 15%
24
Q
(oxytocin/prolactin) promotes milk let-down and uterine contractility
A
oxytocin
25
(oxytocin/prolactin) promotes milk synthesis
prolactin
26
(oxytocin/prolactin) released in response to suckling
both
27
from where is oxytocin released
hyth (PVN and supraoptic) to post pit
28
from where is prolactin released
ant pit
29
(mammogenic/lactogenic) hormones promote initiation of milk production
lactogenic
30
(mammogenic/lactogenic) hormones promote cell proliferation
mammogenic
31
estrogen, GH, cortisol, prolactin, relaxin, progesterone: (mammogenic/lactogenic) hormones
mammogenic
32
prolactin, hCS, cortisol, insulin, thyroid hormones, withdrawal of estrogens and progesterone: (mammogenic/lactogenic) hormones
lactogenic. estrogen and progesterone are withdrawn when the placenta is delivered
33
during pregnancy, which hormones inhibit milk production
estrogen and progesterone, in placenta
34
the ____ is the secretory unit of the breast
alveolus
35
contractile myoepithelial cells surround each alveolus and adipose cells and promote milk let-down in response to:
oxytocin
36
secretory epithelial cells comprise the alveolus and secrete milk in response to:
prolactin and cortisol (permissive hormones)
37
_____ provides a concentrated, low-volume form of nutrition for the neonate's immature GI tract. No fat compared to mature human milk. Protein rich
colostrum
38
_____ (hormone) maintains milk production after parturition
prolactin
39
dopamine (increases/decreases) during breast feeding
decreases (because it inhibits prolactin)
40
deposition of mucopolysaccharides around the orbit that cause the eye to protrude
exopthalamos
41
separation of nail from nail bed
onycholysis
42
thyroxine has (a catabolic/an anabolic) effect on tissues
catabolic
43
_____ (disease): common thyroiditis, slow developing, autoimmune, production of anti thyroid antibodies which gradually destroy the gland
Hashimoto's
44
dietary ___ deficiency leads to hypothyroidism and goiter
iodine
45
there is (elevated/reduced) TSH and (elevated/reduced) TH in patients with primary hypothyroidism
elevated TSH, reduced TH
46
______ coma is the end stage of untreated hypothyroidism
myxedema coma
47
Hashimoto's patients are typically treated with
thyroxine
48
major action of _____ is to stimulate the kidney to reabsorb sodium and water and enhance potassium secretion
aldosterone
49
in renal tubule cells, aldosterone increases activity of proteins involved in _ (ion) transport and increases txn of Na/K pump and expression of apical _ (ion) channels
Na, Na
| net: increase sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion
50
what measurement is used to diagnose cushing's
urinary or salivary cortisol measurement
51
what is the benefit of a dexamethasone suppression test for cushing's disease
can diagnose different types of cushing's
52
in adrenal tumor cushing's, cortisol is (high/low) and ACTH is (high/low)
cortisol is high
| ACTH is low
53
in ACTH producing tumor in cushing's, cortisol is (high/low) and ACTH is (high/low)
both are high
54
in a normal state (not cushing's), cortisol is (high/low) and ACTH is (high/low)
both are low
55
(cushing's/addison's): hypoadrenal function
addison's
56
(cushing's/addison's): hyperadrenal function
cushing's
57
(cushing's/addison's): lack of aldosterone results in hypotension, hyperkalemia
addison's
58
(cushing's/addison's): hypokalemia and hypertension
cushing's
59
(cushing's/addison's): hypoglycemia, weakness, weight loss, poor tolerance to stress
addison's
60
fetal circulating prostaglandin is (lower/higher) than adult
5x higher bc placenta makes a lot
61
where does gas exchange occur in the fetus
placenta
62
pulmonary vascular resistance in the fetus is (high/low/normal)
very high
63
the sum of both ventricles in the fetus is known as the
combined cardiac output
64
first breath in of fetus requires a transpulmonary pressure of 60cmH2O to (increase/decrease) the lung volume by 40mL
increase
65
_____ (disease) is caused by def of surfactant, often found in premature births
Respiratory Distress Syndrome
66
fetal to neonatal: pulmonary vascular resistance (increases/decreases)
decreases dramatically
67
fetal to neonatal: pulmonary blood flow (increases/decreases)
increases dramatically
68
fetal to neonatal: mean pulmonary arterial pressure (increases/decreases)
decreases dramatically
69
placental insufficiency causes ______
Type II intrauterine growth restriction IUGR
70
any insult to the placenta that interferes with gas exchange may lead to fetal _____
asphyxia
71
closure of placental circulation (increases/decreases) pressure in the aorta
increases (placenta receives 50% of combined cardiac output in fetal circulation)
72
closure of placental circulation causes peripheral resistance to (increase/decrease)
double, causing an increase in aortic and left ventricle pressure
73
closure of the ________ (fetal circulation shunt) is caused by reversal of right/left atrial pressure
foramen ovale
74
increased pulmonary circulation in the neonate causes (increased/decreased) venous return to the LA
increased
75
when the baby is born, there is (an increase/a decrease) in RA pressure
a decrease
76
(foramen ovale/ductus venosus) closes within three hours
ductus venosus
77
(foramen ovale/ductus venosus) closes within three months or even years
foramen ovale
78
closure of the ductus venosus forces portal blood to perfuse the ____
liver
79
failure of ductus vensosus closure=
portosystemic shunt
80
closure of the _____ (fetal circulation shunt) is mediated by increases in PO2 and decreases in circulating prostaglandins. Bradykinin from lung is involved as well
ductus arteriosus
81
failure of ductus arteriosus closure leads to: (3 things)
pulmonary HTN, CHF, cardiac arrhythmias
82
if baby is born at high altitude, the ______ (fetal circulation shunt) may not close correctly because partial pressure of oxygen is lower
ductus arteriosus
83
if the ductus arteriosus doesn't close entirely, how does that cause reversal of blood flow?
hypoxia > hypoxic vasoconstriction > increased pulm vascular resistance > build up > reversal of flow > "persistent fetal circulation"
84
how do you treat persistent fetal circulation
with drugs that inhibit cyclooxygenase so you don't make prostaglandins
85
most common cause of blue baby syndrome
tetralogy of Fallot
86
four components of tetralogy of Fallot
1. pulm stenosis 2. right shifted aorta 3. RV hypertrophy 4. ventricular septal defect
87
symptoms of menopause due to (lack of estrogen/rise of FSH)
lack of estrogen
88
diagnosis of menopause: rise in circulating (LH/FSH)
FSH
89
why is hormone replacement therapy controversial for menopause
increased risk of CVD, cerebrovascular disease, breast cancer
90
what are SERMs
selective estrogen receptor modulators, replacing hormone replacement therapy for menopause
91
puberty is characterized by pulsatile GnRH secretion initially during the (night/day) and then also at (day/night)
initially at night then also during the day
92
polycystic ovary syndrome: (multiple primordial follicles emerge as dominant follicles/no dominant follicle emerges and ovulation does not occur)
no dominant follicle emerges and ovulation does not occur
93
polycystic ovary syndrome: reduced (estrogen/progesterone) in the granulosa and thecal cells
reduced estrogen in granulosa. reduced progesterone in both granulosa and thecal
94
polycystic ovary syndrome: continued production of androgen by (granulosa/thecal) cells throughout cycle
thecal
95
polycystic ovary syndrome: treat with clomiphene to restore:
ovulation
96
polycystic ovary syndrome: treat with weight loss to control:
abnormal blood glucose and diminished insulin sensitivity
97
polycystic ovary syndrome: treat with 5-a-reductase inhibitors to block conversion of testosterone to:
dihydrotestosterone
98
polycystic ovary syndrome: treat with combination bc pills to restore:
regular periods
99
occurs when tissue from the uterine endometrium spreads to the peritoneal cavity, often around the ovaries
endometriosis
100
cause of endometriosis
retrograde menstruation
101
hCG is (high/low) in ectopic pregnancy
low
102
most dangerous region for rupture of ectopic preg: (interstitial/ampullary/isthmic)
interstitial--ruptures at 12-16 weeks, closest proximity to uterine and ovarian vessels >> hemorrhage
103
why would you treat ectopic pregnancy with methotrexate
halt rapidly dividing cells, especially in early cases
104
the only hormone under primarily negative control from the hypothalamus
prolactin
105
hyth secretes dopamine, prolactin (increases/decreases)
decreases
106
hyth secretes somatostatin, GH (increases/decreases)
decreases
107
hyth secretes GnRH, LH (increases/decreases)
increases
108
hyth secretes TRH, TSH (increases/decreases)
increases
109
hyth secretes CRH, ACTH (increases/decreases)
increases
110
initiates its actions at target tissues by binding to nuclear receptors: (ACTH, vasopressin, epi, IGF-1, thyroid hormone)
thyroid hormone
111
oxytocin: (promotes uterine quiescence/is released directly into general circulation)
is released directly into general circulation
112
chemical structure most similar to ADH: (oxytocin, ACTH, TSH, FSH, prolactin)
oxytocin--both have nine amino acids
113
ADH (vasopressin) is produced primarily in the _____ neurons of the hyth
supraoptic
114
if the pituitary is removed or transsected, the plasma concentration of what hormone will increase
prolactin--under inhibitory control by hyth
115
In patients with central diabetes insipidus, there is an inappropriately (high/low) secretion rate of ADH in response to changes in plasma osmolality, but there is no impairment in the renal response to ADH.
low
116
In Central Diabetes Insipidus: Because plasma levels of ADH are depressed, there is an impaired ability to concentrate urine, and a (small/large) volume of dilute urine is excreted.
large
117
GH receptor (activates Gs/requires a receptor dimer to exert effects/must be internalized to exert its effects)
requires a receptor dimer to exert effects
118
result of impaired GH action: (failure to double birth weight at six months/short stature in 12 year old boy/fasting hyperglycemia and impaired glucose tolerance)
short stature in 12 year old boy
119
pit tumor secreting excess growth hormone in 4 yo: will cause (Acromegaly due to excess insulin-like growth factor (IGF)-1 production/Gigantism due to excess IGF-1 production)
Gigantism due to excess IGF-1 production--effects of GH on linear growth are mediated via IGF-1
120
GH is effective at treating (celiac/Turner syndrome/GH receptor def)
Turner
121
TSH action on thyroid follicular cells: (increases blood flow/increases iodide uptake)
increases iodide uptake
122
in which form are T3 and T4 most active: (bound to albumin/bound to transthyretin/bound to thyroglobulin/unbound/bound to thyroxine-binding globulin)
unbound
123
not essential for synthesis of thyroid hormones: (iodine/ferritin/thyroglobulin/protein synthesis/TSH)
ferritin
124
incorporation of dietary iodide into thyroid hormones is known as _____ (process)
organification
125
metabolic rate is least affected by increase in plasma level of: (TBG/TSH/TRH/free T4/free T3)
TBG
126
TBG transiently (increases/decreases) free T3 and T4
decreases
127
increased binding of a hormone to plasma proteins results in: (increase in plasma clearance of the hormone/increase in plasma reservoir for rapid replenishment of free hormone)
increase in plasma reservoir for rapid replenishment of free hormone
128
protein bound hormones are (active/inactive)
inactive and cannot be metabolized
129
In target tissues, nuclear receptors for thyroid hormones have a greater affinity for (T3/T4) than for (T3/T4).
higher affinity for T3
130
secretion rate, plasma concentration, half life, and onset of action are all greater for (T3/T4)
T4
131
Thyroid hormone receptors bind to DNA in a heterodimer with the (insulin/progesterone/GH/prolactin/retinoid X) receptor
RXR retinoid X receptor
132
T4 (increases/decreases) HR, RR, plasma [cholesterol]. Name action on each
increases HR, increases RR, decreases plasma [cholesterol]
133
Increased plasma (iodide/cholesterol) concentration is commonly observed in hypothyroidism.
cholesterol
134
Stimulation of the adrenal gland by ACTH has the most direct effect on release of (epi/NE/cortisol/androgens/aldosterone)
cortisol
135
portion of adrenal gland that secretes anti inflam hormone
fasciculata (cortisol)
136
Fasting hypoglycemia and fatigue are due to low (ACTH/cortisol) levels. Increased pigmentation suggests high levels of (ACTH/cortisol).
cortisol,
| ACTH
137
The enzyme 21-hydroxylase is required for _____ and _____ synthesis.
cortisol and aldosterone
138
Low levels or cortisol result in high levels of _____ (hormone) due to loss of negative feedback.
ACTH
139
prolonged cortisol administration can cause (bone deposition and collagen formation/virilization/muscle weakness).
muscle weakness (skeletal muscle protein catabolism)
140
β-Adrenergic receptor desensitization occurs in response to chronically high (catecholamine/glucocorticoid) levels
catecholamine
141
genetic deficiency in 11β -hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2: (increased mineralcorticoid/increased glucocorticoid/hyperkalemia/hypoglycemia/decreased blood pressure)
increased mineralcorticoid
142
11β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type (1/2) is present in renal tubular cells and converts cortisol to cortisone, which does not readily bind to mineralocorticoid receptors.
type 2
143
cortisone treatment for autoimmune disease can cause: (increased cortisol secretion/increased ACTH/increased muscle mass/increased insulin)
increased insulin secretion
144
Increased plasma levels of cortisol tend to (decrease/increase) plasma glucose concentration
increase
145
PTH (increases/decreases) Calcium reabsorption and (increases/decreases) phosphate reabsorption in kidney
increases Ca reabs.
| decreases phosphate reabs.
146
(increase/decrease) in PTH increases the rate of excretion of calcium by kidney
decrease
147
increases rate of deposition and decreases rate of absorption of bone: (estrogen/PTH/reduction of mechanical stress)
estrogen
148
untreated goiter is assoc with (hyper/hypo/eu)thyroidism
all three
149
Thyrotoxicosis or Grave’s disease is typically characterized by: Elevated serum T3, T4 and (thyroid/TSH receptor) antibodies
TSH receptor antibodies
150
high plasma levels of (thyroid hormones/immunoglobulins in Graves') do not cause exophthalmos.
thyroid hormones
151
Used to tx what dz? Very high levels of iodine (Wolff-Chaikoff effect)
Iodinated iodine to destroy the gland (131I-)
Antithyroid agents such as PTU
Surgical removal of gland (thyroidectomy)
Graves'
152
____ deficiency prevents normal production of thyroid hormone by the thyroid gland, producing primary hypothyroidism.
Iodine
153
a deposition of mucoprotein in the subcutaneous and extracellular spaces that causes edema: characteristic of (hypo/hyper) thryroid
hypothyroid
154
weight (loss/gain) assoc with hyperthyroidism
loss
155
myxedema seen in (hypo/hyper)thyroid
hypothyroid
156
deficiency in iodine intake: (weight loss/tachycardia/increased synthesis of thyroglobulin)
increased synthesis of thyroglobulin
157
Hashimoto's thyroiditis: elevated serum TSH and (TSH receptor/thyroid) antibodies
thyroid antibodies against thyroid peroxidase
158
_____ failure after menopause causes estrogen, progesterone, and inhibin levels to decrease to very low levels
ovarian
159
what leads to high levels of GnRH in menopause
loss of negative feedback from estrogen
160
A high concentration of estrogen, progesterone, and inhibin, all at the same time, indicates peak secretion from the corpus luteum about days __-__ of the cycle
18-24
161
high estrogen and progesterone and inhibitn= (high/low) LH and FSH
low
162
steroid hormone effects are (long/short) lived
long lasting via gene txn
163
The luteinizing hormone surge measured during the ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle results from positive feedback exerted by (GnRH/estrogen/FSH/inhibin/progesterone)
estrogen
164
(thecal/granulosa) cells provide androgen precursors under influence of LH.
thecal
165
(thecal/granulosa) cells use androgens to synthesize estrogens, which is accomplished via FSH stimulated aromatase activity
granulosa
166
during 12 hrs before ovulation: (plasma [estrogen] is rising/surge of LH)
surge of LH (ovulation will not take place without a surge of LH before it)
167
progesterone synthesis is stimulated by the (LH/FSH) surge
LH
168
what stimulates increase in endometrium thickness in the week following ovulation (LH/FSH/progesterone/estrogen)
progesterone from corpus luteum
169
cause of menopause: Reduced numbers of follicles available in the ovary for stimulation by ____ hormones
gonadotropic
170
(Decreases/Increases) in both gap junctions and oxytocin receptors enhance myometrial contractility.
increases
171
enhanced responsiveness to pitocin: (increased/decreased) prostaglandin synthesis
increased--PGs initiate contractions which are augmented and sustained by oxytocin
172
pregnant: high urinary hCG and (high/low) plasma progesterone
high
173
(pulsatile/constant) GnRH mimics the physiologic release
pulsatile--constant is ineffective bc it downregulates pituitary gonadotropes
174
if ovulation is on day 15, when is implantation likely to occur
days 21-22
175
Binding of the sperm head to specific proteins of the zona pellucida causes a calcium signal in the sperm, resulting in the ______ reaction
acrosome
176
the fetus makes (aromatase/DHEA-S/progesterone/21-a-hyroxylase/testosterone) for the placenta to produce estrogen
DHEA-S
177
what hormone suppresses milk production before birth and for about two days after birth
estrogen
178
what hormone accounts for milk expression in response to conditioned stimuli (baby crying) (estrogen/oxytocin/prolactin)
oxytocin
179
hCG has the same stimulatory effect as (FSH/LH) on the corpus luteum. Administration of hCG prevents degradation of endometrium and onset of menstruation
LH
180
inhibit initiation of labor with prostaglandin E2 (agonist/antagonist)
antagonist.
181
Antagonism of progesterone's effects (initiates/inhibits) labor
initiates labor
182
PGE2 strongly stimulates uterine smooth muscle contraction and is formed in increasing rate by the placenta (early/late) in gestation.
late
183
specific effect of RU486 (abortion pil): blocks (oxytocin receptors in uterine muscle/progesterone receptors in body)
blocks progesterone receptors so progesterone has no effect in the body
184
Very high plasma concentration of (estrogen/progesterone) maintains the uterine muscle in a quiescent state during pregnancy.
progesterone
185
In the final month of gestation the concentration of (estrogen/progesterone) begins to decline, increasing the excitability of the muscle.
progesterone
186
The placenta secretes (estrogen/progesterone/LH) from the trophoblast cells.
estrogen and progesterone
187
fertilization normally takes place in the (uterus/cervix/ovary/ampulla of fallopian tube)
ampulla of fallopian tube
188
suckling stimulates secretion of (oxytocin/ADH/both) from the PVN
oxytocin
189
During the latter stages of pregnancy, many women experience an increase in body hair growth in a masculine pattern. Why?
The maternal and fetal adrenal glands secrete large amounts of androgenic steroids that are used by the placenta to form estrogen
190
umbilical arterial blood has (lower/higher) PO2 and (lower/high) PCO2 compared to the umbilical vein
lower PO2 and higher PCO2
191
O2 saturation in the fetal IVC is (greater/lower) than O2 sat in the fetal aorta
O2 sat is greater in the fetal IVC
192
blood in which vessel has lowest PO2: (maternal uterine vein/maternal femoral vein/umbilical artery/umbilical vein)
umbilical artery
193
at birth, the pressure in the baby's pulm artery (increases/decreases) greatly
decreases
194
In the circulatory system of a fetus, (aortic pressure/right atrial pressure) is greater before birth than after birth
right atrial pressure
195
In the circulatory system of a fetus, (aortic pressure/right atrial pressure) is greater after birth than before birth
aortic pressure
196
full development and function of seminiferous tubules requires (LH/oxytocin/FSH/androgens and FSH)
androgens and FSH
197
in human males, testosterone is mainly produced by (Leydig cells/Sertoli cells/seminiferous tubules)
Leydig cells (from pregnenolone precursors)
198
_____ (enzyme) contributes to erection by activating soluble guanylate cyclases to increase cGMP levels that relax smooth muscle and increase blood flow
nitric oxide synthase
199
pubertal growth spurt is mainly stimulated by (testosterone/dihydrotestosterone/estradiol)
estradiol
200
inhibin has direct negative feedback effects on the release of (GnRH/prolactin/FSH/LH/testosterone)
FSH
201
(FSH/LH) stimulates Sertoli cells to produce inhibin
FSH
202
(FSH/LH) stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone
LH
203
What stimulates the secretion of testosterone during embryonic development? (LH/inhibin from corpus luteum/hCG/GnRH from embryo's hyth)
hCG
204
emission phase of male sexual act: (parasymp/symp)
symp (Point and Shoot)--beta adrenergic antagonists interfere with ejaculation
205
erection phase of male sexual act: (parasymp/symp)
parasymp (Point and Shoot)
206
(TRH/TSH) works via a GPCR-PLC-IP3-Ca system
TRH
207
(TRH/TSH) works via a GPCR-AC-cAMP system
TSH
208
T4 is converted to T3 via (peripheral deiodinase/thyroid peroxidase)
peripheral deiodinase
209
I- is oxidized to iodine in lumen of thyroid by ((peripheral deiodinase/thyroid peroxidase)
thyroid peroxidase
210
what stimulates colloid proteolysis in the thyroid, releasing T3 and T4?
TSH
211
what enzyme catalyzes the coupling of DIT to DIT in the thyroid
thyroid peroxidase
212
with what does the thyroid hormone receptor dimerize in the nucleus of the target tissue cell
RXR
213
Clomiphene acts primarily at the level of the hypothalamus to relieve the negative feedback effect of endogenous estrogen, thereby stimulating ____ release and, in turn, (decreasing/increasing) the production of anterior pituitary gonadotropins.
GnRH
| increasing
214
clomiphene is (often/rarely) associated with ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
rarely
215
clomiphene in IVF: induces (follicular growth/sperm production/testosterone)
follicular growth
216
most common causes of infertility in women (two)
endometriosis, polycystic ovarian syndrome
217
______ refers to a procedure involving administration of fertility drugs to induce maturation of multiple ovarian follicles, for subsequent retrieval and use in IVF.
controlled ovarian hyperstimulation
218
injectable gonadotropins (increase/decrease) the size of the ovaries
increase
219
In IVF how is the egg retrieved? (laparoscopy/ultrasound guided aspiration)
ultrasound guided aspiration
220
best embryo development state for transfer in IVF: (cleavage stage embryos at day 3/blastocyst stage embryos at day 5 when the embryonic genome is activated)
day 5 is better than day 3
221
(Estrogen/Progesterone) provides hormonal support to the endometrium so that implantation and nourishment are appropriate
Progesterone
222
Luteal phase support in IVF is a vaginal delivered _____ (hormone) supplement shown to improve implantation
progesterone
223
Which protocol starts GnRH agonist/antagonist on day 21 of the previous cycle? (Multiple dose GnRH antagonist protocol/Long GnRH agonist protocol/Short GnRH agonist protocol)
Long GnRH agonist protocol
