Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

operation grade 9 > physics paper 1 > Flashcards

physics paper 1 Flashcards

1
Q

In 1897 what did J J Thomson discover could be removed from atoms?

A

electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Due to J J Thomson discovering that electrons could be removed from the atom what model did he suggest?

A

A plum pudding model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Whose model of the atoms is most like our model of the atom today?

A

Bhors model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What did experiment did Rutherford? (decay)

A

They shot a beam of alpha particles at gold foil, they thought more would go through the expected but didn’t expect some to deflect back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the relative mass and relative charge of a proton?

A

relative mass=1 and relative charge=+1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the relative mass and relative charge of a neutron?

A

relative mass=1 relative charge=0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the relative mass and relative charge of an electron?

A

relative mass=0.0005 relative charge=-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When do we call an atom ionised?

A

When it loses an electron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What sort of radiation ionises atoms?

A

Nuclear radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are isotopes?

A

The different form of the same element, they have a different amount of protons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What radioactive substances are spat out after ionising radiation?

A

alpha, beta, gamma or neutrons are spat out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an alpha particle made up of?

A

two neutrons and two protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does alpha decay decrease?

A

the charge and the mass of the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does beta-minus decay increase?

A

The charge of the nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does a positron emission do?

A

it decreased the charge of the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does a neutron emission do?

A

It decreases the mass of the nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does a short half life mean?

A

It means that the activity will fall quicker as the nuclei are more unstable and rapidly decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is a short half life dangerous?

A

It is dangerous because it means more radiation is emitted over a shorter period of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does a long half life mean?

A

It means that the activity will fall more slowly as the nuclei will not decay for a long time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How can you measure half life?

A

Using a graph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is it called when you are exposed to radiation?

A

Irridation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does radiation damage cells?

A

by ionisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which two radiations can penetrate the body and get to vital organs?

A

beta and gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In house hold fire alarms what radiation do they use?

A

Alpha radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If a radioactive source has a lower activity what does it mean?

A

It is safer to be around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does a fire alarm work?

A

The smoke will absorb the radiation and this stops the current in the alarm causing it to set off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

why must all isotopes entering the body be beta or gamma?

A

So that they can leave the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is PET short for

A

Positron emission tomography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What can a PET scanner be used for?

A

To help diagnosis and help identify medical conditions, ie it can help identify cancer cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what does the positron do when in the body? (6 marker)

A

The positron will find and meet electrons in the organs and will annihilate them. it emits high energy gamma rays, in opposite directions . these are detected, detectors around the body identify each gamma ray and the tumour will lay along the same path, if three pairs are detected it can help locate the tumour more accurately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is radiation used internally or externally to treat tumours?

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

why are isotopes used in PET scanning need to be transported quickly?

A

Because they have a short half life so either need to be made on site or close by. They have short half life so the isotope doesn’t stay in the person’s body long.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where are alpha emitters injected when used in treatment?

A

Near the tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How are beta emitters normally sued in treatment?

A

As implants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is nuclear fission?

A

The splitting up of a big atomic nuclei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What particle is an unstable nucleus normally shot at?

A

uranium 235

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What happens every time after an unstable nucleus hits uranium 235

A

The atoms splits up and spits out two or three more neutrons and these can hit another uranium 235 particle continuing the chain reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is nuclear fusion?

A

two light nuclei collide at a high speed and join together to create a heavier nucleus?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what happens to some of the mass after nuclear fusion?

A

Some of the mass from the lighter nuclei is converted into energy then released as radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

True or false fusion only happens at high temperatures and pressures?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

why does fusion only occur at really high temperatures?

A

because the positively charged nuclei have to get very close to fuse so need to overcome the strong electrostatic force.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What temperature does nuclear fusion tend to happen at?

A

10 000 000 degrees celsius yes 10 million degrees celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Why are people scared of nuclear power?

A

The products of nuclear fission have very long half lifes meaning they will be radioactive for thousands of years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what threat does nuclear power have with the environemnt?

A

Due to it needing to be carefully disposed and its long half life it could potentially leak and spill into rivers, oceans and spread across land and it would affect all wildlife.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are some major nuclear power catastrophes?

A

Chernobyl and Fukushima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

True or false nuclear power is more safe than most people think?

A

True it is a pretty safe way of generating electricity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what does nuclear fission not do that fossil fuels do?

A

Fossil fuels release lots of carbon dioxide contributing to global warming and the greenhouse effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what does nuclear fission not do that fossil fuels do?

A

Fossil fuels release lots of carbon dioxide contributing to global warming and the greenhouse effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

True or false nuclear fission is extremely costly?

A

False it is relatively cheap, only takes a small amount to create loads of energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What counteracts the cheapness of nuclear fission?

A

It has an overall high cost due to the cost of the power plant and decommissioning of the power plants as dismantling a power plant safely could take a very long time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What’s dwarf planet and give an example?

A

A planet not big enough to be a planet, like Pluto.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a natural satellite in space?

A

Moons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the name for a human made satellite that is in space?

A

an artificial satellite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is an asteroid?

A

lumps of rocks and metals, often in asteroid belts and they orbit the sun.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is a comet made of?

A

lumps of ice and dust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What model suggested everything orbited the sun?

A

Geocentric model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the steady state theory?

A

Matter is always being created and that the universe always existed as it is now ad as the universe expands new matter is made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the big bang theory?

A

All matter in universe was in a small place and was dense, it exploded creating everything we know and it still is exploding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What suggest that the universe is still expanding?

A

Red-shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the definition for red-shift?

A

an observed increase in wavelength of the light coming from the galaxies and patterns have shifted towards the red end of the spectrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What do measurements of red shift tell us?

A

distant galaxies are moving away from us quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does CMB stand for?

A

Cosmic microwave background radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does the big bang model tell us about CMB radiation?

A

It says that CMB is left over energy from the explosion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the life cycle of a star?

A

A cloud of dust and gas forms a nebula. nebula - protostar - main sequence star - either a red giant - white dwarf or a red supergiant after the main sequence star. red supergiant - supernova - neutron star or a black hole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What’s a nebula made of?

A

dust and gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How does a protostar form?

A

gravity pulls the dust and gas together, temperature rises as star gets denser when temp is high enough nuclear fusion occurs, lots of energy given out keeps core of star hot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How does a neutron star form?

A

when the supernova explodes it throws outer layers and leaves a dense core called a neutron star.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

how does a black hole form?

A

When the supernova explodes if star is massive enough it collapse creating black hole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what forms when a small-medium sized star becomes unstable and ejects the outer layer of dust and gas?

A

A white dwarf forms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are telescopes used for?

A

To view the universe and help discover more about the world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are advantages with land telescopes?

A

They are on land so easy to repair and do not have to send them into space saving money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what are disadvantages with land telescopes?

A

atmosphere can blur images due to light pollution and ozone layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what are advantages with space telescopes?

A

Clearer images due to no light pollution,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are disadvantages of space telescopes?

A

Harder to repair as they are in space, cost more money to build as have to be able to work in space and not get broken easily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How does a main sequence star form?

A

star has entered a long stable period, outward pressure caused by thermal expansion tries to expand the star.. it balances and gravity pulls everything inwards. the main sequence star lasts for several billion years, a heavier star has a shorter main sequence.

76
Q

Where is the best place to put a telescope on earth?

A

on a mountain in a dark place away from cities.

77
Q

What are x-ray telescopes used for?

A

high temperature events like an exploding star.

78
Q

What telescopes was responsible for the discovery of cmb?

A

radio telescope

79
Q

True or false a bigger telescope means a bigger resolution

A

True

80
Q

what is the EM spectrum

A

radio waves, microwaves, infrared radiation, visible light, ultraviolet light, x-rays, gamma rays,

81
Q

What are the two types of wavelengths?

A

Transverse and longitudinal

82
Q

Is the transverse a P or S wave?

A

It is a S wave

83
Q

is a longitudinal wave a S or P wave?

A

It’s a P wave

84
Q

What is the amplitude of a wave?

A

The distance from the rest position to either the peak or the trough.

85
Q

What is a wavelength?

A

A full cycle of the wave from crest to crest or trough to trough.

86
Q

What is wave speed measured in?

A

m/s

87
Q

what is wavelength measured in?

A

m

88
Q

what is frequency measured in?

A

Hz

89
Q

What is time measured in waves?

A

seconds

89
Q

What happens to waves at boundaries?

A

They are either absorbed, transmitted or reflected

90
Q

What does an objects: size, shape and structure determine about frequency?

A

What it determines is what frequency the object can be transmitted.

91
Q

True or false frequency changes when going through a new medium?

A

False

92
Q

What does change when a wave goes through a new medium?

A

It gets longer when the wave speeds up and shorter when it slows down.

93
Q

Can sound travel in a vacuum? Why or why not?

A

It can not travel in a vacuum (space) because there are no particles for the sound to vibrate.

94
Q

What are echoes?

A

Reflected sound waves

95
Q

What is ultrasound?

A

Ultrasound is a frequency higher than 20,000 Hz

96
Q

What happens to ultrasound waves at boundaries?

A

They get partially reflected.

97
Q

How is ultrasound used in detecting foetuses?

A

The waves pass through the body, but when they reach a boundary between 2 mediums some of the wave will be reflected and the rest is detected on a screen.

98
Q

How is ultrasound used in industrial imaging?

A

It is used to find flaws in objects like pipes or materials made of wood or metal.

99
Q

How does the ultrasound work in industrial imaging?

A

If there is a crack in the objects the waves from the sound will be deflected sooner.

100
Q

what sound has a frequency lower than 20Hz?

A

Infrasound

101
Q

What is an example of an animal that communicates in ultra sound?

A

Whales and elephants

102
Q

What sort of waves do earthquakes and explosions create?

A

seismic waves

103
Q

What is faster a P or S wave?

A

P waves are faster.

104
Q

What can P waves travel through?

A

Solids and liquids.

105
Q

What can S waves travel through?

A

only solids

106
Q

What is the angle of incidence equal to?

A

The angle of reflection

107
Q

How do you work out the angle of reflection?

A

measure the angle between the reflected wave and the normal

108
Q

what does total internal reflection depend on?

A

The critical angle.

109
Q

When can total internal reflection occur?

A

When a wave travels through a dense material towards a less dense material

110
Q

What happens when the angle of incidence is less than the critical angle?

A

light is refracted

111
Q

What happens when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle?

A

ray goes along the surface

112
Q

What happens when the angle of incidence is larger than the critical angle?

A

Total internal reflection occurs

113
Q

What is specular reflection?

A

when waves are reflected in a single direction by a smooth surface.

114
Q

what is diffuse reflection?

A

when waves are reflected by a rough surface in all directions.

115
Q

What is white light made off?

A

all the different colours of light

116
Q

How many colours are reflected by the colour white?

A

All colours

117
Q

How many colours are absorbed by black objects?

A

All colours

118
Q

If a colour filter is not a primary colours what colours are let trough?

A

The colour of the filter and the colours that make up the filter

119
Q

When is a real image formed?

A

When light rays come together to form an image

120
Q

When is a virtual image formed?

A

When light rays from the object appear to be coming from a completely different place.

121
Q

How can a power of a lens increase?

A

With its curvature.

122
Q

What does every object absorb and emit?

A

EM Radiation

123
Q

What does radiation do to earth?

A

It affects its temperature

124
Q

What is a better emitter black or white surfaces?

A

Black surfaces are better emitters

125
Q

what is the frequency of a wave?

A

The number of waves produced per second.

126
Q

What is the period of the wave?

A

The time it takes for two successive crests (one wavelength) to pass a specified point.

127
Q

difference between longitudinal and transverse waves?

A

transverse are perpendicular to the direction of wave travel and longitudinal are parallel to the direction of wave travel

128
Q

What affects an object’s ability to transmit given frequencies of a sound?

A

what the object is made from and its properties

129
Q

True or false opaque objects transmit light?

A

False opaque objects do not transmit light

130
Q

What happens to white light when it hits a white object?

A

All aspects of the white light will be equally reflected

131
Q

How do colour filters work?

A

When white light passes through a coloured filter, all colours are absorbed except for the colour of the filter.

132
Q

What does real image mean?

A

an image that can be projected onto a screen.

133
Q

What does virtual image mean?

A

A virtual image cannot be projected onto a screen. It appears to come from behind the lens and can only be seen by looking through the lens.

134
Q

How does a lenses curve affect its power?

A

The larger the curve the more power the object has

135
Q

True or false Diverging lenses will always produce a real image

A

False it always produces a virtual image

136
Q

True or false all electromagnetic waves are are transverse?

A

True all EM waves are transverse

137
Q

Give a potential danger of uv radiation?

A

UV radiation is dangerous because it is ionising and can damage skin cells on the surface can lead to skin cancer

138
Q

potential danger of x-rays?

A

use gamma rays which are ionising can cause mutations and damage to cells

139
Q

potential dangers of gamma rays?

A

can pass through skin and deeper tissues and mutate and damage cells

140
Q

describe the average power of absorption for objects at room temperature?

A

radiates and absorbs an average power if a room is at a constant temperature

141
Q

describe the average power of radiation for objects at room temperature?

A

equal when at constant temperature

142
Q

How does absorption affect the earth’s temperature?

A

it increases the temperature of the planet

143
Q

How does reflection affect the earth’s temperature?

A

it cools the planet slightly

144
Q

How does emission of radio waves affect the earth’s temperature?

A

Most of the emitted longwave radiation warms the lower atmosphere, which in turn warms our planet’s surface.

145
Q

Give uses of gamma rays?

A

medicines, sterilization, disinfection

146
Q

what type of radiation is used in thermal imaging cameras?

A

infrared

147
Q

what kind of current is used to generate radio wave in an antenna?

A

oscilating electric current

148
Q

What is the difference between scalar and vector quantities?

A

vector has direction and magnitude wereas scalar is only magnitude

149
Q

what does acceleration mean in terms of velocity?

A

change in speed of an object over a certain time

150
Q

what does acceleration mean in terms of time?

A

the change in velocity of the object over time

151
Q

what does a gradient represent on a distance/time graph?

A

speed

152
Q

what does a gradient represent on a velocity time graph?

A

acceleration

153
Q

How do you find the distance travelled by an object from its velocity/time graph?

A

the area of the section underneath

154
Q

What is Newton’s first law?

A

An object at rest remains at rest, or if in motion, remains in motion at a constant velocity unless acted on by a net external force.

155
Q

What is Newton’s second law?

A

F=MA

156
Q

What is Newton’s third law?

A

two objects inertacting will exert equal and opposite forces

157
Q

Why do cars have safety features to reduce de-acceleration of passengers?

A

so that when the car slows down the person doesn’t continue at the same momentum and get injured as they would ne flung out the car

158
Q

What is the formula for calculating the weight of an object?

A

W = mg

159
Q

why must there be a force acting to produce a circular motion?

A

velocity is a vector and the direction of the object is constantly changing

160
Q

What is the name of the force that creates a circular motion?

A

centripetal force

161
Q

What is inertia?

A

a resistance to a change in motion

162
Q

what is meant by a person’s reaction time?

A

How quickly a person can react to a scenario

163
Q

state things that can affect thinking distance?

A

tiredness, alcohol, drugs, distractioms, speed

164
Q

state things that can affect braking distance?

A

speed, mass of the car, brake condition, friction of tire.

165
Q

what is meant by dissipation of energy?

A

how energy is wasted

166
Q

Give energy transfer for when a hair dryer is switched on?

A

electrical energy to thermal energy

167
Q

How does the thermal conductivity of a wall affect its rate of energy?

A

the higher the thermal conductivity the higher the rate of reaction

168
Q

what are bio fuels made from?

A

plant materials that are not safe to be consumed by humans

169
Q

what is the difference between nonrenewable and renewable energy resources?

A

renewable energy is a lot safer and better for the environment and can be mad eover again and re used where as nonrenweable energy is more dangerous for the environment and can not be re used once used to create energy

170
Q

what is a system?

A

an object or group of objects

171
Q

give 3 ways energy of a system can be changed?

A

chemical recation, heating, electrical work,

172
Q

how do you convert joules to nanometres?

A

you can not joules are energy nanometres are distance

173
Q

what is interaction pair?

A

a set of two forces that are in opposite directions, have equal magnitudes and act on different objects.

174
Q

what is a free body force diagram?

A

the forces acting on an object

175
Q

what is the resultant force of an object in equilibrium?

A

0 Newtons

176
Q

what is meant by the resultant force acting on an object?

A

overall force that acts on an object

177
Q

true or false a mechanical process becomes wasteful when it causes an increase in temperature?

A

True

178
Q

define power

A

amount of energy transferred per unti time

179
Q

what unit is power measured in?

A

Watts

180
Q

True or false friction is a non contact force?

A

True

181
Q

True or false a moment is a turning effect force?

A

True

182
Q

what is the principle of moments?

A

when a body is balanced, the total clockwise moment about a point equals the total anticlockwise moment about the same point

183
Q

how do levers make it easier to do work?

A

by changing the force applied to the machine or the distance over which the force is applied.

184
Q

true or false for a given force a larger gear will turn slower than a small gear?

A

True

185
Q

if gear one is spinning clockwise what direction will gear 2 turn?

A

anticlockwise

operation grade 9 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions