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ANATOMY Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the location of the urethral opening in relation to vagina?

Anterior
Posterior
Medial
Lateral

A

Anterior

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2
Q

One of the following vaginal fornices is in close proximity to the pouch of Douglas hence, blood & pus that collect into the pouch are best drained by a needle puncture through this space:

Anterior vaginal fornix
Posterior vaginal fornix
Left lateral vaginal fornix
Right lateral vaginal fornix

A

Posterior vaginal fornix

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3
Q

Which of the following is the funnel-shaped lateral end of the uterine tube?

Ampulla
Fimbriae
Isthmus
Infundibulum

A

Infundibulum

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4
Q

What is the normal position of the uterus in the pelvic cavity?

Anteversoflexion
Retroversoflexion
Lateversoflexion
Medioversoflexion

A

Anteversoflexion

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5
Q

Lymph vessels from the fundus of the uterus drain into which of the following group of nodes?

Superficial inguinal
Para-aortic
Internal iliac
External iliac

A

Para-aortic

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6
Q

Which of the following ligament of uterus passes through the inguinal canal and ends at the labia majora?

Broad ligament
Round Ligament
Suspensory Ligament
Transverse Cervical Ligament

A

Round Ligament

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7
Q

Trauma injuring the pelvic splanchnic nerves would compromise this muscle’s ability to contract:

Detrusor
External Anal sphincter
Levator ani
Internal urethral sphincter

A

Detrusor

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8
Q

The integrity of this muscle is critical for support of the pelvic viscera

Detrusor
External urethral sphincter
Internal urethral sphincter
Levator ani

A

Levator ani

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9
Q

Contraction of this muscle expels the last few drops of urine from the male urethra:

Cremaster
Bulbospongiosus
External urethral sphincter
Levator ani

A

Bulbospongiosus

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10
Q

This muscle is a derivative of one abdominal wall muscles

Cremaster
Ischiocavernosus
Detrusor
Compressor urethrae

A

Cremaster

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11
Q

Close proximity with the right kidney, anteriorly

Stomach
Diaphragm
Liver
Pancreas

A

Liver

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12
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

The right renal vein is shorter than the left renal vein.
The renal artery lies anterior to the renal veins.
Both the given statements are correct.
None of the given choices are correct.

A

Both the given statements are correct.

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13
Q

Which of the following structures completely covers a synovial joint?

Articular cartilage
Synovial membrane
Fibrous capsule
Joint ligaments

A

Fibrous capsule

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14
Q

Muscles that form the rotator cuff of the shoulder joint

Deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres major
Supraspinatus, latissimus dorsi, teres minor, subscapularis
Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres major, subscapularis

A

Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

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15
Q

Which of the following is a branch of the brachial artery that goes with the radial nerve through the spiral groove of the humerus?

Radial
Ulnar
Artery
Profunda brachii

A

Profunda brachii

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16
Q

Which of the following arch gives rise to the cephalic and basilic veins?

Superficial palmar arch
Deep palmar arch
Dorsal venous arch
Deep palmar venous arch

A

Dorsal venous arch

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17
Q

Which of the following is the largest branch of the brachial plexus?

Radial
Ulnar
Median
Axillary

A

Radial

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18
Q

Branch of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus that pierces coracobrachialis as it leaves the axilla

Musculocutaneous
Radial
Axillary
Lateral Pectoral

A

Musculocutaneous

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19
Q

Which of the following forms the inferior boundary of the lumbar triangle?

Latissimus dorsi
Iliac crest
External oblique
Lumbar vertebrae

A

Iliac crest

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20
Q

Until puberty, each hip bone consists of three separate bones yet to be fused by which structure?

Acetabular cartilage
Triradiate cartilage
Sacrotuberous ligament
Symphysis pubis

A

Triradiate cartilage

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21
Q

Which of the following occupies the medial compartment of the femoral sheath within the femoral triangle?

Femoral artery
Femoral canal
Femoral vein
Femoral nerve

A

Femoral canal

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22
Q

Which tarsal bone gives attachment to the Achilles tendon?

Talus
Cuboidal
Calcaneus
Navicularis

A

Calcaneus

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23
Q

Which of the following forms the posterior wall of the adductor canal?

Adductor Longus
Adductor Magnus
Vastus Lateralis
Sartorius

A

Adductor Magnus

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24
Q

Which of the following bones articulate with the femur to form the knee joint?

Tibia
Tibia and patella
Tibia and fibula
Tibia, fibula, and patella

A

Tibia and patella

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25
Q

What is the common nerve supply to the muscles of the lateral compartment of the leg?

Tibial
Deep peroneal
Common fibular
Superficial peroneal

A

Superficial peroneal

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26
Q

Which muscle is responsible for “unlocking” the knee?

Popliteus
Gastrocnemius
Biceps Femoris
Plantaris

A

Popliteus

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27
Q

These groups of muscles provide the main forward propulsive force in walking and running.

Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, adductor magnus
Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, vastus medialis
Soleus, gastrocnemius, plantaris
Flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, popliteus, flexor halluces longus

A

Soleus, gastrocnemius, plantaris

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28
Q

What are the contents of the femoral sheath?

Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral’ canal
Femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral canal
Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, great saphenous vein, femoral canal
Femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral canal, great saphenous vein

A

Femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral canal

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29
Q

Where is the common point of insertion of the muscles of the gluteal region?

Lesser trochanter
Intertrochanteric fossa
Greater trochanter
Femoral neck

A

Greater trochanter

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30
Q

The intercostal vessels and nerves pass in between which layers of the chest wall?

Between the parietal pleura and the endothoracic fascia
Between external intercostal and the endothoracic fascia
Between the internal intercostal and innermost intercostal muscles
Between the innermost intercostal and endothoracic fascia

A

Between the internal intercostal and innermost intercostal muscles

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31
Q

This serves as a useful surface landmark in external marking the location of the tracheal bifurcation

Sternal Angle of Louis
Suprasternal notch
Xiphisternal junction
Nipple

A

Sternal Angle of Louis

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32
Q

Which of the following boundaries of the divisions of the mediastinum is incorrectly paired?

Anterior border of the superior mediastinum - manubrium sterni
Posterior border of superior mediastinum - T1 vertebra
Anterior border of inferior mediastinum - body of sternum
Posterior border of inferior mediastinum - lower 4 thoracic vertebra

A

Posterior border of inferior mediastinum - lower 4 thoracic vertebra

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33
Q

patient diagnosed with cardiac tamponade (fluid in the pericardium) has to undergo pericardiocentesis in order to aspirate the fluid. Based on what you learned in anatomy as a medical student, what would be the best way to access the fluid?

Anteriorly, through the 5th or 6th intercostal space at the left sternal border
Laterally, through the 6th intercostal space at the left axillary line
Posteriorly, just below the left scapular angle
All are the best ways

A

All are the best ways

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34
Q

Which of the following structures is found in the posterior part of the mediastinum?

Ascending aorta
Trachea
Esophagus
Pulmonary artery

A

Esophagus

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35
Q

The laryngeal cartilage that forms a complete ring around the airway:

Thyroid
Cricoid
Arytenoid
Aryepiglottic fold

A

Cricoid

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36
Q

The costal margin is formed anteriorly by the cartilages of which of the following ribs?

7th, 8th, 9th and 10th
8th, 9th, 10th
9th, 10th, 11th, and 12th
9th, 10th, 11th

A

7th, 8th, 9th and 10th

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37
Q

A man sustained a penetrating stab wound at the 5th right intercostal space along the parasternal line into the pleural cavity. Which of the following layers of the thoracic wall were penetrated?

External and internal intercostal muscles, innermost intercostal, transversus throacis, parietal pleura
External intercostal membrane, internal intercostal muscle, transversus throacis, parietal pleura
External and internal intercostal membranes, transversus throacis, parietal pleura
Skin, subcutaneous tissue, external and internal intercostal membranes, transversus throacis, parietal pleura

A

External intercostal membrane, internal intercostal muscle, transversus throacis, parietal pleura

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38
Q

Which is the posterior boundary of the nasal cavity?

Vestibule
Choanae
Vomer
Nasopharynx

A

Choanae

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39
Q

72-year-old woman vomited and then aspirated some of the vomitus while undergoing general anesthesia. An endoscopic luminal visualization of the bronchus (bronchoscopy) revealed presence of partially digested food blocking the origin of the right superior lobar bronchus. Which of the following groups of broncho-pulmonary segments will be affected by this obstruction?

Superior, medial, lateral, medial basal
Apical, anterior, posterior
Posterior, anterior, superior, lateral
Apical, lateral, medial, lateral basal

A

Apical, anterior, posterior

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40
Q

A 42-year-old man was admitted due to persistent retrosternal pain. CT scan of the chest revealed a malignant growth at the right main stem bronchus. Which of the following lymph drainage nodes of the lungs will be most likely to be the first to be infiltrated by cancerous cells?

Tracheobronchial nodes
Pulmonary nodes
Bronchopulmonary nodes
Broncho mediastinal nodes

A

Pulmonary nodes

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41
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of the surfaces of the heart?

The sternocostal surface is formed mainly by the right atrium and right ventricle
The base is formed mainly by the left atrium
The diaphragmatic surface is formed mainly by the left ventricle and left atrium
The apex is formed by the left ventricle

A

The diaphragmatic surface is formed mainly by the left ventricle and left atrium

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42
Q

Which of the following surface of the heart are formed by both ventricles?

Apex
Sternocostal surface
Base
Diaphragmatic surface

A

Diaphragmatic surface

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43
Q

Which of the following cardiac veins would cross over the right coronary artery and right AV groove as it travels from the right ventricle to the right atrium?

middle cardiac
anterior cardiac
great cardiac
small cardiac

A

anterior cardiac

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44
Q

Which of the following is true of the pericardium?

A cavity is formed between the fibrous and serous layers
Epicardium is part of the pericardium
The pericardium is attached to the diaphragm at the base
The fibrous part has 2 layers

A

Epicardium is part of the pericardium

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45
Q

Which of the following drains most of the blood from the cardiac wall?

Anterior Cardiac Vein
Middle Cardiac Vein
Coronary Sinus
Great Cardiac Vein

A

Coronary Sinus

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46
Q

A 55-year-old executive is to undergo a coronary bypass procedure. The artery of concern is the vessel that supplies much of the left ventricle and right and left bundle branches of the cardiac conduction system. Which artery is the surgeon most concerned about?

Circumflex
Anterior Interventricular Artery
Left Marginal
Posterior interventricular

A

Anterior Interventricular Artery

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47
Q

Which of the following structures prevents prolapse of the mitral valve into the left atrium?

Trabeculae carneae
Chorda tendineae
Pectinate muscles
Papillary muscle

A

Papillary muscle

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48
Q

Which surface of the pericardium attaches to the central tendon of the diaphragm?

Serous
Parietal
Fibrous
Visceral

A

Fibrous

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49
Q

Which of the following accompanies the small cardiac vein as it travels along the inferior border of the heart?

Anterior interventricular artery
Marginal Artery
Posterior interventricular artery
Right coronary artery

A

Marginal Artery

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50
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the left ventricle of the heart?

It has the thickest endocardium
Has 3 papillary muscles
Its atrioventricular opening is guarded by the tricuspid valve
Absence of moderator band

A

Absence of moderator band

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51
Q

Which of the following veins pierces the posterior wall of the superior vena cava before it enters the pericardium to drain into the right atrium?

Azygos vein
Right superior intercostal vein
Hemiazygos vein
Right Brachiocephalic vein

A

Azygos vein

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52
Q

Which of the following arrangements of blood vessels would allow blood to flow sequentially from the aorta to the right hand?

Brachial artery -> R. Radial Artery -> R. Brachiocephalic artery -> R. Subclavian artery-> R. Axillary artery
Subclavian artery-> R. Brachiocephalic artery -> R. Axillary artery -> R. Brachial Artery
Brachiocephalic artery -> R. Subclavian artery-> R. Axillary artery -> R. Brachial artery -> R. Radial Artery
Subclavian artery-> R. Axillary artery -> R. Radial artery -> R. Brachial Artery

A

Brachiocephalic artery -> R. Subclavian artery-> R. Axillary artery -> R. Brachial artery -> R. Radial Artery

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53
Q

Which of the correct route that the blood will take from the left inferior posterior surface of the thoracic wall up to the heart?

Accessory hemiazygos -> internal thoracic v. ->, brachiocephalic v. -> SVC -> right atrium
Hemiazygos v. -> azygos v. -> brachiocephalic v. -> SVC -> right atrium
Accessory hemiazygos v. -> azygos v. -> SVC -> right atrium
Hemiazygos v. -> azygos v. -> SVC -> right atrium

A

Hemiazygos v. -> azygos v. -> SVC -> right atrium

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54
Q

Which of the following comprise the true thoracic wall muscles?

External, internal, innermost intercostals
Pectoralis major, minor, internal and innermost intercostals, transversus thoracis
External and internal intercostals, transversus thoracis, levatores costarum, serratus posterior, subcostal
Pectoralis major, minor, intercostalis, transversus thoracis, diaphragm

A

External and internal intercostals, transversus thoracis, levatores costarum, serratus posterior, subcostal

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55
Q

Part of the nasal cavity that is largely formed by the vomer.

Roof
Floor
Septum
Lateral Wall

A

Septum

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56
Q

Found only on the left lung

Apex
Costal surface
Anterior border
Cardiac notch

A

Cardiac notch

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57
Q

The following are true of barium swallowing except

It uses gas-forming crystals to distend esophagus
Is the main radiological method of assessing colon
Used to evaluate pharyngeal motility during swallowing
It uses barium sulfate as contrast agent to coat mucosa

A

Is the main radiological method of assessing colon

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58
Q

In the diagnosis of polycystic ovaries, which of the following is correct?

Transvaginal ultrasound is the gold standard.
Increased follicle per ovary (FNPO) with a “string of pearls” appearance.
Both statements are correct.
None of the statements are correct.

A

Both statements are correct.

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59
Q

Which of the following is the gold standard in the evaluation of the cerebral arteries and is indicated in the diagnosis of aneurysm and vascular abnormalities?

cranial CT scan
Head of Mri
cerebral angiography
MR angiography

A

cerebral angiography

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60
Q

In the imaging of patient with head trauma, which of the statements is correct?

MRI offers faster imaging in trauma than CT scan
CT is superior to MRI in the assessment of head injury
CT scan is contraindicated in patients with metallic implants and pacemakers
MRI offers more superior details about bony details

A

CT is superior to MRI in the assessment of head injury

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61
Q

Which of the following is correct?

In MRI, the tissues that contain ferrous atoms are made to emit radiological signals which are detected by the scanner
MRI is superior in the posterior fossa and parasellar regions for the assessment of multiple sclerosis, epilepsy and tumors
CT scan uses powerful magnetic fields and radio frequency pulses to produce detailed pictures of organs and other internal structures
CT scan demonstrates subtle differences between different kinds of soft tissues

A

MRI is superior in the posterior fossa and parasellar regions for the assessment of multiple sclerosis, epilepsy and tumors

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62
Q

In a hangman’s fracture, what x-ray view would you request initially?

Skull APL X-ray
Cervical spine APL
Odontoid
Swimmer’s

A

Odontoid

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63
Q

This radiographic sign refers to the normal appearance of the lumbar spine when seen on oblique radiographic projection:

Scotty Pippen Sign
Scottish Dog Sign
Scottie Dog Sign
Scattie Dog Sign

A

Scottie Dog Sign

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64
Q

Knowledge of this layer of the scalp allows the Native American Indian to perform “scalping” to the battlefield captive because this layer of the scalp allows other layers to glide freely over the pericranium.

Epicranial aponeurosis
Dense connective tissue
Pericranium
Loose connective tissue

A

Loose connective tissue

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65
Q

The middle coat of the eyeball includes which of the following?

Iris and ciliary body
Retina and choroid
Choroid and sclera
Cornea and sclera

A

Iris and ciliary body

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66
Q

Which of the following are components of the inner ear?

Auditory tube and canal
Ear ossicles
Tympanic membrane
Membranous and osseous labyrinth

A

Membranous and osseous labyrinth

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67
Q

Which of the following best describes Parathyroid Glands?

It is separate from the thyroid gland by a connective tissue
Found In the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland
Supplied by the superior thyroid artery
Consist of 3 glands

A

Supplied by the superior thyroid artery

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68
Q

This structure allows air pressure to equalize between the middle ear and the outside ear?

External auditory meatus
Internal auditory meatus
Eustachian tube
Aditus to the mastoid

A

Eustachian tube

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69
Q

This nerve passes down the neck within the carotid sheath:

Phrenic Nerve
Vagus nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Spinal Accessory nerve

A

Vagus nerve

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70
Q

The carotid sheath is a condensation of which layers of the deep cervical fascia?

Prevertebral layer only
Pretracheal and investing layers
Prevertebral and pretracheal layers
Pretracheal, prevertebral, and investing layers

A

Pretracheal, prevertebral, and investing layers

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71
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the common carotid artery?

Both left and right common carotid arteries arise from the aortic arch
It is found lateral to the internal jugular vein in the carotid sheath
Apart from its two terminal branches, it gives off no other branch in the neck
It runs upward through the neck under the cover of the trapezius muscle

A

Apart from its two terminal branches, it gives off no other branch in the neck

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72
Q

The intermediate tendon of this muscle is held to the hyoid bone by facial sling

Omohyoid
Sternothyroid
Sternohyoid
Digastric

A

Digastric

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73
Q

The scalp wound sustained by the above-named patient bleeds profusely because of the extensive vascularity that runs through which of the following layers?

Loose connective tissue
Galea aponeurotica
Subcutaneous connective tissue
Pericranium

A

Subcutaneous connective tissue

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74
Q

The cricoid cartilage is an important landmark in the neck because it lies at the:

Lies at the level of C5 vertebra
Lies at the joining of pharynx and esophagus
Location of thyroid isthmus
Location where recurrent laryngeal nerve enters the neck

A

Lies at the joining of pharynx and esophagus

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75
Q

Blood and pus spreading downward into the superior mediastinum of the thorax most likely come from which fascial space of the neck?

Visceral
Submandibular
Retropharyngeal
Pretracheal

A

Retropharyngeal

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76
Q

Which is the nerve supply to the muscles of mastication?

Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve
Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
Facial nerve

A

Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

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77
Q

Which of the following is true about the iliacus muscle?

It is innervated by the femoral nerve
It balances the trunk
It inserts into the lesser tuberosity of the femur together with the psoas muscle
All of the given choices are true

A

It is innervated by the femoral nerve

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78
Q

What vein is a tributary of the portal circulation which passes in front of the third part of the duodenum and joins another posterior abdominal wall vein to form the portal vein?

Inferior mesenteric
Splenic
Superior mesenteric
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal

A

Superior mesenteric

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79
Q

A penetrating stab wound at the level of the umbilicus will most likely injure the:

Large intestine
Small intestine
Transverse colon
Urinary bladder

A

Small intestine

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80
Q

Which of the following forms the floor (posterior wall) of the inguinal canal?

Inguinal ligament
Internal oblique muscle
External oblique muscle
Transversalis fascia

A

Inguinal ligament

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81
Q

A dome shaped structure found at the left of the esophagus

Cardia
Pylorus
Fundus
Body

A

Fundus

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82
Q

Which of the ff. best describes the pancreas?

venous drainage is directly into the IVC
lies in the right hypochondriac region of abdomen
related posteriorly to the lesser sac
main duct opens into 3rd part of duodenum

A

related posteriorly to the lesser sac

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83
Q

Which of the following abdominal regions is bounded superiorly by the transtubercular plane and laterally by the mid-clavicular plane?

Epigastric
Hypogastric
Umbilical
Iliocostal

A

Hypogastric

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84
Q

What muscle of the anterior abdominal wall contributes to the formation of the cremasteric fascial layer of the spermatic cord?

Internal oblique
External Oblique
Transversus Abdominis
Rectus Abdominis

A

Internal oblique

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85
Q

Folds of the peritoneum that connects the liver to the stomach

Greater omentum
Lesser omentum
Mesocolon
Mesentery

A

Lesser omentum

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86
Q

Which of the following pelvic structures traverses both the greater and lesser sciatic foramina?

Sciatic nerve
Superior gluteal artery
Internal pudendal artery
Piriformis

A

Internal pudendal artery

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87
Q

A 48-year-old woman was admitted due to rectal bleeding. PE of the anal canal via anoscopy revealed an abnormal mass below the pectinate line of the anal canal. Biopsy revealed the mass to be an anal cancer. From which of the following group of lymph nodes would you expect the cancer to initially spread?

Internal Iliac nodes
Pararectal nodes
External Iliac nodes
Superficial Inguinal nodes

A

Superficial Inguinal nodes

88
Q

Contraction of this muscle prevents retrograde movement of semen into the bladder during ejaculation

External urethral sphincter
Deep transverse perineal muscle
Detrusor muscle
Internal urethral sphincter

A

Internal urethral sphincter

89
Q

Which of the following muscle encloses the bulb of the penis:

Ischiocavernosus
Superficial transverse perineal muscle
Deep transverse perineal muscle
Bulbospongiosus

A

Bulbospongiosus

90
Q

Inclusion is best described as

A. Nonmembrane bound structure
B. Participate in metabolic activity
C. ATP dependent
D. temporary

A

A. Nonmembrane bound structure

91
Q

A large structure in the cell enclosed by a double membrane and contains chromatin

A. Nucleus
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

A

A. Nucleus

92
Q

Which of the following vein pierces the posterior wall of the superior vena cava before it enters the pericardium to drain into the right atrium?

A. Azygos vein
B. Right superior intercostal vein
C. Hemiazygos vein
D. Right brachiocephalic vein

A

A. Azygos vein

93
Q

Which of the following is true of epithelial tissue?

A. Function determines cell size & morphology
B. Cell shape classify the tissue
C. ECM found in apical pole
D. Rich vascular supply

A

A. Function determines cell size & morphology

94
Q

The collagen type content on the reticular lamina

A. III
B. IV
C. VI
D. V

A

A. III

95
Q

The epithelial cell of the oviduct and larynx has this surface specialization.

A. Microvilli
B. Stereo-cilia
C. Cilia
D. Flagella

A

C. Cilia

96
Q

The epithelial lining of conjunctiva

A. Transitional
B. Pseudostratified columnar
C. Stratified squamous
D. Stratified columnar

A

D. Stratified columnar

97
Q

Which of the following is true about intercalated discs?

A. They serve as electrical synapses
B. Not unique to cardiac muscles
C. Regular, steplike discs that are composed of many desmosomes
D. The less abundant, longitudinally oriented regions of each intercalated disc run parallel to the myofibrils and are filled with tight junctions

A

A. They serve as electrical synapses

98
Q

Which of the following 3 muscle fibers undergo mitotic division?

A. Skeletal
B. Cardiac
C. Smooth
D. Skeleta, Cardiac, Smooth

A

C. Smooth

99
Q

Moderate amount of ground substance, fibroblasts & collagen predominate, & randomly distributed describe which connective tissue proper type?

A. Dense regular
B. Loose
C. Dense irregular
D. Adipose

A

C. Dense irregular

100
Q

Which of the following best describes thin skin

A. Layers are of equal thickness
B. Very thin Stratum Lucidum
C. Shallow dermal papillae
D. Capillary-rich epidermis

A

C. Shallow dermal papillae

101
Q

True of keratinocytes

A. made up of same histologic types in all layers
B. accumulates keratin along its transit
C. becomes stellate shaped up until the stratum corneum
D. mitotic activity until stratum corneum

A

B. accumulates keratin along its transit

102
Q

The epidermal layer which plays a role in the function of the skin as a permeability barrier.

A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum dysjunction
C. Stratum lucidum
D. Malpighian layer

A

A. Stratum corneum

103
Q

True of platelets

A. Cell derived from megakaryocytes
B. Discoid in shape
C. All of the above

A

C. All of the above

104
Q

Which of the following is/are calculated from hemoglobin and red cell count?

A. MCV and MCHC
B. MCH and MCHC
C. MCHC only
D. MCH only

A

D. MCH only

105
Q

Which of the ff best describe lymph node sinuses?

A. Receives lymph from efferent lymph
B. Has discontinuous endothelium
C. Supported by collagen fibers
D. Where WBC pass thru

A

B. Has discontinuous endothelium

106
Q

At what stage does RBC lose their nuclei

A. Normoblast
B. Pronormoblast
C. Progenitor cell
D. Reticulocyte

A

D. Reticulocyte

107
Q

This organ’s mucosa has both respiratory, and nervous epithelia, and serous glands

A. Larynx
B. Nasal cavity
C. Trachea
D. Paranasal sinuses

A

B. Nasal cavity

108
Q

This cardiac layer contains adipose tissue, a fibroelastic CT and mesothelium.

A. Parietal epicardium
B. Visceral epicardium
C. Endocardium
D. Myocardium

A

B. Visceral epicardium

109
Q

Common tissue type in both endocardium and epicardium:

A. Simple Squamous
B. Dense regular connective
C. Fibroelastic
D. Smooth muscle

A

A. Simple Squamous

110
Q

The membrane junction that connects the muscle cells in the tunica media of arteries permitting vasoconstriction and vasodilation?

A. Desmosome
B. Tight junction
C. Gap junction
D. Hemidesmosome

A

C. Gap junction

111
Q

These extracellular matrix proteins affects the permeability of vascular walls:

A. Connective tissue components
B. Elastic Lamellae
C. Glycoproteins
D. Hyaluronate

A

D. Hyaluronate

112
Q

Lip surface which is hairless and devoid of glands

A. outer cutaneous
B. vermillion border
C. mucocutaneous junction
D. transition zone

A

B. vermillion border

113
Q

Which of the following is true of the muscularis mucosae of the small intestines?

A. It thickens from duodenum to ileum
B. Responsible for the peristaltic movement of the GI tract
C. Its contraction propels lymph from lacteals to the submucosa
D. Its fibers insert into the microvilli to increase intestinal absorption

A

C. Its contraction propels lymph from lacteals to the submucosa

114
Q

Which layer of the muscularis in the anus forms the internal anal sphincter?

A. Outer circular
B. Inner circular
C. Outer longitudinal
D. Inner longitudinal

A

B. Inner circular

115
Q

Which of the following is true of the Hepatic Sinusoids?

A. Continuous type of capillary
B. Regularly arrange peripheral branches
C. (+) fenestration and sparse basal lamina
D. Supported by collagen and elastic fibers

A

C. (+) fenestration and sparse basal lamina

116
Q

Renin is produced by which of these cells

A. Juxtaglomerular cells
B. Intraglomerular mesangial cells
C. Macula Densa
D. Lacis cells

A

A. Juxtaglomerular cells

117
Q

The functional structure of the liver detailing bile secretion:

A. Classic hepatic lobule
B. Portal lobule
C. Hepatic acinus
D. Portal acinus

A

B. Portal lobule

118
Q

Cowper’s gland are group into

A. Acinar
B. Tubuloacinar
C. Tubular
D. Coiled tubular

A

B. Tubuloacinar

119
Q

Supporting tissue of the Vas Deferens and Ejaculatory Ducts:

A. Loose
B. Dense Irregular
C. Smooth Muscle
D. Fibroelastic

A

C. Smooth Muscle
D. Fibroelastic

120
Q

The follicle that consists of primary oocytes and surrounded by one layer of flattened cells

A. Primordial follicle
B. Primary follicle
C. Antral follicle
D. Secondary follicle

A

A. Primordial follicle

121
Q

The cells of this layer of the adrenal cortex are the smallest & are arranged in irregular cords forming an anastomosing network

A. Zona glomerulosa
B. Zona fasciculata
C. Zona reticularis
D. Medulla

A

C. Zona reticularis

122
Q

Which of the following is a histologic feature of chromophobes

A. More cytoplasm than chromophils
B. Strong cytoplasmic affinity to acids
C. Differentiated
D. Agranulated or degranulated

A

D. Agranulated or degranulated

123
Q

The adrenal medulla is characterized by

A. Its parenchyma is arranged in layers
B. Cells surrounded by sinusoidal capillaries
C. Abundance of spongiocytes
D. Presence of modified neurons

A

D. Presence of modified neurons

124
Q

What is the part of the vascular layer of the eye which is made up of muscle tissue, ridges, fibers and fluid-secreting cells?

A. Uvea
B. Iris
C. Choroid
D. Ciliary body

A

D. Ciliary body

125
Q

The middle ear is line in the:

A. Simple Columnar
B. Stratified Squamous
C. Pseudostratified Columnar
D. Stratified Cuboidal

A

C. Pseudostratified Columnar

126
Q

The forehead is formed from which of the ff prominence?

A. Frontonasal
B. Medial Nasally
C. Maxillary
D. Mandible

A

A. Frontonasal

127
Q

This cell is responsible for dentin production

A. Cementoblast
B. Ameloblast
C. Odontoblast
D. Keratinocytes

A

C. Odontoblast

128
Q

The pharyngeal pouches from where the parathyroid gland is derived

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 and 1

A

C. 3 and 4

129
Q

Formation of uteroplacental circulation occurs this days
A. 6-7
B. 8-9
C. 10-11
D. 12-13

A

Day 11-12

130
Q

Type II pneumocytes first appear and begin to secrete surfactant at

A. Week 26
B. Week 28
C. Week 30
D. Week 32

A

A. Week 26 (actual answer 24th)

131
Q

When respiration begins at birth, most of the fluid in the lungs is rapidly absorbed by the _____ and_____

A. Arterioles and capillaries
B. Blood and lymph capillaries
C. Lymph capillaries and veins
D. Blood and respiratory epithelium

A

B. Blood and lymph capillaries

132
Q

Growth and differentiation of the lung is continued in the presence of:

A. BMP
B. IL-1B
C. TBX4
D. Retinoic acid

A

C. TBX4

133
Q

Tracheoesophageal septum appears during this week to separate trachea from the esophagus

A. 4th
B. 5th
C. 6th
D. 3rd

A

A. 4th

134
Q

Mesenchymal transition of somites form which of the following

A. Somitomeres
B. Myotome
C. Sclerotome
D. Dermatome

A

C. Sclerotome

135
Q

The stroma of digestive glands originate from this germ layer:

A. Paraxial mesoderm
B. Ectoderm
C. Visceral Mesoderm
D. Endoderm

A

D. Endoderm

136
Q

Striations of the esophagus rises from:

A. Splanchnic mesoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Ectoderm
D. Visceral mesoderm

A

D. Visceral mesoderm

137
Q

In which week does the stomach develop from the foregut

A. 3rd
B. 4th
C. 5th
D. 6th

A

B. 4th

138
Q

A 41-year-old female was admitted to the ER complaining of a severe, sharp well-localized pain over the chest wall. The X-ray revealed presence of a pleural effusion on the anterior chest wall. The nerve responsible for mediating this sensation is the:

A. Posterior rami of the thoracic spinal nerve
B. Sympathetic pulmonary plexus
C. Ventral rami of the thoracic spinal nerve
D. Parasympathetic pulmonary plexus

A

C. Ventral rami of the thoracic spinal nerve

139
Q

Deepest layer of the thoracic wall for effective penetration of anesthesia

A. Endothoracic fascia
B. Parietal pleura
C. Intercostal muscles
D. Visceral pleura

A

B. Parietal pleura

140
Q

A 61 y/o cerebrovascular accident (CVA) px develops a right lower lobe pneumonia after an episode of vomiting. Which of the following is the best reason why this type of pneumonia most commonly affects right lower lung lobe?

A. The pulmonary resistance is greater in the right lung than the left lung
B. The right main bronchus is straighter than the left main bronchus
C. The right main bronchus is longer than the left main bronchus
D. The right main bronchus is narrower than the left main bronchus

A

B. The right main bronchus is straighter than the left main bronchus

141
Q

Which of the following marks the commencement of the Trachea?

A. Lower border of the thyroid cartilage
B. Lower border of the cricoid cartilage
C. Suprasternal notch
D. Sternal Angle of Louis

A

B. Lower border of the cricoid cartilage

142
Q

Which of the following vein pierces the posterior wall of the superior vena cava before it enters the pericardium to drain into the right atrium?

A. Azygos vein
B. Right superior intercostal vein
C. Hemiazygos vein
D. Right brachiocephalic vein

A

A. Azygos vein

143
Q

Branch of the thoracic aorta

A. Bronchial artery
B. Internal thoracic artery
C. Left subclavian artery
D. Pericardiophrenic artery

A

A. Bronchial artery

144
Q

Which of the following describes the anatomic location of the aortic valve?

A. Left of the sternum opposite to the 4th costal cartilage
B. Right of the sternum opposite to the 3rd intercostal space
C. Medial end of the 3rd left costal cartilage
D. Left of the sternum opposite to the 3rd intercostal space

A

C. Medial end of the 3rd left costal cartilage

145
Q

Which of the following constitutes a visceral layer of serous pericardium?

A. Myocardium
B. Endocardium
C. Epicardium
D. Ectocardium

A

C. Epicardium

146
Q

Which part of the heart is formed mainly by the left atrium

A. Apex
B. Left border
C. Base
D. Right border

A

C. Base

147
Q

Part of the mediastinum that contains the pericardium aorta heart

A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Middle
D. Superior

A

C. Middle

148
Q

The lower eight thoracic vertebrae forms the posterior boundary of the which of the following:

A. Superior Mediastinum
B. Inferior Mediastinum
C. Posterior Mediastinum
D. Middle Mediastinum

A

B. Inferior Mediastinum

149
Q

Which of the following is the widest segment of the mediastinum?

A. Middle Mediastinum
B. Posterior Mediastinum
C. Superior Mediastinum
D. Anterior Mediastinum

A

A. Middle Mediastinum

150
Q

Which of the following forms the inferior boundary of the lumbar triangle?

A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Iliac crest
C. External oblique
D. Lumbar vertebra

A

B. Iliac crest

151
Q

Foramina of the cervical vertebra that transmits the vertebral artery

A. Vertebral
B. Transverse
C. Intervertebral
D. Articular

A

B. Transverse

152
Q

Which of the following muscles is a boundary to the triangle of auscultation?

A. Levator scapulae
B. Teres major
C. Trapezius
D. Rhomboid major

A

C. Trapezius

153
Q

Which of the following gives attachment to the ligamentum nuchae?

A. Superior nuchal line
B. Mastoid process
C. Inferior nuchal line
D. External occipital protuberance

A

D. External occipital protuberance

154
Q

During the performance of a tracheostomy (opening of the anterior wall of upper trachea) for an upper airway obstruction, which of the following parts of the thyroid gland would be transected

A. Right lobe
B. Left lobe
C. Isthmus
D. Pyramidal lobe

A

C. Isthmus

155
Q

A. Biker had an accident and was brought to the operating room for a midline tracheostomy. As a medical doctor, what vessels should you be vary of when performing such a procedure?

A. Thyroid ima and superior thyroid vein
B. Middle thyroid vein and superior thyroid artery
C. Superior thyroid artery and superior thyroid vein
D. Inferior thyroid vein and inferior thyroid artery

A

A. Thyroid ima and superior thyroid vein

156
Q

Which muscle of mastication is inserted into the coronoid process of the mandible?

A. Temporalis
B. Masseter
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral pterygoid

A

A. Temporalis

157
Q

Which of the following best describes the parathyroid gland?

A. It is separated from the thyroid gland by a connective tissue capsule
B. Found entirely in the lower poles of the thyroid gland
C. It is supplied by the superior and inferior thyroid arteries
D. It usually lies close to the inferior border of the thyroid cartilage

A

C. It is supplied by the superior and inferior thyroid arteries

158
Q

A 37-year-old woman complains of a recurrent right upper quadrant pain for several days. PE and ultrasound confirm the initial suspicion of acute cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder). A cholecystectomy is planned. Which of the following anatomical landmarks will best describe the precise location of the gallbladder relative to the anterior abdominal wall?

A. Intersection of the right linea semilunaris with the costal margin
B. RUQ
C. Four fingerbreadths below the costal margin
D. Intersection of the right linea semilunaris with the subcostal plane

A

A. Intersection of the right linea semilunaris with the costal margin

159
Q

This structure serves as the hilum of the liver and is located on the posteroinferior surface between the caudate and quadrate lobe

A. Bare area
B. Ligametum teres
C. Porta hepatis
D. Impression of the gallbladder

A

C. Porta hepatis

160
Q

Which part of the pancreas lies in front of the take off of both portal artery and superior mesenteric artery?

A. Head
B. Body
C. Uncinate process
D. Neck

A

D. Neck

161
Q

Which of the following best describes the pancreas?

A. Its body and tail received their blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery
B. Its main duct opens into the medial wall of the 3rd part of the duodenum
C. It lies in the right hypochondriac region extending to the epigastrium
D. It is a retroperitoneal organ

A

D. It is a retroperitoneal organ

162
Q

Which bound the “bare area” of the liver?

A. Falciparum
B. Triangular
C. Coronary
D. Ligamentum teres

A

C. Coronary

163
Q

Which joint permits circumduction movement:

A. Tibiofibular
B. Gleno-humeral
C. Temporomandibular
D. Tibiofemoral

A

B. Gleno-humeral

164
Q

Which allows supination pronation movement?

A. Wrist
B. Radioulnar
C. Uniaxial joints
D. Condyloid Joints

A

B. Radioulnar

165
Q

Type of synovial joint where humero-ulnar joint belongs:

A. Hinge
B. Pivot
C. Ellipsoid
D. Condylar

A

A. Hinge

166
Q

Which part of the pleura is supplied by the phrenic nerve?

A. Cervical pleura
B. Costal pleura
C. Visceral pleura
D. Mediastinal pleura

A

D. Mediastinal pleura

167
Q

Part of the mediastinum, that contains the ascending aorta, pericardium, and the heart.

A. Anterior
B. Superior
C. Inferior
D. Middle

A

D. Middle

168
Q

Which if the following structures traverse both superior mediastinum and posterior mediastinum?

A. Esophagus and trachea
B. Aorta and esophagus
C. Thymus
D. Branches of arch of aorta

A

B. Aorta and esophagus

169
Q

What is the largest single lymphoid mass in the body?

A. Thymus
B. Bone marrow
C. Liver
D. Spleen

A

D. Spleen

170
Q

What is considered as the “dangerous area of the scalp”?

A. Epicranial aponeurosis
B. Dense connective tissue
C. Loose connective layer
D. Pericranium

A

C. Loose connective layer

171
Q

This provides a pathway for the spread of infection from the so called “dangerous area of the face” to the cavernous sinus

A. Supraorbital vein
B. Facial vein
C. Superior ophthalmic vein
D. Supratrochlear vein

A

C. Superior ophthalmic vein

172
Q

Contraction of this muscle raises eyebrows as an expression of surprise.

A. Corrugator supercilii
B. Nasalis
C. Occipitofrontalis
D. Orbicularis oculi

A

C. Occipitofrontalis

173
Q

Which of the following nerves supplies the muscle of mastication?

A. Maxillary nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

A. Maxillary nerve (Trigeminal Nerve)

174
Q

The intermediate tendon of this muscle is held to the hyoid bone by fascial sling:

A. Omohyoid
B. Thyrohyoid
C. Sternohyoid
D. Digastric

A

D. Digastric

175
Q

This nerve passes through the neck within carotid sheath.

A. Phrenic Nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal
C. Vagus Nerve
D. Spinal Accessory Nerve

A

C. Vagus Nerve

176
Q

Which of the following structures is located within the renal sinus?

A. Renal pelvis
B. Renal columns
C. Renal pyramid
D. Renal papillae

A

B. Renal columns

177
Q

Contraction of this muscle prevents retrograde movement of the semen into the bladder during ejaculation

A. External urethral sphincter
B. Internal urethral sphincter
C. Detrusor muscle
D. Deep transverse perineal muscle

A

B. Internal urethral sphincter

178
Q

What is the usual position of the uterus?

A. Anteverted and anteflexed
B. Retroverted and retroflexed
C. Lateroverted and laterally flexed
D. Medialy verted and medially flexed

A

A. Anteverted and anteflexed

179
Q

Referred to as the cardinal ligament of the uterus:

A. Uterosacral ligament
B. Pubocervical ligament
C. Transverse cervical ligament
D. Pubovesical ligament

A

C. Transverse cervical ligament

180
Q

One of these spaces is in close proximity to the pouch of Douglas. Blood and pus are best collected when the needle punctures?

A. Anterior vaginal fornix
B. Posterior vaginal fornix
C. Lateral vaginal fornix
D. Cervical os

A

B. Posterior vaginal fornix

181
Q

Which of the following completely covers a synovial joint?

A. Articular cartilage
B. Synovial membrane
C. Joint ligament
D. Fibrous capsule

A

D. Fibrous capsule

182
Q

Part of the ulna that forms the prominence of the elbow

A. Coronoid
B. Olecranon process
C. Coracoid process
D. Styloid process

A

B. Olecranon process

183
Q

Which of the following comprises the hamstring group of muscles?

A. Gracilis, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris
B. Semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, vastus lateralis
C. Semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, vastus mediatus
D. Semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, vastus longus

A

A. Gracilis, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris

184
Q

Which of the following is commonly a direct branch of the femoral artery?

A. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
B. Medial femoral circumflex artery
C. Profunda femoris artery
D. Perforating artery

A

D. Perforating artery

185
Q

Which part of the hip bone intervenes between the greater and lesser sciatic notches?

A. Ischial spine
B. Ischial tuberosity
C. Iliac spine
D. Ischial body

A

A. Ischial spine

186
Q

What is the most common border of the tibia known as the shin?

A. Anterior border
B. Lateral border
C. Posterior border
D. Interosseous border

A

A. Anterior border

187
Q

What is the largest branch of the lumbar

A. Inferior Gluteal nerve
B. Superior Gluteal nerve
C. Femoral nerve

A

C. Femoral nerve

188
Q

What is composed of the erector spinae muscles?

A. Semispinalis, spinalis, longissimus
B. Iliocostalis, semispinalis, spinalis
C. Longissimus, spinalis, semispinalis
D. Iliocostalis, spinalis, longissimus

A

D. Iliocostalis, spinalis, longissimus

189
Q

Which process is characteristically long in vertebra prominens?

A. Accessory
B. Articular
C. Spinous
D. Transverse

A

C. Spinous

190
Q

How many paired ribs are directly attached to the sternum?

A. 7
B. 12
C. 9
D. 10

A

A. 7

191
Q

The intercostal vessels and nerve pass in between which layers of the chest wall

A. Between the parietal pleura and endothoracic fascia
B. Between the external intercostal and internal intercostal muscle
C. Between the internal intercostal and innermost intercostal muscle
D. Between innermost intercostal muscle and endothoracic fascia

A

C. Between the internal intercostal and innermost intercostal muscle

192
Q

Which of the following muscle are included in quiet respiration?

A. External intercostal muscles and diaphragm
B. External and internal intercostals
C. Diaphragm and internal intercostals
D. Diaphragm, external and internal intercostals

A

A. External intercostal muscles and diaphragm

193
Q

Visceral pleura that covers which of the following surface

A. Diaphragm
B. Inner surface of ribs
C. Interlobular fissure
D. Principal bronchus

A

C. Interlobular fissure

194
Q

Which of the following drains directly to the anterior chest wall?

A. Pericardiophrenic vein
B. Brachiocephalic vein
C. Azygos vein
D. Internal thoracic vein

A

D. Internal thoracic vein

195
Q

Which of the following anatomical impressions is only found in the mediastinal surface of the right lung?

A. groove for the esophagus
B. groove for the aortic arch
C. groove for the descending thoracic aorta
D. cardiac impression

A

A. groove for the esophagus

196
Q

The number of bronchopulmonary segments in each lungs

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A

B. 10

197
Q

This form the immediate lateral boundary of the mediastinum

A. phrenic nerve
B. mediastinal pleura
C. lungs
D. pleural cavity

A

B. mediastinal pleura

198
Q

Part of the mediastinum that contains the descending aorta, azygos vein and esophagus

A. superior
B. anterior
C. middle
D. posterior

A

D. posterior

199
Q

Which of the following constitutes the visceral layer of the serous pericardium?

A. Endocardium
B. Myocardium
C. Epicardium
D. Fibrous skeleton of the heart

A

C. Epicardium

200
Q

Surface of the heart formed by the right atrium and right ventricle.

A. Sternocostal surfaces
B. Diaphragmatic surface
C. Base
D. Apex

A

A. Sternocostal surfaces

201
Q

Which branch of the right coronary artery lies at the posterior interventricular groove?

A. Right marginal artery
B. Posterior descending branch
C. Right atrial branch
D. Right conus branch

A

B. Posterior descending branch

202
Q

Which auscultation site is located in the left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line?

A. Aortic
B. Tricuspid
C. Mitral
D. Pulmonic

A

C. Mitral

203
Q

Which of the following takes origin from the aortic arch

A. Right common carotid artery
B. Right and left coronary arteries
C. Right subclavian artery
D. Brachiocephalic artery

A

D. Brachiocephalic artery

204
Q

Which of the following contributes to the formation of the brachiocephalic vein?

A. Common carotid
B. Superior vena cava
C. Internal jugular
D. External jugular

A

C. Internal jugular

205
Q

Which of the following part of the aorta that gives origin to the coronary arteries:

A. Conus arteriosus
B. Ascending
C. Arch
D. Descending thoracic

A

B. Ascending

206
Q

Which of the following regions of the abdomen is bounded superiorly by the transtubercular plane and laterally by the mid-clavicular planes?

A. Hypogastric
B. Iliac
C. Umbilical
D. Epigastric

A

A. Hypogastric

207
Q

The level of the rectus sheath formation where there is splitting of the internal oblique aponeurosis:

A. Between the level of costal margin and the anterior superior iliac spins
B. Between the level of anterior superior iliac spine and pubis
C. Below the anterior superior iliac spine
D. Above the costal margin

A

A. Between the level of costal margin and the anterior superior iliac spins

208
Q

This refers to the vertical fibrous band in the midline of the abdomen formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall

A. Linea splendens
B. Linea alba
C. Arcuate line

A

B. Linea alba

209
Q

A muscle of anterior abdominal wall that takes origin from the lower eight ribs

A. External oblique
B. Transversus abdominis
C. Internal oblique
D. Pyramidalis

A

A. External oblique

210
Q

This structure marks the boundary between the duodenum and jejunum
A. Neck of the pancreas
B. Ligament of Treitz
C. Emergence of the superior mesenteric artery and vein below the pancreas
D. Point of termination of inferior mesenteric vein into the splenic vein

A

B. Ligament of Treitz

211
Q

Refers to the deep membranous layer of the superficial fascia of the abdomen

A. Scarpa’s fascia
B. Fascia transversalis
C. Camper’s fascia
D. Inguinal canal

A

A. Scarpa’s fascia

212
Q

Which of the following structures provide a natural route of communication between the lesser sac and the greater sac?

A. Epiploic foramen
B. Subphrenic space
C. By opening thru the greater omentum
D. By opening thru the lesser omentum

A

A. Epiploic foramen

213
Q

When there is no discrete line demarcating the jejunum from the ileum, the ileum can be distinguished by the following except

A. ileum tends to be larger caliber than jejunum
B. ileal mesentery contains more fat
C. ileum contains abundant Peyer patches
D. ileum tends to be lighter in color than the jejunum

A

A. ileum tends to be larger caliber than jejunum

214
Q

Which of the following is the origin for the quadratus lumborum?

A. inferior border of the 12th rib
B. iliac crest
C. lateral arcuate ligament
D. T12-L5

A

B. iliac crest

215
Q

In the renal hilum, which structure lies anteriorly?

A. Renal artery
B. Renal column
C. Renal vein
D. Renal pelvis

A

C. Renal vein

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