Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

COMPRE > PHYSIO > Flashcards

PHYSIO Flashcards

1
Q

Homeostasis refers to dynamic constancy of the body’s internal or ____ compartment fluid

A. Intracellular
B. Extracellular
C. Interstitial
D. Transcellular

A

B. Extracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The greatest contributor to the generation of the resting membrane potential (RMP) is:

A. K+ influx
B. K+ efflux
C. Na+ efflux
D. Na+ influx

A

B. K+ efflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When the plasma membrane is at its resting potential

A. Membrane is inexcitable
B. Membrane is more permeable to Na+ than to K+
C. membrane is negative outside relative to the inside
D. there is no net movement of Na+ and K+

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True of endocytosis but not exocytosis

A. An active process
B. Forms transport vesicle
C. Removes a portion of plasma membrane
D. Moves across but not through membrane

A

C. Removes a portion of plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following characteristics describe both simple diffusion and facilitated transport?

A. An active transport
B. Requires carrier protein
C. Exhibits saturation
D. Net flux from higher to lower concentration

A

D. Net flux from higher to lower concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Event in bone resorption that happens in ruffled border

A. Extrusion of bicarbonate
B. Acid secretion by H pumps
C. Integrin attachment by vitronectin
D. Clathrin-mediated endocytosis of lysosomal enzymes

A

B. Acid secretion by H pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The osteoclasts possess receptors for

A. Calcitonin only
B. Calcitonin and RANKL only
C. Calcitonin and calcitriol only
D. Calcitonin, RANKL and calcitriol

A

B. Calcitonin and RANKL only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypercalcemia can inhibit parathyroid secretion from the parathyroid gland by:

A. activating the calcium sensor
B. activating the adenylyl cyclase pathway
C. inhibiting protein kinase C
D. inhibiting the phospholipase C pathway

A

A. activating the calcium sensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Antigen specificity of immunoglobulin is determined by:

A. Variable heavy & light chains
B. Constant light & variable heavy chains
C. Constant heavy & variable light chains
D. Constant heavy & light chains

A

A. Variable heavy & light chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Complement activation requires

A. Plasma protein
B. Previous exposure to antigen
C. Opsonization by bacteria
D. Ag/ab complex

A

D. Ag/ab complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tissue bound macrophages

A. Are stimulated by lymphokines
B. Not found in the lung and liver
C. Digest bacteria using lymphokines
D. Derived from megakaryocytes

A

A. Are stimulated by lymphokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Prevents further differentiation of immature cells is clonal

A. deletion
B. abortion
C. ignorance
D. anergy

A

B. abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Division of immune responses into innate and adaptive components are determined by the following, except

A. Development of memory
B. Location in the body
C. Specificity of recognition
D. Kinetics of onset

A

B. Location in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is related to pattern-recognition molecules?

A. Can distinguish self from non-self
B. Can tell the difference between discrete genetic variants of a pathogen
C. Fist appear in evolution of mammals
D. Are generated by complex recombination of multiple gene segments

A

A. Can distinguish self from non-self (Answer in Quiz 2)
B. Can tell the difference between discrete genetic variants of a pathogen (Answer in the bimonthly exam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

NK cells recognize and kill:

A. Normal host cells
B. Cells with increased expression of MHC-I
C. Intracellular pathogens
D. Cells with increased expression of MHC-II

A

B. Cells with increased expression of MHC-I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is false?

A. Memory B cells have high affinity for antigen
B. Long lived plasma cells are mostly found in the spleen
C. Memory B cells constitutively secrete immunoglobulins
D. Generation of long-lived memory B cells need CD4+ T Helper cells

A

C. Memory B cells constitutively secrete immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is false about immune response control

A. Elimination of antigen
B. Apoptosis of previously activated cells
C. Exclusion of cells from the inflammation site
D. Inhibitory receptors

A

C. Exclusion of cells from the inflammation site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cytokines primarily involved in T-cell proliferation and development

A. IL-12
B. IL-2 and 7
C. IL-4 and 5
D. TGF - Beta

A

B. IL-2 and 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CD4+ T Cell is generally restricted by:

A. CD 22
B. MHC Class I
C. MHC Class II
D. B2 microglobulin

A

C. MHC Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following are the antigen-specific receptor on mature B cells?

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD

A

D. IgD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

One of the following is true about the bone marrow

A. Very little antibody production
B. Long-term antibody production
C. Antibody production by pre-B cells
D. Substantial secretion of IgD

A

C. Antibody production by pre-B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When a resting naïve T-cell enlarges, what happens to the specific MCH/peptide complex in the absence of co-stimulator?

A. Produces IL-1
B. Undergoes blast cell formation
C. Becomes anergic
D. Moves from G0 to C1 of the cell cycle

A

C. Becomes anergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Increase in vertical dimension of chest cage

A. Contraction of diaphragm
B. Contraction of abdominal recti
C. Contraction of internal intercostal
D. Contraction of external intercostal

A

A. Contraction of diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The pressure exerted by the alveolar fluid that tends to collapse the lung:

A. Pleural pressure
B. Surface tension
C. Transmural pressure
D. Elastic recoil pressure

A

B. Surface tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Based on the Law of Laplace, which of the following is TRUE?

A. Without surfactant, the flow of air tends to go to the bigger alveolus.
B. Without surfactant, there is no pressure gradient between alveoli.
C. With surfactant, the pressure generated is greater in the bigger alveolus.
D. With surfactant, the alveolar pressure is greater in the smaller alveolus.

A

A. Without surfactant, the flow of air tends to go to the bigger alveolus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following reflect/s vital capacity?

A. Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
B. Tidal volume plus functional residual capacity
C. Tidal volume plus inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
D. Functional residual capacity plus inspiratory capacity

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the volume of alveolar air that is renewed by the atmospheric air with each inspiration is

A. 150 ml
B. 250 ml
C. 350 ml
D. 500 ml

A

C. 350 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If the partial pressure of a particular gas in chamber A is 35mm Hg and in Chamber B 85mm Hg, which of the following is true?

A. The gas diffuses from Chamber A to Chamber B
B. There is no movement of molecules across the chambers
C. There is no movement of molecules from Chamber A to Chamber B
D. There is a net partial pressure of 50 mmHg causing the molecules to diffuse to Chamber A

A

D. There is a net partial pressure of 50 mmHg causing the molecules to diffuse to Chamber A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is true regarding factors that determine the partial pressure of gas?

A. The concentration of gas is inversely related to its partial pressure
B. The greater the solubility of the gas in fluid, the greater the partial pressure
C. Humidification of the air does not affect the oxygen partial pressure in the alveoli
D. Gas molecules that are affected to water molecules need a lower partial pressure for diffusion

A

D. Gas molecules that are affected to water molecules need a lower partial pressure for diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following increases O2 and hemoglobin dissociation?
A. A pregnant woman
B. A child with hypothermia
C. A patient with metabolic alkalosis
D. A patient with severe dehydration with a serum pH of 4.8

A

D. A patient with severe dehydration with a serum pH of 4.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In emphysema, which of these factors affect the rate of diffusion of gas in the respiratory membrane?

A. Diminished surface area
B. Increased membrane thickness due to fibrosis
C. Increased diffusion coefficient
D. Increased pressure difference

A

A. Diminished surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following shows the correct relationship?

A. Increased blood flow – increased interstitial fluid pO2
B. Increased metabolism – decreased interstitial fluid pCO2
C. Increased blood flow – increased interstitial fluid pCO2
D. Increased metabolism – decreased interstitial fluid pO2

A

A. Increased blood flow – increased interstitial fluid pO2

D. Increased metabolism – decreased interstitial fluid pO2 (chatgpt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which statement is true?

A. The increase in blood flow during exercise decreases the physiologic dead space in the upper part of the lung
B. In the upper portion of the lung, blood low and ventilation is maximal
C. In physiologic shunting, alveolar air becomes equal to the humidified air
D. In the bottom of the lung there is a certain degree of physiologic dead space

A

A. The increase in blood flow during exercise decreases the physiologic dead space in the upper part of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The average alveolar PO2 is 104 mmHg and the venous blood PO2 is 40 mmHg. The initial pressure difference that caused the O2 to diffuse to the pulmonary capillary is:

A. 23
B. 35
C. 56
D. 64

A

D. 64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is true regarding movement of gas molecules?

A. Net diffusion molecules follow a concentration gradient
B. Free molecules move in a line at high velocity until they strike other molecules
C. Except at absolute zero temperature
D. All of the given choices are correct

A

D. All of the given choices are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The following increases the vertical dimensions of the chest cage

A. Contraction of the external intercostals
B. Contraction of the abdominal recti
C. Contraction of the diaphragm
D. Contraction of the internal intercostal

A

C. Contraction of the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following characteristics is both common in fast response action potential and slow response action potential

A. Exhibits overshoot potential
B. Uptake is due to Na+ influx
C. Plateau is due to Ca+ influx
D. Repolarization is due to K+ efflux

A

D. Repolarization is due to K+ efflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is true of funny current?

A. It is a hyperpolarizing current
B. It conducts Na & C
C. It is activated when the membrane is depolarized about 10 mV
D. It is a voltage-gated channel

A

C. It is activated when the membrane is depolarized about 10 mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the heart’s major source of ATP after a heavy carbohydrate meal?

A. Free fatty acids
B. Pyruvates
C. Ketones
D. Triglycerides

A

A. Free fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Lead I: R= 5 squares, Q= 2 squares, S= 5 squares. AVF: R= 7 squares, Q= 1 square, no S
MEA is at:

A. 0 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 30 degrees
D. 90 degrees

A

A. 0 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cardiac systole is the period from closure of AV valve to:

A. Opening of semilunar valves
B. Closure of semilunar valves
C. Opening of AV valves
D. Next closure of AV valves

A

A. Opening of semilunar valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ventricular volume is highest at which phase of the cardiac cycle?

A. Atrial contraction
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Isovolumetric contraction
D. Residual volume

A

A. Atrial contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Aortic pressure is at its lowest at the end of this phase of the cardiac cycle:

A. Atrial contraction
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Isovolumetric contraction
D. Reduced filling

A

C. Isovolumetric contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A change in the following will exert the greatest effect in blood flow

A. Blood viscosity
B. Vessel length
C. Vessel radius
D. Pressure difference

A

C. Vessel radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The cardiac output of the right ventricle to the pulmonary circulation is equivalent to what percentage of the cardiac output of the left ventricle to the systemic circulation?

A. 25%
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 100%

A

D. 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the describes the relationship between wall tension and transmural pressure?

A. Bernoulli’s principle
B. Law of Laplace
C. Poiseuille Law
D. Continuity principle

A

B. Law of Laplace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The right lymphatic duct drains these areas of the body

A. Lower left quadrant
B. Upper left quadrant
C. Lower right quadrant
D. Upper right quadrant

A

D. Upper right quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

An increase in which of the following can lead to increase in capillary filtration.

A. Mean arterial pressure
B. Resistance in precapillary arterioles
C. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
D. Albumin in the blood

A

A. Mean arterial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Venous return is decreased in increased

A. MAP
B. right atrial pressure
C. Mean systemic filling pressure
D. Diameter of arterioles

A

B. right atrial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A decrease in which of the following can lead to increased mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

A. Venous return
B. Hematocrit
C. Blood volume
D. Body temperature

A

D. Body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which step of the pharyngeal stage of swallowing precedes the rest?

A. Palatopharyngeal folds are pulled medially to approximate each other
B. Larynx is pulled up to increase esophageal size
C. Vocal folds are approximated
D. Soft palate is raised to the posterior nares

A

D. Soft palate is raised to the posterior nares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following factors will result to the longest gastric emptying time?

A. Chyme pH 7.8
B. 0.1L contents in stomach
C. Isosmotic fluid
D. Polypeptides in the upper duodenum

A

D. Polypeptides in the upper duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following motor activities of the bowel will have the LEAST contribution to the caudal movement of chyme?

A. Gastrocolic reflex
B. Segmentation contractions
C. Peristaltic rush
D. Mass movements

A

B. Segmentation contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

At which segment of the colon would you expect chyme to be normally mushy

A. Cecum
B. Ascending
C. Transverse
D. Sigmoid

A

C. Transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of the following is true about slow waves in the gastrointestinal tract?

A. A type of action potential
B. Causes muscle to contract
C. Intermittent slow depolarizations of resting membrane potential
D. Frequency is greater in the stomach than in small intestine

A

C. Intermittent slow depolarizations of resting membrane potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Splanchnic circulation includes the gut and these organs:

A. Spleen, pancreas, liver, and kidney
B. Spleen, pancreas, and liver
C. Spleen and pancreas
D. Spleen

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which describes both Auerbach and Meissner plexuses?

A. Extend from the mouth to anus
B. Increase gut motility
C. Increase intestinal absorption
D. Parasympathetic stimulates their activity

A

D. Parasympathetic stimulates their activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the ff is secreted by chief cells of gastric mucosa?

A. Intrinsic factor
B. Somat
C. Pepsinogen
D. HCL

A

C. Pepsinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In the esophagus, what provides lubrication for swallowing?

A. Compound mucus glands at gastroesophageal junction
B. mostly mucus glands
C. serous glands
D. tubular glands

A

B. mostly mucus glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What structure is responsible for the secretory functions of the large intestine?

A. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
B. Brunner’s gland
C. Serous gland
D. Oxyntic gland

A

A. Crypts of Lieberkuhn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which salivary enzyme is identical to pancreatic amylase and cleaves alpha 1,4-glycosidic bonds of carbohydrates?

A. Lingual lipase
B. Secretin
C. Ptyalin
D. Gastrin

A

C. Ptyalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the most abundant cation in the bile

A. Potassium
B. Chloride
C. Sodium
D. Bicarbonate

A

C. Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Most potent stimulus for the release of cholecystokinin

A. Bile
B. Secretin
C. Fats
D. Gastrin

A

C. Fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the following is true about pancreatic secretions?

A. Cholecystokinin (CCK) causes release of bicarbonate
B. Gastrin stimulates release of enzymes
C. Secretin causes release of enzymes
D. CCK stimulates release of enzymes while secretin stimulates release of bicarbonate

A

D. CCK stimulates release of enzymes while secretin stimulates release of bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The site of bilirubin conjugation

A. Duodenum
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Portal circulation

A

C. Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How much of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the nephrons?

A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 99%

A

D. 99%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The loops of Henle of the outer cortical nephrons do not descend to the inner medulla. What is true of these nephrons?

A. Are functionally unimportant in the renal conservation of sodium and water
B. Do not contribute to the medullary osmotic gradient
C. Do not participate in the urine diluting mechanism
D. Not functional in the overall kidney function and are simply unimportant

A

B. Do not contribute to the medullary osmotic gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

True regarding the proximal convoluted tubule

A. Sodium is “pumped” in and diffuses out passively
B. Sodium diffuses in passively and is “pumped” out
C. Chloried diffuses in passively and is “pumped” out
D. it has a few mitochondria and requires low oxygen

A

B. Sodium diffuses in passively and is “pumped” out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Patient presents to the ER feeling weak, thirsty and lightheaded. During examination, the mucous membrane appears dry. He tells you that he had recently been hiking but forgot to bring water. Stimulation of the brain by which of the following hormones is responsible for the patient’s thirst?

A. Angiotensin II
B. Renin
C. Angiotensin I
D. Aldosterone

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following is true? Removal of the

A. Lungs would cause the loss of rennin
B. Pituitary would cause the loss of aldosterone
C. Kidney would cause the loss of angiotensinogen
D. Zona glomerulosa would cause the loss of aldosterone

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following provides the greatest contribution to buffering?

A. Plasma proteins
B. Plasma bicarbonate
C. Red cell bicarbonate
D. Inorganic phosphate

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Majority of the bicarbonate ions are reabsorbed in which segment of the renal tubules?

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Thick ascending loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A 30-year-old man presents to the clinic for possible infertility. He was 6 years married and has been having unprotected intercourse with his wife. He has azoospermia in semen. Low FSH level is found. Lack of stimulation of which of the following cells is responsible for this condition?

A. Leydig cells
B. Sertoli cells
C. Zona fasciculata
D. Zona glomerulosa

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A 24-year old man went to check up for fertility advice. The result showed azoospermia and low FSH level. Which of the following is most likely the cause of his condition?

A. Apoptosis on spermatogonia
B. Increased estrogen levels
C. Decreased production of testosterone
D. Decreased production of androgen binding proteins

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A 24-year old man went to check up for fertility advice. The result showed azoospermia and low FSH level. Which of the following is most likely the cause of his condition?

A. Apoptosis on spermatogonia
B. Increased estrogen levels
C. Decreased production of testosterone
D. Decreased production of androgen binding proteins

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The presentation of hypogonadism:
A. FSH high, LH high, GnRH high, Testosterone low
B. FSH high , LH high, GnRH high, Testosterone high
C. FSH low, LH low, GnRH low, Testosterone high
D. FSH low, LH low, GnRH low, Testosterone low

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following hormones is responsible in converting granulosa cells and theca cells to progesterone-secreting cells?

A. GnRH
B. LH
C. GSH
D. Activin

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the ff best characterizes graafian cells?

A. Primary oocytes surrounded by granulosa cells
B. Fluid filled spaces within the mass of granulosa cells
C. Zona pellucida deposited between follicles and granulosa cells
D. Proliferation of granulosa cells and coalescence of fluid filled spaces

A

B

79
Q

The small group of granulosa cells surrounding the primary oocyte

A. Membrana granulosa
B. Cumulus oophorus
C. Corona radiata
D. Zona pellucida

A

C

80
Q

Maturation of the ovum occurs at

A. The first meiotic division
B. The second meiotic division
C. Ovulation
D. Fertilization

A

B

81
Q

Primarily synthesized by the supraoptic nuclei:

A. Oxytocin only
B. Vasopressin only
C. Both oxytocin and vasopressin
D. Neither oxytocin and vasopressin

A

B

82
Q

Secreted by the nerve terminals in the neurohypophysis

A. Oxytocin only
B. Vasopressin only
C. Both oxytocin and vasopressin
D. Neither oxytocin and vasopressin

A

C

83
Q

Increases expression and synthesis of aquaporins

A. Oxytocin
B. Vasopressin
C. Both
D. Neither

A

B

84
Q

Which organ produces the hormone involved in red cell production?

A. Kidney
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Intestine

A

A

85
Q

Which hypothalamic factor inhibits synthesis and release of prolactin from the pituitary gland?

A. GHIH
B. CRH
C. Dopamine
D. Somatostatin

A

C

86
Q

Which of the following factors stimulates secretion of growth hormone?

A. Aging
B. Obesity
C. Deep sleep
D. Somatomedin

A

C

87
Q

Which cell in adenohypophysis is correctly paired to its secretion?

A. somatotrophs – somatomedin
B. corticotrophs – cortisol
C. gonadotrophs - FSH
D. Thyrotrophs - Thyroxine

A

C

88
Q

Which of the following sets of hormones have the same alpha subunit

A. LH,FSH,TSH
B. GH,LH,TSH
C. ACTH,FSH,TSH
D. ACTH,LH,GH

A

A

89
Q

Which of the ff conditions can be corrected by using cylindrical lenses

A. Astigmatism
B. Hyperopia
C. Myopia
D. Presbyopia

A

A

90
Q

Ray of light emanating an object enter the retina but are not absorbed by photoreceptors must be _______ by pigmented epithelium

A. Refracted
B. Absorbed
C. Transmitted
D. Reflected

A

B

91
Q

Which of the extraocular muscles are working when a person looks to his right side?

A. Left medial rectus
B. Left superior oblique
C. Left lateral rectus
D. Right inferior oblique

A

A

92
Q

Pain of the wound is not often perceived unless the person sees blood oozing from the wound. What is the reason for this effect?

A. Perception is a learned phenomenon and depends on the degree of stimulation.
B. Cold and pain perception increases as attention increases.
C. Pain perceptions are modified severely by attention
D. Attention to pain decreases the threshold of excitation of pain receptors

A

C

93
Q

Which of the following will close the spinal gate, thus achieving analgesia?

A. A beta fibers
B. Enkephalins
C. A delta fibers
D. Serotonin

A

A

94
Q

Which of these events immediately follows after the auditory outer hair cells are depolarized?

A. Contraction of outer hair cells
B. Calcium influx at basolateral side of cell
C. Enhanced upward bowing of basilar membrane
D. Movement of endolymph toward tip of tectorial membrane

A

A

95
Q

Which of these tracts in the anterior funiculus is involved in the reflex movement of the head and neck in response to visual and vestibular stimuli?

A. Tectospinal tract
B. Spinoreticular tract
C. Vestibulospinal tract
D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus

A

A

96
Q

Which of the following may be characterized by loss of sense of smell?

A. Klinefelter’s syndrome
B. Kallmann syndrome
C. XX/XY syndrome
D. XYY syndrome

A

B

97
Q

Which of the following substances serve as primary precursor of thyroid hormone?

A. Alanine
B. Tyrosine
C. Cholesterol
D. POMC

A

B

98
Q

Which of the following Organ produces somatomedin?

A. Pituitary gland
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Pancreas

A

D

99
Q

Which of the following proteins is responsible for transport of colloid into the thyroid follicular cell?

A. NIS
B. Megalin
C. TPO
D. Pendrin

A

B

100
Q

Which of the following factors will increase the half-life of a particular hormone?

A. Increased phase 2 reactions in the liver
B. Increased uptake to target cells
C. Increased binding to a plasma globulin
D. Decreased release from site of synthesis

A

C

101
Q

Which of the following is an effect of hyperthyroidism?

A. Diarrhea
B. Hypercholesterolemia
C. Weight gain
D. Bradycardia

A

A

102
Q

Which of the following hormone/s will most likely be transported via the hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract?

A. Arginine vasopressin
B. Corticotropin-Releasing Factor
C. Oxytocin
D. Thyrotropin-Releasing Factor

A

C

103
Q

A 25-year-old male, went to an endocrinologist because of gynecomastia or enlargement of the breast. He noticed this few months ago and decided to work out in order to lose weight. However, the condition persisted and became associated with diffuse headache and decreased libido. Work up was done and revealed pituitary adenoma. What hormone is responsible/impaired?

A. Corticotropin
B. Gonadotropin
C. Prolactin
D. Thyrotropin

A

C

104
Q

Which of the following zones of the adrenal gland is correctly paired with the type of substance it predominantly secretes?

A. Adrenal medulla - aldosterone
B. Zona glomerulosa - catecholamines
C. Zona fasciculata - corticotropin
D. Zona reticularis - androgens

A

D

105
Q

Which of the following is the principal stimulus for parathyroid hormone secretion?

A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperphosphatemia
D. Hypophosphatemia

A

B

106
Q

A patient is diagnosed with Addison’s disease or Primary Adrenal Insufficiency. He is being treated with hydrocortisone, a synthetic cortisol, but is still having problems with dehydration and hyponatremia. Which of the following types of corticosteroids would be best added to the patient’s therapy? A steroid with

A. high mineralocorticoid activity
B. low mineralocorticoid activity
C. low glucocorticoid activity
D. high glucocorticoid activity

A

A

107
Q

A 17-year-old female was brought to the clinic because of hirsutism or excessive growth of hair, severe acne and irregular menstruation. After careful history examination and work-up, she was informed that she has a rare genetic condition associated with deficiency in an adrenocortical enzyme. What enzyme is this?

A. 17 alpha hydroxylase
B. 21 alpha hydroxylase
C. aldosterone synthase
D. 11 beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

A

B

108
Q

When compared to intravenous glucose administration, there is greater amount of insulin levels secreted after oral administration of glucose because of

A. lesser first pass effect in the liver
B. decreased glucose metabolism to target organs
C. increased beta cell stimulation from gut hormones
D. increased extra-pancreatic secretion of insulin

A

C

109
Q

Which of the following processes is enhanced by insulin?

A. Glycogenolysis
B. Fat oxidation
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Lipogenesis

A

D

110
Q

Which of the following substances will directly stimulate pancreatic beta cell secretion of insulin? A substance that will…

A. Inhibit alpha glucosidase
B. Inhibit expression of GLUT4
C. Block ATP-sensitive K+ channels
D. Block sodium-glucose cotranspoter 2

A

C

111
Q

Activation of which of these enzymes precedes the rest in the activation of hepatic glycogenolysis?

A. Adenylyl cyclase
B. Phosphorylase B kinase
C. Phosphorylase A
D. Protein kinase

A

C

112
Q

The brightness or amount of light reflected by a unit surface depends primarily on…

A. Amount of light absorbed
B. Distance from the source of light
C. Index of refraction of the medium illuminated
D. Wavelength of light

A

C

113
Q

A change in direction of a ray light as it passes from one medium to another of different refractive index

A. Refraction
B. Diffraction
C. Absorption
D. Reflection

A

A

114
Q

A fisherman, using a spear, is seated on the edge of the pier. The fish in the watee facing him is about 5 feet in front of him. He should throw his spear

A. in front of the fish
B. directly towards the fish
C. behind the fish
D. directly towards his feet

A

A

115
Q

The axial length of the schematic eye is

A. 17.5 mm
B. 22.5 mm
C. 24.0 mm
D. 27.5mm

A

B

116
Q

An eye with myopia

A. has a point infinite space that is focused on the retina
B. can only focus objects on the retina with accomodation
C. needs concave lens to focus any light ray on the retina
D. needs convex lens to focus any light ray on the retina

A

C

117
Q

A 40F consulted for inability to read at near specially for small prints and in dim lighting. The patient has to place her reading material farther away. Your diagnosis

A. Hyperopia
B. Physiologic myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Anisometropia

A

A

118
Q

Given the condition ( Presbyopia) above, which corrective lens would you prescribe?

A. Monofocal convex lens
B. Monofocal concave lens
C. Bifocal convex lens
D. Bifocal concave lens

A

C

119
Q

These are the characteristics of accommodation except

A. age dependent
B. susceptible to fatigue
C. closely related to convergence
D. closely related to pupillary dilation

A

B

120
Q

A 40 year old male was grinding a metal stud when a debris accidentally went into his eye causing him to tear. What nerve innervates the cornea causing the patient’s frequent tearing?

A. CN II
B. CN III
C. CN V
D. CN VII

A

C

121
Q

A 62-year-old female was diagnosed with Bell’s palsy. She has right facial asymmetry and is unable to close her right eye. What will you look for to ensure that the right cornea of the eye will not get exposure keratopathy?

A. Lacrimation
B. Blink reflex
C. Bell’s phenomenon
D. Accomodation

A

B

122
Q

The point where the light falls and prohibits the existence of photoreceptors otherwise known as blind spot

A. Retina
B. Optic nerve
C. Rod & cones
D. Macula

A

C

123
Q

A 45-year-old male, has a sudden loss of facial symmetry on the left side. Upon examination patient cannot fully close his eyelid. What innervates the muscle responsible for fully closed eyelid?

A. Oculomotor
B. Trigeminal
C. Abducens
D. Facial

A

D

124
Q

A 38-year-old female, complained of intermittent headache for 6 months. Later, develop blurring and loss of vision on both eyes. Confrontation visual field results bitemporal hemianopia. The lesion is on?

A. Optic nerve
B. Optic chiasm
C. Optic radiation
D. Occipital lobe

A

B

125
Q

A 46-year-old male was diagnosed with retinitis pigmentosa. He has claimed that he has difficulty seeing at night. What caused the night blindness of this patient?

A. Depletion of the number of cones
B. Decrease in number of rods
C. Patient developed cataract
D. Patient developed optic neuropathy

A

B

126
Q

Structure of the eye responsible for highest visual acuity

A. Macula
B. Favea
C. Optic nerve
D. Cornea

A

A

127
Q

3A person who constantly drinks caffeinated coffee noticed that the bitter taste of coffee become weaker, but when he drinks water followed by the same coffee, the bitter taste returned, which of the following basic principles best respond to the scenario?

A. Mueller’s doctrine
B. Rapid adaption
C. Partially shifted overlap
D. Successive contrast

A

B

128
Q

An experiment estimated the relationship between the response and intensity for the saturation of color yellow and binaural sound intensity. The result shows smallest saturation for color yellow while the largest is for binaural sound intensity. Which of the following explains the result?

A. Law of appropriate stimulus
B. Steven’s power law
C. Mueller’s doctrine
D. Weber-Fechner Law

A

B

129
Q

Three nerve fibers were stimulated with different stimulus of the same threshold and elicited at the same response. Which principle best explains this?

A. Law of appropriate stimulus
B. Pattern theory
C. Mueller’s doctrine
D. Weber-Fechner Law

A

C

130
Q

Which of the following statements is true as regards gustation?

A. Addition of monosodium glutamate enhances the flavor of chicken soup and dairy products
B. Almost all gustatory sensations are interpreted with olfactory and cutaneous sensations
C. Gustatory sensations are best exhibited at the sides and at the center of the tongue
D. Bitter sensations are best exhibited at the edge and on the back of the tongue

A

A

131
Q

Which of the following taste sensations only has ionotropic receptors?

A. Sour
B. Salty
C. Sweet
D. Umami

A

D

132
Q

The greatest number of tastebuds are found at the

A. Vallate papillae
B. Epiglottis
C. Foliate papillae
D. Uvula

A

A

133
Q

Jasmine has a pleasant odor in small concentrations but becomes disgusting in large concentration. Which of these can explain this?

A. Our olfactory sense is sensitive to relative changes in concentration of substances
B. Our olfactory sense fatigues rapidly and recovers slowly
C. Detects changes in concentration of substances that differs by 30%
D. Odorous substance changes in quality as concentration of substances increases

A

B

134
Q

This statement is true of outer but not of inner hair cells

A. K+ influx depolarizes the cell
B. Transduction channels are located near the tips of stereocilia
C. Depolarization causes the cells to contract
D. Tip links connect the tips of stereocilia

A

C

135
Q

This structure is responsible for equalizing air pressures in the tympanic cavity and the outside

A. Eustachian tube
B. Tympanic membrane
C. Auditory ossicles
D. External auditory canal

A

A

136
Q

Which of the following factors trigger the sequence of physiologic adjustments to high altitudes?

A. Drop in temperature
B. Reduced atmospheric pressure
C. Low humidity
D. Decrease in expired CO2 concentration

A

B

137
Q

A novice mountaineer complained of headache and poor vision during ascent. The summit is likely to be at?

A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 3000
D. 5000

A

D

138
Q

Which of the following parameters decreases when a climber breathing pure oxygen ascends to an altitude up to 15,000 FT?

A. Alveolar to tissue partial pressure gradient for CO2
B. Arterial oxygen saturation
C. Alveolar partial pressure of O2
D. Alveolar partial pressure of CO

A

C

139
Q

Which of the following directly contributes to the hemoconcentration noted during acclimatization to high altitude?

A. Vasodilation
B. Diuresis
C. Increased-2,3-diphosphoglycerate concentration
D. Angiogenesis

A

B

140
Q

Which of the following pulmonary changes contribute to the increase in the diffusing capacity for oxygen during acclimatization to altitude?

A. Angiogenesis
B. Increased 2,3-DGP concentrations
C. Hemoconcentrations
D. Pulmonary hypertension

A

D

141
Q

A sea-level dweller who wanted to reach the summit of Mt. Everest stayed for 3 months at the Base Camp (elevation 5600 masl) for the purpose of acclimatization. Which of the following is expected at the end of the 3rd month?

A. Increased venous tone
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Decreased cardiac oxygen demand
D. Tachycardia

A

C

142
Q

An aviator subjected to intense and/or prolonged positive G forces will progressively experience the effects of pooling of blood toward the feet. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of these progression of signs/symptoms?
1. Blackout
2. Tunnel vision
3. G-LOC
4. Greyout

A. 2-1-4-3
B. 1-4-2-3
C. 2-4-1-3
D. 1-2-4-3

A

C

143
Q

When an aviator is subjected to positive G, blood is centrifuged toward the lowermost part of the body. Which of the following will immediately try to connect this sudden change in hemodynamics?

A. RAA mechanism
B. CNS ischemic response
C. Atrial reflex
D. Baroreceptor reflex

A

D

144
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur when an aviator is subjected to negative G forces?

A. Brain edema
B. Intracerebral hemorrhage
C. Psychosis
D. Hyperemia of the head

A

B

145
Q

An aviator was complaining of severe headache, a sensation that “the eyes are popping out of the head,” red vision, facial swelling, petechiae and diffuse, subconjunctival hemorrhages upon arrival at the base. Which of the following might have occurred while in flight?

A. He was forced to take several sharp turns to the sides
B. He went into a nosedive mid-air to avoid an incoming fighter place
C. He kept accelerating at level flight
D. He pulled up for too long to gain the appropriate attitude

A

B

146
Q

Astronauts are subjected to linear acceleratory forces as they leave the earth’s orbit. Which of the following positions help astronaut withstand these acceleratory forces?

A. Prone
B. Upright
C. Semi-reclining
D. Supine

A

C

147
Q

Which of the following cardiocirculatory adjustments is an effect of the acute transition from normal gravity to microgravity?

A. Increase stroke volume
B. Increase heart rate
C. Decrease circulation of blood
D. Decrease RBC mass

A

A

148
Q

Which of the following compensatory mechanism is responsible for the adjustment in the transition to microgravity?

A. Carotid baroreceptor
B. Cardiopulmonary volume receptors
C. Frank-Starling mechdanism
D. All of the above

A

D

149
Q

Which rapid adapting reaction to microgravity reverses following to prolonged exposure?

A. Decreased circulating blood volume
B. Increased stroke volume
C. Muscle deconditioning
D. Decreased blood pressure

A

B

150
Q

Components of cardiovascular deconditioning in microgravity include

A. RBC mass increase
B. Pulmonary artery hypertension
C. Carotid baroreceptor resetting
D. Left ventricular enlargement

A

C

151
Q

This is a deep restful sleep that the person experiences during the first hour of sleep after having been awake for many hours

A. NREM
B. REM
C. Slow wave sleep
D. Both A and C

A

C

152
Q

Which of the following about EEG is true?

A. Records postsynaptic potentials in the dendrites of pyramidal cells of the cortex
B. EEG patterns are largely due to synchronous firing of neurons
C. Electrical activity recorded on the scalp are from fibers that form synchronous graded potential
D. All of the above are true

A

B

153
Q

Associated with the act of being attentive to an external stimulus

A. Alpha waves
B. Beta waves
C. Delta waves
D. Theta waves

A

B

154
Q

These waves have low frequencies and large amplitudes, and occur normally in the parietal and temporal regions in children

A. Alpha waves
B. Beta waves
C. Delta waves
D. Theta waves

A

D

155
Q

The appearance of K complexes signifies the occurrence of this stage of sleep

A. N1
B. N2
C. N3
D. REM

A

B

156
Q

Wave frequencies less than 4 cycles per second will dominate in this stage of sleep

A. N1
B. N2
C. N3
D. REM

A

C

157
Q

Which of the following is not true for REM and NREM sleep?

A. NREM and REM sleep alternate, with each cycle lasting 90 minutes
B. The first 2 cycles in a normal sleep are dominated by N3
C. Each of the REM cycle, in a normal sleep, increases from the first to the last cycle
D. The first third of a normal sleep is dominated by REM

A

D

158
Q

In NREM sleep, all of the following occur EXCEPT

A. Increased respiratory rate
B. Decreased peripheral vascular tone
C. Decreased blood pressure
D. Decreased basal metabolic rate

A

D

159
Q

Which of the following occurs in N1 sleep?

A. Breathing becomes shallow
B. Heart rate becomes slow and regular
C. Person can be difficult to arouse
D. All of the above

A

A

160
Q

This is the sleep stage with the highest threshold for arousal

A. N1
B. N2
C. N3
D. REM

A

C

161
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of REM sleep?

A. Overall brain metabolism may be increased by 20%
B. It is an active form of sleep usually associated with dreaming
C. Heart rate and respiratory rate increases and becomes more regular
D. AOTA

A

C

162
Q

This neurotransmitter is assumed to be associated with production of sleep

A. Melatonin
B. Serotonin
C. Adenosine
D. Dopamine

A

A

163
Q

This is not a neuronal center of sleep

A. Substantia nigra
B. Raphe Nuclei
C. Diffuse nucleus of thalamus
D. Nucleus of tractus solitarius

A

A

164
Q

The following are true about the theories of sleep-wakefulness, EXCEPT

A. The suprachiasmatic nucleus activates orexin cells in the morning and triggers melatonin secretion at night
B. An increase in plasma concentrations of leptin, an appetite-suppressing hormone, can stimulate orexin release from the hypothalamus
C. The adenosine concentration in the brain is increased after a prolonged waking period
D. All of the above are true

A

B

165
Q

Which of the following is NOT a physiological effect of sleep?

A. Facilitate learning and memory
B. Clearance of metabolic waste products generated by neural activity
C. Neural maturation
D. All of the above are true

A

D

166
Q

The ________ age is determined by how a person feels or act

A. Chronological
B. Biological
C. Psychological
D. Emotional

A

C

167
Q

Accumulation of molecular damages, especially to DNA leads to aging. This is in accordance with which of the following theories?

A. Codon restriction theory
B. Gene regulation theory
C. Somatic mutation theory
D. Error catastrophe theory

A

C

168
Q

Theory of aging that is due to alterations in neuroendocrine control

A. Harman theory
B. Theory of Dilman & Dean
C. Hayflick limit theory
D. Theory of Zn Nagy

A

B

169
Q

Which hemodynamic parameters increases with aging?

A. Aortic compliance
B. Peripheral vascular resistance
C. Renal blood flow
D. Venous return flow

A

B

170
Q

Which is the result of increased calcification of bronchial cartilage?

A. Increase bronchial secretion
B. Increase in pleural elastin
C. Progressive loss of elastic recoil
D. Increase in resistance to gas flow

A

D

171
Q

Which of the following may be observe in the digestive system during aging?

A. Decreased peristaltic pressure in esophagus
B. Pancreatic secretion may remain the same
C. Increased secretion of gastrin
D. Decreased size of hepatocytes

A

B

172
Q

Which of the following is responsible for urinary incontinence in the process of aging?

A. Incomplete bladder emptying
B. Reflex bladder contraction at low volumes
C. Gradual decrease in renal mass
D. Impaired renal handling of Sodium

A

B

173
Q

Decrease in joint flexibility due to increase in age is due to

A. Impaired function of chondrocytes
B. Increased cross-linking of collagen
C. Thinning of the articular joint
D. Loss of proteoglycans

A

C

174
Q

Hormone that increases with advancing age

A. Growth hormone
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Aldosterone
D. Thyroid stimulating hormone

A

B

175
Q

The high incidence of falls associated with aging is mainly due to

A. Deterioration of vision and proprioception
B. Alteration of nigrostriatal dopaminergic system
C. Alteration of nigrostriatal dopaminergic system
D. Slowing of reaction time

A

A

176
Q

Which of the following taste sensations is the first to diminish as part of the aging process?

A. Umami
B. Salty
C. Sour
D. Bitter

A

B

177
Q

This type of stress is highly treatable and manageable

A. Acute
B. Episodic acute
C. Chronic
D. Emotional

A

A

178
Q

Which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome limit the body’s reaction to the smallest area of the body that can deal with the stress?

A. Alarm reaction
B. Shock phase
C. Stage of resistance
D. Stage of exhaustion

A

C

179
Q

Which of the following can be considered as a lifestyle stressor?

A. Insufficient sleep
B. Lack of housing
C. Lack of money
D. Project deadline

A

A

180
Q

Which of the following is considered an environmental stressor?

A. Lack of money
B. Bright light
C. Conflict
D. Lack of freedom

A

D

181
Q

Behavioral adaptation associated with the stress syndrome includes

A. Increased appetite
B. Focused attention
C. Decreased arousal
D. Increased glycolysis

A

B

182
Q

Which of the following is responsible for activation of the amygdala-hippocampus complex during stress?

A. Mesocorticolimbic dopaminergic system
B. Ascending adrenergic neurons from brainstem
C. Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis
D. Arcuate nucleus-proopiomelanocortin system

A

B

183
Q

Which of the following is an immediate direct effect of activation of the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis?

A. Increased activity if cytokines
B. increased secretion of glucocorticoids
C. decreased production of TSH
D. decreased growth hormone secretion

A

A

184
Q

Most potent activator of HPA axis

A. Neuropeptide Y
B. Tumor necrosis factor alpha
C. Interleukin 1 Interleukin 1
D. Interleukin 6

A

D

185
Q

Loss of appetite associated with stress may be due to activity of which of the following?

A. Corticotropin releasing hormone
B. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
C. Interleukin 1
D. Interleukin 6

A

A

186
Q

Analgesia associated with stress is most probably due to activity of which of the following?

A. Mesocorticolimbic dopaminergic system
B. Arcuate nucleus-proopiomelanocortin system
C. Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
D. Activity of amygdala and hippocampus

A

B

187
Q

In acute stress, corticotropin causes diarrhea by

A. Inhibition of vagal nerve activity
B. Stimulation of vagal nerve activity
C. Stimulation of sacral nerve activity
D. Inhibition of vagal nerve activity

A

C

188
Q

Which of the following is categorized as an interpersonal coping skill in response to stress?

A. Creative problem solving
B. Introduction of humor
C. Peaceful disagreement
D. Take short breaks daily

A

C

189
Q

Drug abuse

A. Behavioral symptom
B. Emotional symptom
C. Interpersonal symptom
D. Organic symptom

A

A

190
Q

Suicidal feelings

A. Behavioral symptom
B. Emotional symptom
C. Interpersonal symptom
D. Organic symptom

A

B

191
Q

Putting other’s need before own

A. Behavioral symptom
B. Emotional symptom
C. Interpersonal symptom
D. Organic symptom

A

C

192
Q

Dysdifferentiation theory

A. Cellular
B. Evolutionary
C. Molecular
D. Systems

A

C

193
Q

Free radical theory

A. Cellular
B. Evolutionary
C. Molecular
D. Systems

A

A

194
Q

Mutual accumulation theory

A. Cellular
B. Evolutionary
C. Molecular
D. Systems

A

B

COMPRE (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions