Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Unit 8 > Physio > Flashcards

Physio Flashcards

1
Q

the sperm binds to the ____, which is comprised of 3 glycoproteins that form a mucus-like latticework

A

zona pellucida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the acrosomal rxn requires which ion

A

calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what portions of the sperm enter the oocyte

A

cytoplasmic portion of sperm head and tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

purpose of cortical reaction in the oocyte

A

prevents polyspermy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the cortical rxn in the oocyte requires which ion

A

calcium (and IP3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

at the early stage of pregnancy, what produces steroid hormones necessary to maintain pregnancy

A

the corpus luteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HCG very closely resembles which hormone

A

LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

______ (hormone) sustains corpus luteum in the beginning of pregnancy, immunosuppressive agent, growth-promoting activity, promotes placental development

A

HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

during early weeks of pregnancy, fetus derives nutrition from the endometrial _____. Subsequently, nutrition is provided by diffusion thru the placenta

A

endometrial decidua

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most important placental peptide hormone

A

HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

____ (hormone) coordinates fuel economy by contributing to the conversion of glucose to fatty acids and ketones. Promotes mammary gland development in the pregnant mother

A

somatomammotropins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the _____ is critical for steroid hormone synthesis in the pregnant mother

A

placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

why is estriol more delayed than progesterone and estradiol in pregnancy

A

estriol contributes to development of placenta. the corpus luteum is first so estriol can be late

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the (corpus luteum/placenta) can produce adequate amounts of cholesterol, the precursor for steroid hormone synthesis

A

corpus luteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the (placenta/fetus) lacks 3-B hydroxysteroid DHase, aromatase so it needs the maternal-placental-fetal unit to make estrogen and progesterone

A

the fetus lacks 3-B hydroxysteroid DHase, aromatase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the (fetus/placenta) lacks 17-a-hydroxylase and 17,20-desmolase and 16-a hydroxylase

A

the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

maternal pregnancy response: blood volume (increases/decreases)

A

increases due to increased plasma volume and erythrocytes. meets demands of enlarged uterus, vascular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

maternal pregnancy response: mean arterial pressure (increases/decreases)

A

decreases during midpregnancy then rises during third trimester, but remains lower than normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

maternal pregnancy response: cardiac output (increases/decreases)

A

increases during first trimester, mostly due to increase in SV. Much of increased blood flow is to kidney and uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

maternal pregnancy response: alveolar ventilation (increases/decreases)

A

increases due to increased tidal volume, due to steroid effects on medullary respiratory centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

maternal pregnancy response: maternal arterial pCO2 (increases/decreases)

A

decreases as a result of increased alveolar ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

maternal pregnancy response: demand for dietary protein (increases/decreases)

A

increases, as well as iron and folic acid (increased production of RBCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

maternal pregnancy response: BMR (increases/decreases)

A

increases by 15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

(oxytocin/prolactin) promotes milk let-down and uterine contractility

A

oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(oxytocin/prolactin) promotes milk synthesis

A

prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(oxytocin/prolactin) released in response to suckling

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

from where is oxytocin released

A

hyth (PVN and supraoptic) to post pit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

from where is prolactin released

A

ant pit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

(mammogenic/lactogenic) hormones promote initiation of milk production

A

lactogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

(mammogenic/lactogenic) hormones promote cell proliferation

A

mammogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

estrogen, GH, cortisol, prolactin, relaxin, progesterone: (mammogenic/lactogenic) hormones

A

mammogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

prolactin, hCS, cortisol, insulin, thyroid hormones, withdrawal of estrogens and progesterone: (mammogenic/lactogenic) hormones

A

lactogenic. estrogen and progesterone are withdrawn when the placenta is delivered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

during pregnancy, which hormones inhibit milk production

A

estrogen and progesterone, in placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

the ____ is the secretory unit of the breast

A

alveolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

contractile myoepithelial cells surround each alveolus and adipose cells and promote milk let-down in response to:

A

oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

secretory epithelial cells comprise the alveolus and secrete milk in response to:

A

prolactin and cortisol (permissive hormones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

_____ provides a concentrated, low-volume form of nutrition for the neonate’s immature GI tract. No fat compared to mature human milk. Protein rich

A

colostrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

_____ (hormone) maintains milk production after parturition

A

prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

dopamine (increases/decreases) during breast feeding

A

decreases (because it inhibits prolactin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

deposition of mucopolysaccharides around the orbit that cause the eye to protrude

A

exopthalamos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

separation of nail from nail bed

A

onycholysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

thyroxine has (a catabolic/an anabolic) effect on tissues

A

catabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

_____ (disease): common thyroiditis, slow developing, autoimmune, production of anti thyroid antibodies which gradually destroy the gland

A

Hashimoto’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

dietary ___ deficiency leads to hypothyroidism and goiter

A

iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

there is (elevated/reduced) TSH and (elevated/reduced) TH in patients with primary hypothyroidism

A

elevated TSH, reduced TH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

______ coma is the end stage of untreated hypothyroidism

A

myxedema coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hashimoto’s patients are typically treated with

A

thyroxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

major action of _____ is to stimulate the kidney to reabsorb sodium and water and enhance potassium secretion

A

aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

in renal tubule cells, aldosterone increases activity of proteins involved in _ (ion) transport and increases txn of Na/K pump and expression of apical _ (ion) channels

A

Na, Na

net: increase sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what measurement is used to diagnose cushing’s

A

urinary or salivary cortisol measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the benefit of a dexamethasone suppression test for cushing’s disease

A

can diagnose different types of cushing’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

in adrenal tumor cushing’s, cortisol is (high/low) and ACTH is (high/low)

A

cortisol is high

ACTH is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

in ACTH producing tumor in cushing’s, cortisol is (high/low) and ACTH is (high/low)

A

both are high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

in a normal state (not cushing’s), cortisol is (high/low) and ACTH is (high/low)

A

both are low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

(cushing’s/addison’s): hypoadrenal function

A

addison’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

(cushing’s/addison’s): hyperadrenal function

A

cushing’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

(cushing’s/addison’s): lack of aldosterone results in hypotension, hyperkalemia

A

addison’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

(cushing’s/addison’s): hypokalemia and hypertension

A

cushing’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

(cushing’s/addison’s): hypoglycemia, weakness, weight loss, poor tolerance to stress

A

addison’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

fetal circulating prostaglandin is (lower/higher) than adult

A

5x higher bc placenta makes a lot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

where does gas exchange occur in the fetus

A

placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

pulmonary vascular resistance in the fetus is (high/low/normal)

A

very high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

the sum of both ventricles in the fetus is known as the

A

combined cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

first breath in of fetus requires a transpulmonary pressure of 60cmH2O to (increase/decrease) the lung volume by 40mL

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

_____ (disease) is caused by def of surfactant, often found in premature births

A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

fetal to neonatal: pulmonary vascular resistance (increases/decreases)

A

decreases dramatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

fetal to neonatal: pulmonary blood flow (increases/decreases)

A

increases dramatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

fetal to neonatal: mean pulmonary arterial pressure (increases/decreases)

A

decreases dramatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

placental insufficiency causes ______

A

Type II intrauterine growth restriction IUGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

any insult to the placenta that interferes with gas exchange may lead to fetal _____

A

asphyxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

closure of placental circulation (increases/decreases) pressure in the aorta

A

increases (placenta receives 50% of combined cardiac output in fetal circulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

closure of placental circulation causes peripheral resistance to (increase/decrease)

A

double, causing an increase in aortic and left ventricle pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

closure of the ________ (fetal circulation shunt) is caused by reversal of right/left atrial pressure

A

foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

increased pulmonary circulation in the neonate causes (increased/decreased) venous return to the LA

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

when the baby is born, there is (an increase/a decrease) in RA pressure

A

a decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

(foramen ovale/ductus venosus) closes within three hours

A

ductus venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

(foramen ovale/ductus venosus) closes within three months or even years

A

foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

closure of the ductus venosus forces portal blood to perfuse the ____

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

failure of ductus vensosus closure=

A

portosystemic shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

closure of the _____ (fetal circulation shunt) is mediated by increases in PO2 and decreases in circulating prostaglandins. Bradykinin from lung is involved as well

A

ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

failure of ductus arteriosus closure leads to: (3 things)

A

pulmonary HTN, CHF, cardiac arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

if baby is born at high altitude, the ______ (fetal circulation shunt) may not close correctly because partial pressure of oxygen is lower

A

ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

if the ductus arteriosus doesn’t close entirely, how does that cause reversal of blood flow?

A

hypoxia > hypoxic vasoconstriction > increased pulm vascular resistance > build up > reversal of flow > “persistent fetal circulation”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

how do you treat persistent fetal circulation

A

with drugs that inhibit cyclooxygenase so you don’t make prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

most common cause of blue baby syndrome

A

tetralogy of Fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

four components of tetralogy of Fallot

A
  1. pulm stenosis 2. right shifted aorta 3. RV hypertrophy 4. ventricular septal defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

symptoms of menopause due to (lack of estrogen/rise of FSH)

A

lack of estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

diagnosis of menopause: rise in circulating (LH/FSH)

A

FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

why is hormone replacement therapy controversial for menopause

A

increased risk of CVD, cerebrovascular disease, breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what are SERMs

A

selective estrogen receptor modulators, replacing hormone replacement therapy for menopause

91
Q

puberty is characterized by pulsatile GnRH secretion initially during the (night/day) and then also at (day/night)

A

initially at night then also during the day

92
Q

polycystic ovary syndrome: (multiple primordial follicles emerge as dominant follicles/no dominant follicle emerges and ovulation does not occur)

A

no dominant follicle emerges and ovulation does not occur

93
Q

polycystic ovary syndrome: reduced (estrogen/progesterone) in the granulosa and thecal cells

A

reduced estrogen in granulosa. reduced progesterone in both granulosa and thecal

94
Q

polycystic ovary syndrome: continued production of androgen by (granulosa/thecal) cells throughout cycle

A

thecal

95
Q

polycystic ovary syndrome: treat with clomiphene to restore:

A

ovulation

96
Q

polycystic ovary syndrome: treat with weight loss to control:

A

abnormal blood glucose and diminished insulin sensitivity

97
Q

polycystic ovary syndrome: treat with 5-a-reductase inhibitors to block conversion of testosterone to:

A

dihydrotestosterone

98
Q

polycystic ovary syndrome: treat with combination bc pills to restore:

A

regular periods

99
Q

occurs when tissue from the uterine endometrium spreads to the peritoneal cavity, often around the ovaries

A

endometriosis

100
Q

cause of endometriosis

A

retrograde menstruation

101
Q

hCG is (high/low) in ectopic pregnancy

A

low

102
Q

most dangerous region for rupture of ectopic preg: (interstitial/ampullary/isthmic)

A

interstitial–ruptures at 12-16 weeks, closest proximity to uterine and ovarian vessels&raquo_space; hemorrhage

103
Q

why would you treat ectopic pregnancy with methotrexate

A

halt rapidly dividing cells, especially in early cases

104
Q

the only hormone under primarily negative control from the hypothalamus

A

prolactin

105
Q

hyth secretes dopamine, prolactin (increases/decreases)

A

decreases

106
Q

hyth secretes somatostatin, GH (increases/decreases)

A

decreases

107
Q

hyth secretes GnRH, LH (increases/decreases)

A

increases

108
Q

hyth secretes TRH, TSH (increases/decreases)

A

increases

109
Q

hyth secretes CRH, ACTH (increases/decreases)

A

increases

110
Q

initiates its actions at target tissues by binding to nuclear receptors: (ACTH, vasopressin, epi, IGF-1, thyroid hormone)

A

thyroid hormone

111
Q

oxytocin: (promotes uterine quiescence/is released directly into general circulation)

A

is released directly into general circulation

112
Q

chemical structure most similar to ADH: (oxytocin, ACTH, TSH, FSH, prolactin)

A

oxytocin–both have nine amino acids

113
Q

ADH (vasopressin) is produced primarily in the _____ neurons of the hyth

A

supraoptic

114
Q

if the pituitary is removed or transsected, the plasma concentration of what hormone will increase

A

prolactin–under inhibitory control by hyth

115
Q

In patients with central diabetes insipidus, there is an inappropriately (high/low) secretion rate of ADH in response to changes in plasma osmolality, but there is no impairment in the renal response to ADH.

A

low

116
Q

In Central Diabetes Insipidus: Because plasma levels of ADH are depressed, there is an impaired ability to concentrate urine, and a (small/large) volume of dilute urine is excreted.

A

large

117
Q

GH receptor (activates Gs/requires a receptor dimer to exert effects/must be internalized to exert its effects)

A

requires a receptor dimer to exert effects

118
Q

result of impaired GH action: (failure to double birth weight at six months/short stature in 12 year old boy/fasting hyperglycemia and impaired glucose tolerance)

A

short stature in 12 year old boy

119
Q

pit tumor secreting excess growth hormone in 4 yo: will cause (Acromegaly due to excess insulin-like growth factor (IGF)-1 production/Gigantism due to excess IGF-1 production)

A

Gigantism due to excess IGF-1 production–effects of GH on linear growth are mediated via IGF-1

120
Q

GH is effective at treating (celiac/Turner syndrome/GH receptor def)

A

Turner

121
Q

TSH action on thyroid follicular cells: (increases blood flow/increases iodide uptake)

A

increases iodide uptake

122
Q

in which form are T3 and T4 most active: (bound to albumin/bound to transthyretin/bound to thyroglobulin/unbound/bound to thyroxine-binding globulin)

A

unbound

123
Q

not essential for synthesis of thyroid hormones: (iodine/ferritin/thyroglobulin/protein synthesis/TSH)

A

ferritin

124
Q

incorporation of dietary iodide into thyroid hormones is known as _____ (process)

A

organification

125
Q

metabolic rate is least affected by increase in plasma level of: (TBG/TSH/TRH/free T4/free T3)

A

TBG

126
Q

TBG transiently (increases/decreases) free T3 and T4

A

decreases

127
Q

increased binding of a hormone to plasma proteins results in: (increase in plasma clearance of the hormone/increase in plasma reservoir for rapid replenishment of free hormone)

A

increase in plasma reservoir for rapid replenishment of free hormone

128
Q

protein bound hormones are (active/inactive)

A

inactive and cannot be metabolized

129
Q

In target tissues, nuclear receptors for thyroid hormones have a greater affinity for (T3/T4) than for (T3/T4).

A

higher affinity for T3

130
Q

secretion rate, plasma concentration, half life, and onset of action are all greater for (T3/T4)

A

T4

131
Q

Thyroid hormone receptors bind to DNA in a heterodimer with the (insulin/progesterone/GH/prolactin/retinoid X) receptor

A

RXR retinoid X receptor

132
Q

T4 (increases/decreases) HR, RR, plasma [cholesterol]. Name action on each

A

increases HR, increases RR, decreases plasma [cholesterol]

133
Q

Increased plasma (iodide/cholesterol) concentration is commonly observed in hypothyroidism.

A

cholesterol

134
Q

Stimulation of the adrenal gland by ACTH has the most direct effect on release of (epi/NE/cortisol/androgens/aldosterone)

A

cortisol

135
Q

portion of adrenal gland that secretes anti inflam hormone

A

fasciculata (cortisol)

136
Q

Fasting hypoglycemia and fatigue are due to low (ACTH/cortisol) levels. Increased pigmentation suggests high levels of (ACTH/cortisol).

A

cortisol,

ACTH

137
Q

The enzyme 21-hydroxylase is required for _____ and _____ synthesis.

A

cortisol and aldosterone

138
Q

Low levels or cortisol result in high levels of _____ (hormone) due to loss of negative feedback.

A

ACTH

139
Q

prolonged cortisol administration can cause (bone deposition and collagen formation/virilization/muscle weakness).

A

muscle weakness (skeletal muscle protein catabolism)

140
Q

β-Adrenergic receptor desensitization occurs in response to chronically high (catecholamine/glucocorticoid) levels

A

catecholamine

141
Q

genetic deficiency in 11β -hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2: (increased mineralcorticoid/increased glucocorticoid/hyperkalemia/hypoglycemia/decreased blood pressure)

A

increased mineralcorticoid

142
Q

11β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type (1/2) is present in renal tubular cells and converts cortisol to cortisone, which does not readily bind to mineralocorticoid receptors.

A

type 2

143
Q

cortisone treatment for autoimmune disease can cause: (increased cortisol secretion/increased ACTH/increased muscle mass/increased insulin)

A

increased insulin secretion

144
Q

Increased plasma levels of cortisol tend to (decrease/increase) plasma glucose concentration

A

increase

145
Q

PTH (increases/decreases) Calcium reabsorption and (increases/decreases) phosphate reabsorption in kidney

A

increases Ca reabs.

decreases phosphate reabs.

146
Q

(increase/decrease) in PTH increases the rate of excretion of calcium by kidney

A

decrease

147
Q

increases rate of deposition and decreases rate of absorption of bone: (estrogen/PTH/reduction of mechanical stress)

A

estrogen

148
Q

untreated goiter is assoc with (hyper/hypo/eu)thyroidism

A

all three

149
Q

Thyrotoxicosis or Grave’s disease is typically characterized by: Elevated serum T3, T4 and (thyroid/TSH receptor) antibodies

A

TSH receptor antibodies

150
Q

high plasma levels of (thyroid hormones/immunoglobulins in Graves’) do not cause exophthalmos.

A

thyroid hormones

151
Q

Used to tx what dz? Very high levels of iodine (Wolff-Chaikoff effect)
Iodinated iodine to destroy the gland (131I-)
Antithyroid agents such as PTU
Surgical removal of gland (thyroidectomy)

A

Graves’

152
Q

____ deficiency prevents normal production of thyroid hormone by the thyroid gland, producing primary hypothyroidism.

A

Iodine

153
Q

a deposition of mucoprotein in the subcutaneous and extracellular spaces that causes edema: characteristic of (hypo/hyper) thryroid

A

hypothyroid

154
Q

weight (loss/gain) assoc with hyperthyroidism

A

loss

155
Q

myxedema seen in (hypo/hyper)thyroid

A

hypothyroid

156
Q

deficiency in iodine intake: (weight loss/tachycardia/increased synthesis of thyroglobulin)

A

increased synthesis of thyroglobulin

157
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: elevated serum TSH and (TSH receptor/thyroid) antibodies

A

thyroid antibodies against thyroid peroxidase

158
Q

_____ failure after menopause causes estrogen, progesterone, and inhibin levels to decrease to very low levels

A

ovarian

159
Q

what leads to high levels of GnRH in menopause

A

loss of negative feedback from estrogen

160
Q

A high concentration of estrogen, progesterone, and inhibin, all at the same time, indicates peak secretion from the corpus luteum about days __-__ of the cycle

A

18-24

161
Q

high estrogen and progesterone and inhibitn= (high/low) LH and FSH

A

low

162
Q

steroid hormone effects are (long/short) lived

A

long lasting via gene txn

163
Q

The luteinizing hormone surge measured during the ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle results from positive feedback exerted by (GnRH/estrogen/FSH/inhibin/progesterone)

A

estrogen

164
Q

(thecal/granulosa) cells provide androgen precursors under influence of LH.

A

thecal

165
Q

(thecal/granulosa) cells use androgens to synthesize estrogens, which is accomplished via FSH stimulated aromatase activity

A

granulosa

166
Q

during 12 hrs before ovulation: (plasma [estrogen] is rising/surge of LH)

A

surge of LH (ovulation will not take place without a surge of LH before it)

167
Q

progesterone synthesis is stimulated by the (LH/FSH) surge

A

LH

168
Q

what stimulates increase in endometrium thickness in the week following ovulation (LH/FSH/progesterone/estrogen)

A

progesterone from corpus luteum

169
Q

cause of menopause: Reduced numbers of follicles available in the ovary for stimulation by ____ hormones

A

gonadotropic

170
Q

(Decreases/Increases) in both gap junctions and oxytocin receptors enhance myometrial contractility.

A

increases

171
Q

enhanced responsiveness to pitocin: (increased/decreased) prostaglandin synthesis

A

increased–PGs initiate contractions which are augmented and sustained by oxytocin

172
Q

pregnant: high urinary hCG and (high/low) plasma progesterone

A

high

173
Q

(pulsatile/constant) GnRH mimics the physiologic release

A

pulsatile–constant is ineffective bc it downregulates pituitary gonadotropes

174
Q

if ovulation is on day 15, when is implantation likely to occur

A

days 21-22

175
Q

Binding of the sperm head to specific proteins of the zona pellucida causes a calcium signal in the sperm, resulting in the ______ reaction

A

acrosome

176
Q

the fetus makes (aromatase/DHEA-S/progesterone/21-a-hyroxylase/testosterone) for the placenta to produce estrogen

A

DHEA-S

177
Q

what hormone suppresses milk production before birth and for about two days after birth

A

estrogen

178
Q

what hormone accounts for milk expression in response to conditioned stimuli (baby crying) (estrogen/oxytocin/prolactin)

A

oxytocin

179
Q

hCG has the same stimulatory effect as (FSH/LH) on the corpus luteum. Administration of hCG prevents degradation of endometrium and onset of menstruation

A

LH

180
Q

inhibit initiation of labor with prostaglandin E2 (agonist/antagonist)

A

antagonist.

181
Q

Antagonism of progesterone’s effects (initiates/inhibits) labor

A

initiates labor

182
Q

PGE2 strongly stimulates uterine smooth muscle contraction and is formed in increasing rate by the placenta (early/late) in gestation.

A

late

183
Q

specific effect of RU486 (abortion pil): blocks (oxytocin receptors in uterine muscle/progesterone receptors in body)

A

blocks progesterone receptors so progesterone has no effect in the body

184
Q

Very high plasma concentration of (estrogen/progesterone) maintains the uterine muscle in a quiescent state during pregnancy.

A

progesterone

185
Q

In the final month of gestation the concentration of (estrogen/progesterone) begins to decline, increasing the excitability of the muscle.

A

progesterone

186
Q

The placenta secretes (estrogen/progesterone/LH) from the trophoblast cells.

A

estrogen and progesterone

187
Q

fertilization normally takes place in the (uterus/cervix/ovary/ampulla of fallopian tube)

A

ampulla of fallopian tube

188
Q

suckling stimulates secretion of (oxytocin/ADH/both) from the PVN

A

oxytocin

189
Q

During the latter stages of pregnancy, many women experience an increase in body hair growth in a masculine pattern. Why?

A

The maternal and fetal adrenal glands secrete large amounts of androgenic steroids that are used by the placenta to form estrogen

190
Q

umbilical arterial blood has (lower/higher) PO2 and (lower/high) PCO2 compared to the umbilical vein

A

lower PO2 and higher PCO2

191
Q

O2 saturation in the fetal IVC is (greater/lower) than O2 sat in the fetal aorta

A

O2 sat is greater in the fetal IVC

192
Q

blood in which vessel has lowest PO2: (maternal uterine vein/maternal femoral vein/umbilical artery/umbilical vein)

A

umbilical artery

193
Q

at birth, the pressure in the baby’s pulm artery (increases/decreases) greatly

A

decreases

194
Q

In the circulatory system of a fetus, (aortic pressure/right atrial pressure) is greater before birth than after birth

A

right atrial pressure

195
Q

In the circulatory system of a fetus, (aortic pressure/right atrial pressure) is greater after birth than before birth

A

aortic pressure

196
Q

full development and function of seminiferous tubules requires (LH/oxytocin/FSH/androgens and FSH)

A

androgens and FSH

197
Q

in human males, testosterone is mainly produced by (Leydig cells/Sertoli cells/seminiferous tubules)

A

Leydig cells (from pregnenolone precursors)

198
Q

_____ (enzyme) contributes to erection by activating soluble guanylate cyclases to increase cGMP levels that relax smooth muscle and increase blood flow

A

nitric oxide synthase

199
Q

pubertal growth spurt is mainly stimulated by (testosterone/dihydrotestosterone/estradiol)

A

estradiol

200
Q

inhibin has direct negative feedback effects on the release of (GnRH/prolactin/FSH/LH/testosterone)

A

FSH

201
Q

(FSH/LH) stimulates Sertoli cells to produce inhibin

A

FSH

202
Q

(FSH/LH) stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone

A

LH

203
Q

What stimulates the secretion of testosterone during embryonic development? (LH/inhibin from corpus luteum/hCG/GnRH from embryo’s hyth)

A

hCG

204
Q

emission phase of male sexual act: (parasymp/symp)

A

symp (Point and Shoot)–beta adrenergic antagonists interfere with ejaculation

205
Q

erection phase of male sexual act: (parasymp/symp)

A

parasymp (Point and Shoot)

206
Q

(TRH/TSH) works via a GPCR-PLC-IP3-Ca system

A

TRH

207
Q

(TRH/TSH) works via a GPCR-AC-cAMP system

A

TSH

208
Q

T4 is converted to T3 via (peripheral deiodinase/thyroid peroxidase)

A

peripheral deiodinase

209
Q

I- is oxidized to iodine in lumen of thyroid by ((peripheral deiodinase/thyroid peroxidase)

A

thyroid peroxidase

210
Q

what stimulates colloid proteolysis in the thyroid, releasing T3 and T4?

A

TSH

211
Q

what enzyme catalyzes the coupling of DIT to DIT in the thyroid

A

thyroid peroxidase

212
Q

with what does the thyroid hormone receptor dimerize in the nucleus of the target tissue cell

A

RXR

213
Q

Clomiphene acts primarily at the level of the hypothalamus to relieve the negative feedback effect of endogenous estrogen, thereby stimulating ____ release and, in turn, (decreasing/increasing) the production of anterior pituitary gonadotropins.

A

GnRH

increasing

214
Q

clomiphene is (often/rarely) associated with ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A

rarely

215
Q

clomiphene in IVF: induces (follicular growth/sperm production/testosterone)

A

follicular growth

216
Q

most common causes of infertility in women (two)

A

endometriosis, polycystic ovarian syndrome

217
Q

______ refers to a procedure involving administration of fertility drugs to induce maturation of multiple ovarian follicles, for subsequent retrieval and use in IVF.

A

controlled ovarian hyperstimulation

218
Q

injectable gonadotropins (increase/decrease) the size of the ovaries

A

increase

219
Q

In IVF how is the egg retrieved? (laparoscopy/ultrasound guided aspiration)

A

ultrasound guided aspiration

220
Q

best embryo development state for transfer in IVF: (cleavage stage embryos at day 3/blastocyst stage embryos at day 5 when the embryonic genome is activated)

A

day 5 is better than day 3

221
Q

(Estrogen/Progesterone) provides hormonal support to the endometrium so that implantation and nourishment are appropriate

A

Progesterone

222
Q

Luteal phase support in IVF is a vaginal delivered _____ (hormone) supplement shown to improve implantation

A

progesterone

223
Q

Which protocol starts GnRH agonist/antagonist on day 21 of the previous cycle? (Multiple dose GnRH antagonist protocol/Long GnRH agonist protocol/Short GnRH agonist protocol)

A

Long GnRH agonist protocol

Unit 8 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions