Physics Flashcards

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1
Q

Centripetal Force (F)

A

= m (v^2 / r)

Points radially inward

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2
Q

Centripetal Acceleration (a)

A

= v^2 / r

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3
Q

SI Units

A

Meter, Kilogram, Second, Ampere, Mole, Kelvin and Candela

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4
Q

Vector

A

Have magnitude and direction

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5
Q

Is displacement vector or scalar?

A

Vector

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6
Q

Is velocity vector or scalar?

A

Vector

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7
Q

Is acceleration vector or scalar?

A

Vector

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8
Q

Is force vector or scalar?

A

Vector

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9
Q

Scalar

A

Have magnitude but no direction or dimension

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10
Q

Is speed vector or scalar?

A

Scalar

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11
Q

Are coefficients of friction vector or scalar?

A

Scalar

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12
Q

Dot product

A

Multiplying 2 vectors and resulting in a scalar quantity

= |A| |B| cos (theta)

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13
Q

Cross product

A

Multiplying 2 vectors and resulting in a vector quantity

= |A| |B| sin (theta)

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14
Q

Static friction (fs)

A

= 0 < fs < fk
Exists between 2 objects that are not in motion relative to one another
Can take on many values depending on the magnitude of an applied force

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15
Q

Kinetic friction (fk)

A

= us N
Exists between 2 objects that are in motion relative to one another
A constant value

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16
Q

Coefficient of friction

A

Depends on the 2 materials in contact

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17
Q

Which is greater: the coefficient of static friction or the coefficient of kinetic friction?

A

The coefficient of static friction

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18
Q

Newton’s first law (the law of inertia)

A

F = m a = 0

An object will remain at rest or move with constant velocity if there is no net force acting on it

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19
Q

Newton’s second law

A

F = m a

Any acceleration is the result of the sum of the forces acting on an object

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20
Q

Newton’s third law

A

Any 2 objects interacting with one another experience equal and opposite forces as a result of their interaction

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21
Q

Is free fall linear, projectile or circular motion?

A

Linear

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22
Q

Linear motion

A

Motion in which the velocity and acceleration are parallel or antiparallel

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23
Q

Projectile motion

A

Contains x and y components

The only force acting on the object is gravity

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24
Q

Inclined planes

A

Two dimensional motion

Dimensions are parallel and perpendicular to the surface of the plane

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25
Q

What are the dimensions of circular motion?

A

Has radial and tangential dimensions

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26
Q

Uniform circular motion

A

The only force is the centripetal force
No work is done
Potential energy is constant

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27
Q

In which direction does instantaneous velocity point?

A

Always points tangentially

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28
Q

Translational equilibrium

A

Occurs in the absence of any new forces acting on an object

The object has constant velocity and/or rotational equilibrium

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29
Q

Rotational equilibrium

A

Occurs in the absence of any new torques acting on an object

The object has constant angular velocity

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30
Q

Component vectors

A
x = v cos (theta)
y = v sin (theta)
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31
Q

Velocity (v)

A

= x / t

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32
Q

Universal gravitation equation (F)

A

= (G m1 m2) / r^2

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33
Q

Acceleration (a)

A

= v / t

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34
Q

Kinematics (no displacement)

A

v = vo + (a t)

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35
Q

Kinematics (no final velocity)

A

x = (vo t) + [(a t^2) / 2]

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36
Q

Kinematics (no time)

A

v^2 = vo^2 + (2 a x)

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37
Q

Kinematics (no acceleration)

A

x = v t

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38
Q

Components of gravity on an inclined place

A

Fg, parallel = m g sin (theta)

Fg, perpendicular = m g cos (theta)

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39
Q

Torque (T)

A

= r F sin (theta)

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40
Q

Examples of potential energy

A

Gravitational, electrical, elastic, chemical

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41
Q

Gravitational potential energy (U)

A

= m g h

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42
Q

Conservative forces

A

The mechanical energy of the system remains constant

The path the object takes does not matter

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43
Q

Nonconservative forces

A

The mechanical energy of the system decreases (energy is dissipated)
The path the object takes matters (more energy is dissipated with a longer path)

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44
Q

Is gravity a conservative or nonconservative force?

A

Conservative

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45
Q

Are electrostatic forces conservative or nonconservative forces?

A

Conservative

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46
Q

Are elastic forces conservative or nonconservative forces?

A

Conservative

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47
Q

Is friction a conservative or nonconservative force?

A

Nonconservative

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48
Q

Is air resistance a conservative or nonconservative force?

A

Nonconservative

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49
Q

Is viscous drag a conservative or nonconservative force?

A

Nonconservative

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50
Q

Work (W)

A

= F d cos (theta)
= P delta V
= delta K
= delta U = q delta V

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51
Q

The dot product of the force and displacement vectors

A

W = F d cos (theta)

mechanical work

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52
Q

The area under a pressure-volume curve

A

W = P delta V

isobaric gas-piston system

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53
Q

The work-energy theorem

A

W = delta K

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54
Q

As the length of an inclined plane increases, what happens to the force required to move an object the same displacement?

A

As the length of an inclined plane increases, the amount of force necessary to perform the same amount of work (moving the object the same displacement) decreases.

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55
Q

As the effort decreases in a pulley system, what happens to the effort distance to maintain the same work output?

A

As the effort (required force) decreases in a pulley system, the effort distance increases to generate the same amount of work

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56
Q

What accounts for the difference between work input and work output in a system that operates at less than 100% efficiency?

A

The decrease in work output is due to nonconservative or external forces that generate or dissipate energy

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57
Q

What does it mean for a device to provide mechanical advantage?

A

When a device provides mechanical advantage, it decreases the input force required to generate a particular output force. Generally, this is accomplished at the expense of increased distance over which the force must act.

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58
Q

Total mechanical energy

A

= U + K

The sum of a system’s kinetic and potential energies

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59
Q

What happens if only conservative forces are acting on an object?

A

The total mechanical energy is conserved

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60
Q

Kinetic energy (K)

A

= 1/2 m v^2

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61
Q

Elastic potential energy (U)

A

= 1/2 k x^2

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62
Q

Conservation of mechanical energy (delta E)

A

= delta U + delta K = 0

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63
Q

Work done by nonconservative forces (W)

A

= delta E = delta U + delta K

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64
Q

Power (P)

A

= W / t = delta E / t

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65
Q

Mechanical advantage

A

= F out / F in

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66
Q

Efficiency

A

= W out / W in

= [(load) (load distance)] / [(effort) (effort distance)]

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67
Q

Why is there no work done in uniform circular motion?

A

The displacement vector and force vector are always perpendicular to one another; therefore, no work is done.

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68
Q

Why is potential energy constant in uniform circular motion?

A

The potential energy does not depend on the position of the object around the circle.

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69
Q

The zeroth law of thermodynamics

A

When two objects are both in thermal equilibrium with a third object, they are in thermal equilibrium with one another
No heat is flowing

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70
Q

Closed system

A

Transfers energy

Does not transfer matter

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71
Q

Isolated system

A

Does not transfer energy or matter

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72
Q

Open system

A

Transfers both energy and matter

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73
Q

State function

A

Variables independent of the path taken to achieve a particular equilibrium and are properties of a given system at equilibrium
They may be dependent on one another

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74
Q

Process function

A

Define the path (or how the system got to its state) through variables

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75
Q

Is heat a process or state function?

A

Process

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76
Q

Is work a process or state function?

A

Process

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77
Q

Is pressure a process or state function?

A

State

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78
Q

Is density a process or state function?

A

State

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79
Q

Is temperature a process or state function?

A

State

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80
Q

Is volume a process or state function?

A

State

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81
Q

Is enthalpy a process or state function?

A

State

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82
Q

Is internal energy a process or state function?

A

State

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83
Q

Is Gibbs free energy a process or state function?

A

State

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84
Q

Is entropy a process or state function?

A

State

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85
Q

The first law of thermodynamics (conservation of energy)

A

U = Q - W
In a closed system, the internal energy of a system is equal to the heat put into the system minus the work done by the system

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86
Q

Conduction

A

Heat exchange by direct molecular interactions

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87
Q

Convection

A

Heat exchange by fluid movement

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88
Q

Radiation

A

Heat exchange by electromagnetic waves

Does not depend on matter

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89
Q

What is entropy on a macroscopic level?

A

The tendency towards disorder

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90
Q

What is entropy statistically?

A

The measure of the spontaneous dispersal of energy at a specific temperature, increasing the number of available micro states for a given molecule

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91
Q

What is a system’s entropy’s relationship with the system’s surrounding for any thermodynamic process?

A

The entropy of the system and its surroundings will never decrease; it will always either remain zero or increase.

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92
Q

Specific heat

A

Heat required to bring the liquid to its boiling point

The amount of energy necessary to raise one gram of substance by one degree Celsius or one kelvin

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93
Q

The specific heat of water

A

= 1 cal / (g K)

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94
Q

Heat of transformation

A

During phase change, heat energy causes changes in the particles’ potential energy and energy distribution (entropy), but not kinetic energy
There is no change in temperature

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95
Q

Isothermal processes

A

The temperature is constant, and the change in internal energy is therefore 0

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96
Q

Adiabatic processes

A

No heat is exchanged (Q = 0)

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97
Q

Isobaric processes

A

Pressure is held constant

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98
Q

Isovolumetric (isochoric) processes

A

The volume is held constant and the work done by or on the system is 0

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99
Q

The second law of thermodynamics

A

delta S universe = delta S system + delta S surroundings > 0

In a closed system, energy will spontaneously and irreversibly go from being localized to being spread out (dispersed)

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100
Q

Entropy

A

A measure of how much energy has spread out or how spread out energy has become

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101
Q

Natural process

A

Irreversible process

Can only be reversible under highly controlled conditions

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102
Q

Fahrenheit (F)

A

= 9/5 C + 32

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103
Q

Kelvin (K)

A

= C + 273

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104
Q

Thermal expansion equation (delta L)

A

= alpha L delta T

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105
Q

Volume expansion equation (delta V)

A

= beta V delta T

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106
Q

Heat gained or lost (with temperature change) (q)

A

= m c delta T

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107
Q

Heat gained or lost (phase change) (q)

A

= m L

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108
Q

Entropy and heat (delta S)

A

= Q / T

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109
Q

Why does the internal energy increase in an adiabatic compression process?

A
Q = 0
Compression = work is done on the gas (not by the gas)
Therefore, work done by the gas < 0
U = Q - W
U = 0 - (- W)
U = + W
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110
Q

Heat of fusion

A

Heat required to melt a solid

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111
Q

Heat of vaporization

A

Heat required to boil a liquid

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112
Q

How does gauge pressure (P gauge) relate to the pressure exerted by a column of fluid?

A

Gauge pressure = pressure exerted by a column of fluid + the ambient pressure above the fluid - atmospheric pressure

= P absolute (hydrostatic) - P atmospheric = (Po + p g z) - P atmospheric

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113
Q

Weight of a volume of fluid (Fg)

A

= density * volume * acceleration due to gravity

= p V g

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114
Q

SI unit for pressure

A

Pascals (Pa)

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115
Q

Is density a scalar quantity?

A

Yes

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116
Q

When does gauge pressure = fluid pressure?

A

When the only pressure above the fluid column is atmospheric pressure

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117
Q

Pressure units

A

mmHg, torr, atm and Pa

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118
Q

Cohesion

A

Molecules attaching to one another in a fluid

Give rise to surface tension

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119
Q

Adhesion

A

Molecules attaching to the container surface containing a fluid

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120
Q

What would the meniscus of a liquid that experiences equal cohesive and adhesive forces look like?

A

There would be no meniscus and the liquid surface would be flat

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121
Q

A block is fully submerged 3 inches below the surface of a fluid, but is not experiencing any acceleration. What can be said about displaced volume of fluid and the buoyant force?

A

Displaced volume = volume of the block
Buoyant force = weight of block = weight of fluid displaced
The block and the fluid in which it is immersed must have the same density

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122
Q

To determine the volume of an object by fluid displacement, must the object have a specific gravity greater than 1?

A

No
A fluid with a low specific gravity can be used instead of water to determine volumes of objects that would otherwise float in water

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123
Q

To which side of a hydraulic lift would the operator usually apply a force: the side with the larger cross-sectional area, to the side with the smaller cross-sectional area?

A

Smaller cross-sectional area. Because the pressure is the same on both sides of the lift, a smaller force can be applied on the smaller surface area to generate the desired pressure

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124
Q

Dynamic pressure

A

= 1/2 p v^2
Pressure associated with flow
(like kinetic energy)

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125
Q

Static pressure

A

Pressure associated with position

like potential energy

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126
Q

Pitot tube

A

A device that measures static pressure during flow to calculate speed

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127
Q

Viscosity

A

How thick a fluid is (i.e. the resistance of a fluid to flow)
A measure of the fluid’s internal friction

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128
Q

Laminar flow

A

Flow in which there are no eddies and in which streamlines roughly parallel each other

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129
Q

Turbulence

A

The presence of back flow or current eddies

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130
Q

How do the following concepts relate to one another: Venturi effect, Bernoulli’s equation and continuity equation?

A

Venturi’s effect results from combining Bernoulli’s equation and the continuity equation

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131
Q

What variables does flow rate depend on?

A

Radius of the tube, pressure gradient, viscosity and length of the tube

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132
Q

What does the continuity equation describe?

A

The relationship of flow and cross-sectional area in a tube

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133
Q

What does Bernoulli’s equation describe?

A

The relationship between height, pressure and flow

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134
Q

What does the Venturi effect describe?

A

The direct relationship between cross-sectional area and pressure

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135
Q

Can the continuity equation be applied to human circulation?

A

No, due to the presence of pulses, the elasticity of the vessels and the nature of the pressure gradient
Poiseuille’s law can be used for isolated segments

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136
Q

During exhalation, how does the total resistance of the encountered airways change as air leaves the alveoli to escape the nose and mouth?

A

Total resistance increases as the air exits the body despite the increase in the diameter of the airways. This is because there are fewer airways in parallel with each other.

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137
Q

How does flow in the venae cavae relate to flow in the main pulmonary artery?

A

In theory, there should be equal flow in the venae cavae and the main pulmonary trunk. In reality, the flow in the venae cavae is actually slightly less than that in the pulmonary trunk because some of the blood entering the right side of the heart is actually from cardiac (coronary) circulation, not systemic circulation.

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138
Q

Density (p)

A

= m / V

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139
Q

Specific gravity (SG)

A

= p / (1 g/cm^3)

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140
Q

Pressure (P)

A

= F / A

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141
Q

Absolute (hydrostatic) pressure (P)

A

= Po + p g z
= Pressure at the surface of the fluid (usually atmospheric pressure) + pressure due to the fluid itself

The sum of all the pressures at a certain point within a fluid

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142
Q

Pascal’s principle

A
P = F1 / A1 = F2 / A2
F2 = (F1 A2) / A1

Pressure applied to an incompressible fluid will be distributed undiminished throughout the entire volume of the fluid

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143
Q

Buoyant force (F buoyant)

A

= p fluid V fluid displaced g = p fluid V submerged g

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144
Q

Poiseuille’s law

A

Q = (pi r^4 delta P) / (8 nu L)

Q = flow rate
r = radius of tube
P = pressure
nu = fluid viscosity
L = length of tube

Determines the rate of laminar flow

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145
Q

Critical speed (vc)

A

= (Nr nu) / (p D)

Nr = Reynold's number
nu = fluid viscosity
p = fluid density
D = diameter of tube = 2 r, r = radius of tube
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146
Q

Continuity equation (Q)

A

= v1 A1 = v2 A2

Similar to conservation of mass

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147
Q

Bernoulli’s equation

A

P1 + 1/2 p v1^2 + p g h1 = P2 + 1/2 p v2^2 + p g h2
(Similar to conservation of energy)

States that the sum of static pressure and dynamic pressure will be constant between any two points in a closed system

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148
Q

Can fluids exert perpendicular forces?

A

Yes

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149
Q

Can fluids exert shear forces?

A

No

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150
Q

Is pressure a scalar or vector quantity?

A

Scalar

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151
Q

In which direction does a gas exert pressure on a container?

A

Perpendicular direction

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152
Q

Hydraulic machines

A

Operate based on the application of Pascal’s principle to generate mechanical advantage

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153
Q

Archimedes’ principle

A

Governs the buoyant force
When an object is placed in a fluid, the fluid generates a buoyant force against the object that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object

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154
Q

In which direction does the buoyant force point?

A

Opposite to the direction of gravity

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155
Q

What happens if the maximum buoyant force is larger than the force of gravity on the object?

A

The object will float (only works if the object is less dense than the fluid)

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156
Q

What happens if the maximum buoyant force is smaller than the force of gravity on the object?

A

The object will sink (only works if the object is more dense than the fluid)

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157
Q

Viscous drag

A

Nonconservative force generated by viscosity

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158
Q

When will there be an inverse relationship between pressure and speed (Venturi effect)?

A

Horizontal flow

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159
Q

When will there be a direct relationship between cross-sectional area and pressure exerted on the walls of the tube (Venturi effect)?

A

In a closed system

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160
Q

Venturi effect

A

In horizontal flow, there will be an inverse relationship between pressure and speed
In a closed system, there will be a direct relationship between cross-sectional area and the pressure exerted on the walls of the tube

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161
Q

Is the circulatory system open, closed or isolated?

A

Closed

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162
Q

Does the circulatory system have constant flow?

A

No

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163
Q

What happens to resistance as the cross-sectional area increases?

A

Decreases

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164
Q

What motivates arterial circulation?

A

The heart

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165
Q

Does venous circulation have higher or lower volume than arterial circulation?

A

3 times higher

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166
Q

What motivates venous circulation?

A

Skeletal musculature and expansion of heart

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167
Q

What creates the pressure gradient for the respiratory and circulatory systems?

A

Inspiration and expiration

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168
Q

What is the air speed in alveoli?

A

Zero

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169
Q

Why is the speed of blood in the aorta much higher than the speed of blood through a capillary bed?

A

The cross-sectional area of all the capillaries added together is much greater than the cross-sectional area of the aorta

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170
Q

How does Bernoulli’s equation explain the upward force that permits planes to fly?

A

The speed of airflow is greater over the curved top of the wing, resulting in less pressure on the top of the wing and the production of a new upward force on the wind, in turn resulting in flight

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171
Q

When placed one meter apart from each other, which will experience a greater acceleration: one coulomb of electrons or one coulomb of protons?

A

Electrons will experience the greater acceleration because they are subject to the same force as the protons, but have a significantly smaller mass

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172
Q

Is blood a conductor or an insulator?

A

Conductor

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173
Q

Is hair a conductor or an insulator?

A

Insulator

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174
Q

Is copper a conductor or an insulator?

A

Conductor

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175
Q

Is glass a conductor or an insulator?

A

Insulator

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176
Q

Is iron a conductor or an insulator?

A

Conductor

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177
Q

Is sulfuric acid a conductor or an insulator?

A

Conductor

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178
Q

Is distilled water a conductor or an insulator?

A

Insulator

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179
Q

What is the electric field midway between two negative charges in isolation?

A

The electric field would be zero because the two charges are the same. In this cases, the fields exerted by each charge at the midpoint will cancel out and there will be no electric field.

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180
Q

What direction does a negative electrostatic force point?

A

Towards the source charge (because we use the perspective of a small positive test charge)

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181
Q

What direction does a positive electrostatic force point?

A

Away from the source charge (because we use the perspective of a small positive test charge)

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182
Q

How do distance and charge relate to electrostatic force?

A

Electrostatic force is directly related to the charge and related to distance by an inverse square relationship

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183
Q

How do distance and charge relate to electric field?

A

Electric field is unrelated to test charge but is still related to distance by an inverse square relationship

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184
Q

What creates the electric field: test charge or source charge?

A

Source charge

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185
Q

How does a change in electrical potential energy from -4 J to -7 J reflect on the stability of a system?

A

The system has become more stable

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186
Q

The relationship between electrical potential energy and Coulomb’s law

A

Electric potential energy is Coulomb’s law multiplied by distance

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187
Q

The relationship between gravitational potential energy and the universal law of gravitation

A

Gravitational potential energy is the universal law of gravitation multiplies by distance

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188
Q

How does electrical potential energy change between two particles as the distance between them increases?

A

If both particles have the same charge, the electric potential energy decreases and distance increases. If the two particles have opposite charges, then the electrical potential energy increases as distance increases.

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189
Q

Electrical potential

A

The ratio of a charge’s electrical potential energy to the magnitude of the charge itself

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190
Q

Voltage (potential difference)

A

A measure of the change in electrical potential between two points, which provides an indication of the tendency towards movement of a test charge in one direction or the other

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191
Q

How will a charge that is placed at a point of zero electrical potential move relative to a source charge?

A

A charge will move in such a way to minimize its potential energy. Placing a charge at a point of zero electrical potential does not indicate that there is zero potential difference, so the charge may or may not move (and if it moves, it may move towards or away from the source depending on the sign of the source charge and the test charge).

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192
Q

Are the units of electrical potential energy, electrical potential, potential difference (voltage) different?

A

Yes, electrical potential energy is in joules, while electrical potential and potential difference (voltage) are in volts

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193
Q

Equipotential lines

A

The sets of points within space at which the potential difference between any two points is zero (i.e. they have the same electric potential). This is best visualized as concentric spheres surrounding a source charge.

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194
Q

Electric dipole

A

The separation of charge within a molecule such that there is a permanent or temporary region of equal and opposite charges at a particular distance

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195
Q

What is the voltage between two points on an equipotential line? Will this voltage cause a charge to move along the line?

A

There is no voltage between two points on an equipotential line, so there will be no acceleration along the line. However, there is a potential difference between different sets of equipotential lines, which can cause particles to move and accelerate.

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196
Q

Why is the electrical potential at points along the perpendicular bisector of a dipole 0?

A

The perpendicular bisector of an electric dipole is an equipotential plane that is perpendicular to the axis of the dipole. As such, the equation V = [(k q d) / r^2] cos (theta) is necessarily equal to 0 because cos 90 = 0

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197
Q

What is the behavior of an electric dipole when exposed to an external electric field?

A

A dipole will rotate within an external field such that its dipole moment aligns with the field (angle between dipole and field is 0 degrees)

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198
Q

What are the requirements to have a nonzero electric field?

A

Charge

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199
Q

What are the requirements to have a nonzero magnetic field?

A

Moving charge

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200
Q

What are the requirements to have a nonzero magnetic force?

A

External field acting on a charge moving in any direction except parallel or antiparallel to the external field

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201
Q

Which would experience a larger magnetic field: an object placed five meters to the left of a current carrying wire, or an object placed at the center of a circle with a radius of five meters?

A

The magnetic field created by the current-carrying wires is B = (uo I) / (2 pi r)
The magnetic field created by the loop of wire is B = (uo I) / (2 r)
The magnetic field at the center of the loop must be larger because the denominator in that equation does not include pi

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202
Q

Cross product right hand rule

A

Index in the direction of velocity
Palm in the direction of magnetic field
Thumb in the direction of force

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203
Q

What is the direction of force if velocity points up the page, magnetic field points to the left and the particle is an electron?

A

Into the page

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204
Q

What is the direction of force if velocity points into the page, magnetic field points out of the page and the particle is a proton?

A

None, sin 180 = 0

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205
Q

What is the direction of force if velocity points to the right, magnetic field points into the page and the particle is a Proton?

A

Up the page

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206
Q

What is the direction of force if velocity points out of the page, magnetic field points to the left and the particle is an electron?

A

Up the page

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207
Q

What is the direction of force if velocity points down the page, magnetic field points to the right and the particle is a neutron?

A

None, q = 0

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208
Q

Coulomb’s law

A

Fe = (k q1 q2) / r^2

Give the magnitude of the electrostatic force vector between two charges

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209
Q

Electric field (E)

A

= Fe / q = (k Q) / r^2

The ratio of the force that is exerted on a test charge to the magnitude of that charge

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210
Q

Electric potential energy (U)

A

= (k Q q) / r

The amount of work required to bring the test charge from infinitely far away to a given position in the vicinity of a source charge

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211
Q

Electric potential (from electrical potential energy) (V)

A

= U / q

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212
Q

Electric potential (from source charge) (V)

A

= (k Q) / r

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213
Q

Voltage equation (delta V)

A

= Vb - Va = Wab / q

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214
Q

Electrical potential near a dipole (V)

A

= [(k q d) / r^2] cos (theta)

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215
Q

Dipole moment (p)

A

= q d

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216
Q

Electric field on the perpendicular bisector of a dipole (E)

A

= [1 / (4 pi epsilon o)] (p / r^3)

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217
Q

Torque on a dipole in an electric field (T)

A

= p E sin (theta)

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218
Q

Magnetic field from a straight wire (B)

A

= (uo I) / (2 pi r)

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219
Q

Magnetic field from a loop of wire (B)

A

= (uo I) / (2 r)

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220
Q

Magnetic force on a moving point charge (Fb)

A

= q v B sin (theta)

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221
Q

Magnetic force on a current-carrying wire (Fb)

A

= I L B sin (theta)

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222
Q

SI unit for charge

A

Coulomb

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223
Q

Charge on a proton and an electron

A

1.60e-19 C

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224
Q

Conductor

A

Allow the free and uniform passage of electrons when charged

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225
Q

Insulators

A

Resist movement of charge and will have localized areas of charge that do not distribute over the surface of the material

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226
Q

Where does the electrostatic force vector point?

A

Along the line connecting the centers of the two charges

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227
Q

Does every charge generate an electric field?

A

Yes

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228
Q

Can the electric field exert forces on other charges?

A

Yes

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229
Q

Field lines

A

Represent electric field vectors
Radiate outward from positive source charges
Radiate inward towards negative source charges

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230
Q

In which direction does a positive test charge move?

A

In the direction of field lines

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231
Q

In which direction does a negative test charge move?

A

In the opposite direction of field lines

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232
Q

How does the electrical potential energy of a system increase?

A

When two unlike charges move away from each other or when two like charges move towards each other

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233
Q

How does the electrical potential energy of a system decrease?

A

When two unlike charges move towards each other or when two like charges move further apart

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234
Q

Do different points in the space of an electric field surrounding a source charge have different electrical potential values?

A

Yes

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235
Q

Is voltage path dependent?

A

No

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236
Q

Is voltage a state or process function?

A

State

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237
Q

In which direction do positive test charges move?

A

High potential to low potential

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238
Q

In which direction do negative test charges move>

A

Low potential to high potential

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239
Q

In which direction to equipotential lines point?

A

Perpendicular to electric field lines

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240
Q

Is work done when a charge is moved from one equipotential line to another?

A

Yes, but it is independent of the pathway taken between the lines

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241
Q

Is work done when a charge moves from one point to another on the same equipotential line?

A

No

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242
Q

How is an electric dipole generated?

A

Two charges of opposite signs are separated by a fixed distance d

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243
Q

Will a dipole experience a net torque in an external electric field?

A

Yes, until it is aligned with the field

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244
Q

How are magnetic fields created?

A

Magnets and moving charges

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245
Q

SI unit for magnetic field

A

Tesla

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246
Q

Diamagnetic materials

A

Do not possess unpaired electrons and are slightly repelled by a magnet

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247
Q

Paramagnetic materials

A

Possess unpaired electrons and become weakly magnetic in an external magnetic field

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248
Q

Ferromagnetic materials

A

Possess unpaired electrons and become strongly magnetic in an external magnetic field

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249
Q

In which direction do field lines in magnets point?

A

From the North Pole to the South Pole

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250
Q

Magnetic fields in current-carrying wires

A

Concentric circles surrounding the wire

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251
Q

When do point charges undergo uniform circular motion?

A

In uniform magnetic fields, wherein the centripetal force is the magnetic force acing on the point charge

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252
Q

Lorentz force

A

The sum of the electrostatic and magnetic forces acting on a body

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253
Q

Magnetic field right hand rule

A

Thumb tangent to circle in direction of charge motion

Curled fingers in direction of magnetic field

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254
Q

A dipole is placed in an electric field and is allowed to come to equilibrium. Why does the dipole experience no rotational or linear movement when the direction of the electric field is suddenly reversed?

A

Torque is a function of both force applied and the angle at which it is applied. A dipole placed in an electric field will experience a torque until it comes to rest oriented within the field, at which point the angle between the plane of the dipole and the electric field is 0 degrees. Once this point if reached, inverting the electric field has no impact on the dipole because it will now have an angle of 180 degrees, the sine of which is still 0. Note, however, that is is an unstable setup; any deviation in the dipole from its rest position will immediately result in torque on the dipole and force it to realign with the new field.

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255
Q

Current

A

The movement of positive charge through a conductive material over time from the high-potential end to the low-potential end

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256
Q

Voltage

A

A potential difference between two points

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257
Q

Electromotive force (emf)

A

The potential difference of the voltage source for a circuit, usually a battery

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258
Q

Conductivity

A

The reciprocal of resistance and is a measure of permissiveness to current flow

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259
Q

In a circuit, are the number of electrons entering a point and leaving that point the same?

A

Yes

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260
Q

Is the sum of voltage sources in a circuit always equal to the sum of voltage drops in that circuit?

A

No

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261
Q

Current unit

A

Amperes = C / s

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262
Q

Amperes

A

= C / s

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263
Q

Voltage unit

A

Volts = J / C

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264
Q

Volts

A

= J / C

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265
Q

Electromotive force (emf) unit

A

Volts = J / C

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266
Q

Conductivity unit

A

Siemens (S)

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267
Q

Kirchhoff’s junction rule

A

The number of electrons (currents) entering a point and leaving that same point are the same

I into junction = I leaving junction

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268
Q

How does adding a resistor in series affect the total resistance of a circuit that has resistors in series?

A

Increase total resistance

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269
Q

How does adding a resistor in parallel affect the total resistance of a circuit that has resistors in series?

A

Decrease total resistance

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270
Q

What four physical quantities determine the resistance of resistor?

A

Resistivity, length, cross-sectional area and temperature

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271
Q

How does power relate to current, voltage and resistance?

A

P = I V = I^2 R = V^2 / R

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272
Q

Will the internal resistance of a battery lower the amount of current it can provide?

A

Yes
The internal resistance will lower the available voltage for the circuit. Lowering the available voltage will also lower current for any given resistance.

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273
Q

How does removing a resistor in series affect the total resistance of a circuit that has resistors in series?

A

Decrease total resistance

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274
Q

How does adding a resistor in series affect the total resistance of a circuit that has resistors in series?

A

Increase total resistance

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275
Q

Assuming the plates are attached by a conductive material, how does a capacitor behave after the voltage source has been removed from a circuit?

A

The capacitor discharges, proving a current in the opposite direction of the initial current

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276
Q

How does a dielectric material impact capacitance?

A

Increase capacitance

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277
Q

How does a dielectric material impact voltage?

A

Decrease voltage if the capacitor is isolated when the dielectric is introduced
Constant voltage if the capacitor is in a circuit when the dielectric is introduced because it is dictated by the voltage source

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278
Q

How does a dielectric material impact charge?

A

If the capacitor is isolated, the stored charge will remain constant because there is no additional source of charge
If the capacitor is in a circuit, the stored charge will increase

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279
Q

How does adding a capacitor in series affect the total capacitance of a circuit that has capacitors in series?

A

Decrease total capacitance

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280
Q

How does removing a capacitor in series affect the total capacitance of a circuit that has capacitors in series?

A

Increase total capacitance

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281
Q

How does adding a capacitor in parallel affect the total capacitance of a circuit that has capacitors in series?

A

Increase total capacitance

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282
Q

How does removing a capacitor in parallel affect the total capacitance of a circuit that has capacitors in series?

A

Decrease total capacitance

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283
Q

What physical qualities contribute to the capacitance of a capacitor?

A

Surface area, distance and dielectric constant

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284
Q

What does an ammeter measure?

A

Current

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285
Q

Where is an ammeter placed?

A

In series with the point of interest

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286
Q

What is the ideal resistance for an accurate ammeter reading?

A

0

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287
Q

What does a voltmeter measure?

A

Voltage drop (potential difference)

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288
Q

Where is a voltmeter placed?

A

Parallel with circuit element of interest

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289
Q

What is the ideal resistance for an accurate voltmeter reading?

A

Infinit amount

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290
Q

What does an ohmmeter measure?

A

Resistance

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291
Q

Where is an ohmmeter placed?

A

Two points in series with circuit element of interest

Inserted around a resistive element to measure resistance
Self-powered

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292
Q

What is the ideal resistance for an accurate voltmeter reading?

A

0

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293
Q

Should a voltmeter and an ammeter be placed in the same circuit?

A

They can be

Voltmeters and ammeters are designed to have minimum impact on a circuit, thus they can be used together

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294
Q

Current (I)

A

= Q / delta t

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295
Q

Kirchhoff’s loop rule

A

V source = V drop

In a closed loop, the sum of voltage sources is always equal to the sum of voltage drops

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296
Q

Resistance (R)

A

= (p L) / A

The opposition to the movement of electrons through a material

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297
Q

Ohm’s law

A

V = I R

For a given resistance, the magnitude of the current through a resistor is proportional to the voltage drop across the resistor

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298
Q

Voltage and cell emf (V)

A

= E cell - (I r internal)

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299
Q

Electric power (P)

A

= IV = I^2 R = V^2 / R

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300
Q

Voltage drop across circuit elements (series)

A

V total = V1 + V2 + …

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301
Q

Equivalent resistance (series)

A

R total = R1 + R2 + …

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302
Q

Voltage drop across circuit elements (parallel)

A

V total = V1 = V2 = …

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303
Q

Equivalent resistance (parallel)

A

1 / R total = (1 / R1) + (1 / R2) + …

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304
Q

Capacitance (C)

A

= Q / V

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305
Q

Capacitance based on parallel plate geometry

A

C = epsilon o (A / d)

In parallel plate capacitors, capacitance is determined by the area of the places and the distance between the plates

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306
Q

Electric field in a capacitor (E)

A

= V / d

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307
Q

Potential energy of a capacitor (U)

A

= 1/2 CV^2

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308
Q

Capacitance with a dielectric material (C’)

A

= k C

309
Q

Equivalent capacitance (series)

A

1 / C total = (1 / C1) + (1 / C2) + …

310
Q

Equivalent capacitance (parallel)

A

C total = C1 + C2 + …

311
Q

Can current flow in non-conductive materials?

A

No

Current only flows in conductive materials

312
Q

Metallic conduction

A

Relies on uniform movement of free electrons in metallic bonds

313
Q

Electrolytic conduction

A

Relies on the ion concentration of a solution

314
Q

Insulators

A

Materials that do not conduct current

315
Q

Kirchhoff’s laws

A

Explain conservation of charge and energy

316
Q

Resistor

A

Conductive martial with a moderate amount of resistance that slow down electrons without stopping them

Across each resistor in a circuit, a certain amount of power is dissipated, which is dependent on the current through the resistor and the voltage drop across the resistor

317
Q

Capacitor

A

Has the ability to store and discharge electrical potential energy

318
Q

Dielectric materials

A

Insulators placed between the plates of a capacitor that increase capacitance by a factor equal to the material’s dielectric constant, k

319
Q

Wave speed

A

The rate at which a wave transmits the energy or matter it is carrying
The product of frequency and wavelength

320
Q

Frequency

A

A measure of how often a waveform passes a given point in space
Measured in Hz

321
Q

Angular frequency

A

The same as frequency: a measure of how often a wave form passes a given point in space
Measured in radians per second

322
Q

Period

A

The time necessary to complete a wave cycle

323
Q

Equilibrium position

A

The point with zero displacement in an oscillating system

324
Q

Amplitude

A

The maximal displacement of a wave from the equilibrium position

325
Q

Traveling wave

A

Have nodes and antinodes that move with wave propagation

Have continuously shifting maximum and minimum displacement

326
Q

Standing wave

A

Have defined nodes and antinodes that do not move with wave propagation

327
Q

What happens if two waves that are perfectly in phase collide?

A

The amplitude of the resulting wave is equal to the sum of the amplitudes of the interfering waves

328
Q

Are sound waves transverse or longitudinal waves?

A

Longitudinal waves

329
Q

How does applying a force at the natural frequency of a system change the system?

A

The object will resonate because the force frequency equals the natural (resonant) frequency. The amplitude of the oscillation will increase.

330
Q

What happens if two waves that are perfectly out of phase collide?

A

The amplitude of the resulting wave is the difference of the amplitudes of the interfering waves

331
Q

How is sound produced and transmitted?

A

Sound is produced by mechanical vibrations, generated by solid objects and fluids
Sound is propagated as longitudinal waves in matter

332
Q

To which property of a sound wave does amplitude correspond?

A

Volume (sound level) = intensity

333
Q

To which property of a sound wave does frequency correspond?

A

Pitch

334
Q

If two objects are traveling towards each other, how does the apparent frequency differ from the original frequency?

A

It is larger

335
Q

If two objects are traveling away from each other, how does the apparent frequency differ from the original frequency?

A

It is smaller

336
Q

If one objects is following another, how does the apparent frequency differ from the original frequency?

A

It could be higher, lower or equal to the original frequency depending on the relative speeds of the detector and the source

337
Q

Can sound propagate in a vacuum?

A

No

338
Q

What phenomenon can be detected or treated using ultrasound?

A

Prenatal screening, diagnose gallstones, breast and thyroid masses, and blood clots, needle guidance in biopsy, dental cleaning, treating deep tissue injuries, kidney stones, small tumors, cataracts, etc.

339
Q

Wavelength of a pipe open in both ends (i.e. open pipe) (lambda)

A

= 2 L / n

340
Q

Wavelength of a pipe open in one end (i.e. closed pipe) (lambda)

A

= 4 L / n

341
Q

Wavelength of a pipe closed on both ends (i.e. string) (lambda)

A

= 2L / n

342
Q

Wave speed equation (v)

A

= frequency * wavelength = f * lambda

343
Q

Period equation (T)

A

= 1 / frequency = 1 / f

344
Q

Angular frequency (omega)

A

= 2 pi frequency = (2 pi) / period

= 2 pi f = (2 pi) / T

345
Q

Speed of sound equation (v)

A

= square root (B / rho)

346
Q

Doppler effect (f’)

A

= f [(v +/- vd) / (v -/+ vs)]

347
Q

Intensity (I)

A

= P / A = Power / Area

348
Q

Sound level (beta)

A

= 10 log (I / Io)

349
Q

Change in sound level (beta f)

A

= beta i + 10 log (If / Ii)

350
Q

Frequency of a standing wave in strings and open pipes (f)

A

= n v / 2 L

351
Q

Frequency of a standing wave in closed pipes (f)

A

= n v / 4 L

352
Q

Transverse waves

A

Have oscillations of wave particles perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation

353
Q

Longitudinal waves

A

Have oscillations of wave particles parallel to the direction of wave propagation

354
Q

Displacement in a wave

A

Refers to how far a point is from the equilibrium position, expressed as a vector quantity

355
Q

Amplitude in a wave

A

The magnitude of its maximal displacement

356
Q

Crest

A

The maximum point of a wave (point of most positive displacement)

357
Q

Trough

A

The minimum point of wave (point of most negative displacement)

358
Q

Wavelength in a wave

A

The distance between two crests or two troughs

359
Q

Constructive interference

A

Occurs when waves are exactly in phase with each other

The amplitude of the resultant wave is equal to the sum of the amplitudes of the two interfering waves

360
Q

Destructive interference

A

Occurs when waves are exactly out of phase with each other

The amplitude of the resultant wave is equal to the difference in amplitude between the two interfering waves

361
Q

Partially constructive and partially destructive interference

A

Occur when two waves are not quite perfectly in or out of phase with each other
The displacement of the resultant wave is equal to the sum of the displacements of the two interfering waves

362
Q

How are standing waves produced?

A

By constructive and destructive interference of two waves of the same frequency traveling in opposite directions in the same space

363
Q

Antinodes

A

Points of maximum oscillation

364
Q

Nodes

A

Points where there is no oscillation

365
Q

Resonance

A

The increase in amplitude that occurs when a periodic force is applied at the natural (resonant) frequency of an object

366
Q

Damping (attenuation)

A

A decrease in amplitude (and therefore intensity) over distance and energy is lost due to applied or nonconservative forces

367
Q

Where does sound propagate the fastest?

A

In solids

368
Q

Where does sound propagate the slowest?

A

In gases

369
Q

What happens to the speed of sound as the medium’s density increases?

A

Decreases

370
Q

Doppler effect

A

A shift in perceived frequency of a sound compared to the actual frequency of the emitted sound when the source of the sound and its detector are moving relative to one another

371
Q

How do shock waves (sonic booms) form?

A

When the source is moving at or above the speed of sound

372
Q

In what kind of pipe is the length of the pipe equal to some multiple of half-wavelengths?

A

Strings (pipes closed at both ends) and open pipes (pipes open at both ends)

373
Q

In what kind of pipe is the length of the pipe equal to some odd multiple of quarter-wavelengths?

A

Closed pipes (pipes closed at only one end)

374
Q

How do ultrasound machines calculate distance?

A

Based on the travel time of the reflected sound

375
Q

When do shock waves have the greatest impact?

A

When the source is traveling at exactly the speed of sound

376
Q

Surface area of a sphere

A

= 4 pi r^2

377
Q

Log 100

A

= 2

378
Q

Order the types of electromagnetic radiation from highest energy to lowest energy

A

Gamma-rays > x-rays > ultraviolet > visible light > infrared > microwaves > radio

379
Q

What properties of light follow the same trend as energy?

A

Frequency : as energy increases so does frequency

380
Q

Are light waves longitudinal or transverse waves?

A

Transverse

381
Q

Why are light waves transverse?

A

Because the direction of propagation is perpendicular to the direction of oscillation

382
Q

What are the boundaries of the visible spectrum?

A

400 nm - 700 nm

383
Q

How does the range of the visible spectrum compare to the range of the full electromagnetic spectrum?

A

It is very small since the entire electromagnetic spectrum ranges from 0 to 10^9 m

384
Q

What properties of light follow the opposite tend as energy?

A

Wavelength : as energy increases, wavelength decreases

385
Q

o is positive in a mirror

A

Object is in front of the mirror

386
Q

i is positive in a mirror

A

Image is in front of the mirror (real image)

387
Q

r is positive in a mirror

A

Mirror is concave (converging)

388
Q

f is positive in a mirror

A

Mirror is concave (converging)

389
Q

m is positive in a mirror

A

Image is upright (erect)

390
Q

o is negative in a mirror

A

Object is behind the mirror

391
Q

i is negative in a mirror

A

Image is behind the mirror (virtual image)

392
Q

r is negative in a mirror

A

Mirror is convex (diverging)

393
Q

f is negative in a mirror

A

Mirror is convex (diverging)

394
Q

m is negative in a mirror

A

Image is inverted

395
Q

o is positive in a lens

A

Object is on the same side of lens as light source

396
Q

i is positive in a lens

A

Image is on opposite side of lens from light source (real image)

397
Q

r is positive in a lens

A

Lens is convex (converging)

398
Q

f is positive in a lens

A

Lens is convex (converging)

399
Q

m is positive in a lens

A

Image is upright (erect)

400
Q

o is negative in a lens

A

Object is on opposite side of lens from light source

401
Q

i is negative in a lens

A

Image is on same side of lens as light source

402
Q

r is negative in a lens

A

Lens is concave (diverging)

403
Q

f is negative in a lens

A

Lens is concave (diverging)

404
Q

m is negative in a lens

A

Image is inverted

405
Q

Real image in mirrors

A

Image that is in front of the mirror

406
Q

Concave mirror

A

Converging mirror

407
Q

Virtual image in mirrors

A

Image that is behind the mirror

408
Q

Convex mirror

A

Diverging mirror

409
Q

Real image in lenses

A

Image is on the opposite side of the lens from the light source

410
Q

Convex lens

A

Converging lens

411
Q

Virtual image in lenses

A

Image is on the same side of the lens as the light source

412
Q

Concave lens

A

Diverging

413
Q

Is the incident angle always measured with respect to the normal?

A

Yes

414
Q

Describe the bending of light when moving from a medium with low refractive index to one with high refractive index

A

The light will bend towards the normal

415
Q

Describe the bending of light when moving from a medium with high refractive index to one with low refractive index

A

The light will bend away from the normal

416
Q

Dispersion

A

The tendency for different wavelengths of light to experience different degrees of refraction in a medium, leading to separation of light into the visible spectrum (a rainbow)
Involves the breaking up go polychromatic light into its component wavelengths, because the degree of refraction depends on the wavelength

417
Q

Aberration

A

Whether spherical or chromatic, is the alteration or distortion of an image as a result of an imperfection in the optical system

418
Q

What are the two mathematical relationships between image distance and object distance?

A

1 / f = 1 / o + 1 / i

m = - i / o

419
Q

What happens if the incident angle is larger than the critical angle?

A

Total internal reflection will occur

420
Q

How does the diffraction patter for a single slit differ from a slit with a thin lens?

A

Diffraction through a single slit does not create characteristic fringes when projected on a screen, although the light does spread out. When a lens is introduced into the system, the additional refraction of light causes constructive and destructive interference, creating fringes.

421
Q

What wave phenomenon do diffraction fringes result from?

A

Constructive and destructive interference between light rays

422
Q

How does double-slit diffraction and interference differ from single-slit diffraction?

A

The image formed during double0slit diffraction contains fringes because light rays constructively and destructively interfere. A single slit forms an image of a wide band of light, spread out from its original beam.

423
Q

Are the maxima in diffraction patterns always equidistant between two minima?

A

Yes
Maxima and minima alternate in a diffraction pattern. A maximum is equidistant between two minima, and a minimum is equidistant between two maxima.

424
Q

Plane-polarized light

A

Contains light waves with parallel electric field vectors

425
Q

Circularly polarized light

A

Selects for a given amplitude and has a continuously rotating electric field direction
All the light rays have electric fields with equal intensity

426
Q

How does the application of a policed filter impact the wavelength of light passing through the filter?

A

Plane polarization has no effect on the wavelength, or frequency, or speed of light. Polarization does affect the amount of light passing through medium and light intensity

427
Q

Speed of light from frequency and wavelength (c)

A

= f * lambda

428
Q

Law of reflection

A

Theta 1 = theta 2

429
Q

Optics equation

A

1 / f = 1 / o + 1 / i = 2 / r

430
Q

Magnification (m)

A

= - i / o

431
Q

Index of refraction (n)

A

= c / v

432
Q

Snell’s law

A

n1 sin (theta 1) = n2 sin (theta 2)

433
Q

Critical angle (theta c)

A

= sin^-1 (n2 / n1)

434
Q

Lensmaker’s equation

A

1 / f = (n - 1) (1 / r1 - 1 / r2)

435
Q

Power (P)

A

= 1 / f

436
Q

Focal length of multiple lens system

A

1 / f = 1 / f1 + 1 / f2 + …

437
Q

Power of multiple lens system

A

P = P1 + P2 + …

438
Q

Magnification of multiple lens system

A

m = m1 * m2 * …

439
Q

Positions of dark fringes in slit-lens setup

A

alpha sin (theta) = n * lambda

440
Q

Positions of dark fringes in double-slit setup

A

d sin (theta) = (n + 0.5) * lambda

441
Q

Are electromagnetic waves transverse or longitudinal waves?

A

Transverse

442
Q

Electromagnetic waves

A

Transverse waves that consist of an oscillating electric field and an oscillating magnetic field, perpendicular to one another and to the direction of wave propagation

443
Q

Electromagnetic spectrum

A

The range of frequencies and wavelengths found in electromagnetic waves

444
Q

Violet wavelength

A

400 nm

445
Q

Red wavelength

A

700 nm

446
Q

Reflection

A

The rebounding of incident light waves at the boundary of a medium

447
Q

Law of reflection

A

The incident angle will equal the angle of reflection, as measured from the normal

448
Q

Spherical mirrors

A

Have centers and radii of curvature as well as focal points

449
Q

What kind of images do concave (converging) mirrors produce?

A

Real and inverted OR virtual and upright, depending on the placement of the object relative to the focal point

450
Q

What kind of images do convex (diverging) mirrors produce?

A

Virtual and upright images

451
Q

What kind of images do plane mirrors produce?

A

Virtual and upright images behind the mirror (these images are the same size as the objects)

452
Q

Plane mirrors

A

Have infinite radii or curvature

453
Q

Refraction

A

The bending of light as it passes from one medium to another

454
Q

What changes the speed of light?

A

Index of refraction

455
Q

What causes refraction?

A

The change in the speed of light as it passes from one medium into another

456
Q

What does the amount of refraction depend on?

A

Wavelength

457
Q

What causes dispersion of light through a prism?

A

The fact that the amount of refraction depends on the wavelength of the light involved

458
Q

Snell’s law (the law of refraction)

A

There is an inverse relationship between the index of refraction and sine of the angle of refraction (measured from the normal)

459
Q

Total internal reflection

A

Occurs when light cannot be refracted out of a medium and is instead reflected back inside the medium. This happens when light moves from a medium with a higher index of refraction to a medium with a lower index of refraction with a high incident angle

460
Q

Critical angle

A

The minimum incident angle at which total internal reflection occurs

461
Q

Where is the focal point in a thin symmetrical lens?

A

On both sides of the lens

462
Q

What kind of images do convex (converging) lenses produce?

A

Real and inverted OR virtual and upright

463
Q

What kind of images do concave (diverging) lenses produce?

A

Virtual and upright images

464
Q

When is it important to use the lenasmaker’s equation?

A

When working with lenses of non-negligible thickness

465
Q

Diffraction

A

The bending and spreading out of light waves as they pass through a narrow slit
It may produce a large central light fringe surrounded by alternating light and dark fringes with the addition of a lens

466
Q

Does interference support the wave theory of light?

A

Yes

467
Q

Young’s double-slit experiment

A

Shows the constructive and destructive interference of waves that occur as light passes through parallel slits, resulting in minima (dark fringes) and maxima (bright fringes) of intensity

468
Q

How is plane-polarized light created?

A

By passing unpolarized light through a polarizer

469
Q

How is circularly polarized light created?

A

By exposing unpolarized light to special pigments or filters

470
Q

Where to plane mirrors project the images?

A

As far away as the object is

471
Q

In concave mirror, if the object is placed at the center of the mirror’s curvature, what is the object distance?

A

2f

472
Q

What changes as light rays travel from one medium to another?

A

The wavelength and speed

473
Q

What remains constant as light rays travel from one medium to another?

A

The frequency and period

474
Q

A source of light passes through three plane polarizers. The first two polarizers are in the same direction, while the third is rotated 90 degrees with respect to the second polarizer. What happens to the light at the third polarizer?

A

It will not pass through the third polarizer because all the light rays will be oriented in the direction dictated by the first and second polarizers.

475
Q

What does the degree of refraction depend on?

A

Wavelength

476
Q

Polarization

A

The alignment of the electric field component of light waves

477
Q

Where is a real image projected in a convex lens system?

A

Farther than the focal point

478
Q

Where is a virtual image projected in a convex lens system?

A

Closer than the focal point (i.e. between the lens and the focal point)

479
Q

For a single mirror or lens system, is the real image inverted or erect?

A

Inverted

480
Q

For a single mirror or lens system, is the virtual image inverted or erect?

A

Erect

481
Q

Sin (45 degrees)

A

= 0.707 = square root of 2 / 2

482
Q

What happens to the light passing through a narrow opening if the opening narrows?

A

The light waves spread even more

483
Q

What happens to the light passing through a narrow opening and a lens if the opening narrows?

A

The central maximum (the brightest and most central fringe) becomes wider

484
Q

What happens to the light passing through a narrow opening if a lens is introduced?

A

A pattern consisting of alternating bright and dark fringes can be observed

485
Q

How does the work function relate to the energy necessary to emit an electron from a metal?

A

The work function describes the minimum amount of energy necessary to emit an electron. Any additional energy from a photon will be converted to excess kinetic energy during the photoelectric effect

486
Q

What does the threshold frequency depend upon?

A

The chemical composition of a material (that is, the identity of the metal)

487
Q

What electrical phenomenon results from the application of the photoelectric effect?

A

The accumulation of moving electrons creates a current during the photoelectric effect

488
Q

What determines the absorption spectrum of a single atom?

A

The energy differences between ground-state electrons and higher-level electron orbits determine the frequencies of light a particular material absorbs (its absorption spectrum)

489
Q

Can small changes in chemical structure (e.g. protonation, deprotonation, change in oxidation state, change in bond order) impact light absorption and emission patterns?

A

Yes

490
Q

During which electronic transitions is photon emission most common?

A

When electrons transition from a higher-energy state to a lower-energy state

491
Q

What causes fluorescence?

A

Energy transition

492
Q

Fluorescence

A

A special stepwise photon emission in which an excited electron returns to the ground state through one or more intermediate excited states
Each step has less energy than the absorbed light and is within the visible range of the electromagnetic spectrum

493
Q

When can materials release photons of light in the visible range?

A

When the energy transition is smaller than the initial energy absorbed

494
Q

Strong nuclear force

A

One of the four primary forces

Provides the adhesive force between the nucleons (protons and neutrons) within the nucleus

495
Q

Mass defect

A

The apparent loss of mass when nucleons come together, as some of the mass is converted into energy during nuclear fusion

The difference between the mass of the unbounded nucleons and the mass of the bonded nucleons within the nucleus

496
Q

Binding energy

A

Energy holding nucleons together

497
Q

What are the four fundamental forces of nature?

A

Gravitational force, electrostatic force, stone nuclear forces and weak nuclear forces

498
Q

How does the mass defect relate to the binding energy?

A

There is a transformation of nuclear matter to energy with a resultant loss of matter
E = m c^2

499
Q

Do both nuclear fission and nuclear fusion release energy?

A

Yes

500
Q

What is the size of reactant particles in nuclear fission?

A

Large (actinides and lanthanides)

501
Q

What is the size of reactant particles in nuclear fusion?

A

Small (H and He)

502
Q

What is the change in nuclear mass during a reaction with nuclear fission?

A

Decrease

503
Q

What is the change in nuclear mass during a reaction with nuclear fusion?

A

Increase

504
Q

What kind of particle does alpha decay emit?

A

He (2, 4)

505
Q

What kind of particle does beta-negative decay emit?

A

1 electron (in the products) and antineutrino

506
Q

What kind of particle does beta-positive decay emit?

A

1 positron (in the products) and neutrino

507
Q

What kind of particle does gamma decay emit?

A

Neutron, gamma ray

508
Q

What kind of particle does electron capture emit?

A

1 electron absorbed from the inner shell (in the reactants)

509
Q

delta Z of alpha decay

A

-2

510
Q

delta Z of beta-negative decay

A

+1

511
Q

delta Z of beta-positive decay

A

-1

512
Q

delta Z of gamma decay

A

0

513
Q

delta Z of electron capture

A

-1

514
Q

delta A of alpha decay

A

-4

515
Q

delta A of beta-netative decay

A

0

516
Q

delta A of beta-positive decay

A

0

517
Q

delta A of gamma decay

A

0

518
Q

delta A of electron capture

A

0

519
Q

How many half-lives are necessary for the complete decay of a radioactive sample?

A

Because the amount remaining is cut in half after each half-life, the portion remaining will never quite reach zero. This is mostly a theoretical consideration; “all” of a sample is considered to have decayed after 7 to 8 half-lives.

520
Q

Which type of nuclear decay could be detected in an atomic absorption spectrum?

A

Because gamma radiation produces electromagnetic radiation (rather than nuclear fragments), it can be detected on an atomic absorption spectrum

521
Q

Energy of a photon of light (E)

A

= h f

522
Q

Maximum kinetic energy of an electron in the photoelectric effect (K max)

A

= h f - W

523
Q

Work function (W)

A

= h fT

524
Q

Mas defect and energy (E)

A

= m c^2

525
Q

Nuclear decay (general form)

A

A. A’
X —>. Y + emitted decay particle
Z. Z’

526
Q

Alpha decay

A

A. A - 4. 4
X —>. Y + alpha
Z. Z - 2. 2

527
Q

Beta-negative decay

A

A. A
X —>. Y + beta-
Z. Z + 1

528
Q

Beta-positive decay (positron emission)

A

A. A
X —>. Y + beta+
Z. Z - 1

529
Q

Gamma decay

A

A. A
X* —>. X + gamma
Z. Z

530
Q

Electron capture

A

A. A
X + e- —>. Y
Z. Z - 1

531
Q

Rate of nuclear decay

A

delta n / delta t = - lambda n

532
Q

Exponential decay (n)

A

= no e^(- lambda t)

533
Q

Decay constant (lambda)

A

= ln 2 / T1/2 = 0.693 / T1/2

534
Q

ln 2

A

= 0.693

535
Q

Photoelectric effect

A

The ejection of an electron from the surface of a metal in response to light

Occurs when a photon of sufficiently high energy stakes an atom with a sufficiently low work function

536
Q

Threshold frequency

A

The minimum light frequency necessary to eject an electron from a given metal

537
Q

Work function

A

The minimum energy necessary to eject an electron from a given metal

538
Q

What does the value of the work function depend on>

A

The metal used

539
Q

Planck’s constant (h)

A

= 6.626e-34 m^2 kg / s

540
Q

What happens to the kinetic energy the ejected electron can posses if the energy of the incident photon above the work function increases?

A

Increases

541
Q

Current

A

Created by the ejected electrons

542
Q

What is the magnitude of current proportional to?

A

The intensity of the incident beam of light

543
Q

Bohr model of the atom

A

Electron energy levels are stable and discrete, corresponding to specific orbits
An electron can jump from a lower-energy to a higher-energy orbit by absorbing a photon of light of the same frequency as the energy difference between the orbitals
When an electron falls from a higher-energy to a lower-energy orbit, it emits a photon of light of the same frequency as the energy difference between the orbits

544
Q

How may the absorption spectra be impacted?

A

By small changes in molecular structure

545
Q

Nuclear binding energy

A

The amount of energy that is released when nucleons bind together

546
Q

Nucleons

A

Protons and electrons

547
Q

How is the atom’s nucleus stabilized?

A

With more binding energy per nucleon release

548
Q

Do unbounded constituents have more or less energy than bonded constituents?

A

More

549
Q

Do unbounded constituents have more or less energy than bonded constituents?

A

More

550
Q

Fusion

A

Occurs when small nuclei combine into larger nuclei

551
Q

Fission

A

Occurs when a large nucleus splits into smaller nuclei

552
Q

Radioactive decay

A

The loss of small particles from the nucleus

553
Q

Alpha decay

A

The emission of an alpha particle, which is a helium nucleus

554
Q

Beta-negative decay

A

The decay of a neutron into a proton, with emission of an electron and an antineutrino

555
Q

Beta-positive decay (positron emission)

A

The decay of a proton into a neutron, with emission of a positron and a neutrino

556
Q

Gamma decay

A

The emission of a gamma ray, which converts a high energy nucleus into a more stable nucleus

557
Q

Electron capture

A

The absorption of an electron from the inner shell that combines with a proton in the nucleus to form a neutron

558
Q

Half-life

A

The amount of time required for half of a sample of radioactive nuclei to decay

559
Q

Exponential decay

A

The rate at which radioactive nuclei decay is proportional to the number of nuclei that remain

560
Q

Does ultraviolet light have higher or lower frequency than visible light?

A

Higher

561
Q

Does ultraviolet light have higher or lower wavelength than visible light?

A

Lower

562
Q

Does ultraviolet light have higher or lower energy than visible light?

A

Higher

563
Q

How is the number of incident photons affected with respect to intensity?

A

It increases as the intensity increases (provided that the frequency of the light remains above the threshold)

564
Q

How is the number of electrons ejected affected with respect to the number of incident photons?

A

It increases as the number of incident photons increases (provided that the frequency of the light remains above the threshold)

565
Q

How is current affected with respect to the number of electrons ejected?

A

It increases as the number of electrons ejected increases (provided that the frequency of the light remains above the threshold)

566
Q

The frequency of light will determine the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons under what conditions?

A

Only when the frequency of light is above the threshold frequency

567
Q

The intensity of the light will determine the number of electrons ejected per time (the current) under what conditions?

A

Only when the frequency of light is above the threshold frequency

568
Q

Mass defect calculation

A

= the mass of each of the protons and neutrons in the unbound state added together minus the mass of the formed (bound) nucleus

569
Q

Binding energy (E)

A

= m c^2

570
Q

A graph of an exponential decay process is created. The y-axis is the natural logarithm of the ratio of the number of intact nuclei at a given time to the number of intact nuclei at time t=0. The x-axis is time. What does the slope of such a graph represent?

A
  • lambda

The expression:
n = no e^(-lambda t)

is equivalent to:
n / no = e^(-lambda t)

Taking the natural logarithm of both sides, we get:
ln (n / no) = -lambda t

From this expression, plotting ln (n / no) v. t will give a straight line with a slope of - lambda

571
Q

When rounding two numbers containing decimals, in which direction should each number go for multiplication?

A

Adjust the two decimals in opposite directions : if one number is rounded up, the other number should be rounded down

572
Q

When rounding two numbers containing decimals, in which direction should each number go for division?

A

Adjust the two decimals in the same direction : if one number is rounded up, the other number should also be rounded up

573
Q

Simplify: (a + b)^2

A

a^2 + 2ab + b^2

574
Q

Simplify: (a^2 + 2a^2) / 5a^3

A

3a^2 / 5a^3 = 3 / 5a

575
Q

Simplify: log a (a)

A

1

576
Q

Simplify: log (a^3) - log (a)

A

log (a^3 / a) = log (a^2) = 2 log a

577
Q

Estimate: square root (392)

A
Answer is between:
square root (361) and square root (400)

Answer is between 19 and 20

= square root (4) * square root (49) * square root (2)
= 2 * 7 * 1.4
= 14 * 1.4
= 19.6 (actual 19.8)

578
Q

Estimate: log (7,426,135,420)

A

= log (7.4e9)
= 9 + 0.74
= 9.74 (actual 9.87)

579
Q

During vector addition, how is the angle of the resultant calculated?

A

The value of a trigonometric function calculated from the dimensions of the resultant vector is used in the inverse tangent function to calculate the resultant vector angle

580
Q

How is sine calculated given the dimensions of a right triangle?

A

Opposite / Hypotenuse

581
Q

How is cosine calculated given the dimensions of a right triangle?

A

Adjacent / Hypotenuse

582
Q

How is tangent calculated given the dimensions of a right triangle?

A

Opposite / Adjacent

583
Q

Is it only the angles in right triangles that have characteristic values of the trigonometric functions?

A

No
While calculating the values or sine, cosine and tangent is more complicated in a triangle that does not contain a right angle, all possible angles do still have characteristic trigonometric values

584
Q

How can angles be calculated?

A

With inverse trigonometric ratios

585
Q

What does it mean for two variables to have a direct relationship?

A

As one variable increases, so does the other

As one variable decreases, so does the other

586
Q

What does it mean for two variables to have an inverse relationship?

A

As one variable increases, the other decreases

As one variable decreases, the other increases

587
Q

Substitution

A
  1. Solve one equation for one variable in terms of the other

2. Substitute this expression into the other equation

588
Q

Setting equations equal

A

(A modified version of substitution)

Solve both equations for the same variable and set them equal to each other

589
Q

Elimination

A
  1. Multiply or divide one (or both) equations so that the coefficient in front of one of the variables is the same in both equations
  2. Add or subtract the equations to eliminate one of the variables
590
Q

x^0

A

= 1

591
Q

x^a * x^b

A

= x^(a+b)

592
Q

x^a / x^b

A

= x^(a-b)

593
Q

(x^a)^b

A

= x^(ab)

594
Q

(x/y)^a

A

= x^a / y^a

595
Q

x^-a

A

= 1 / x^a

596
Q

x^(a/b)

A

= b square root (x^a)

597
Q

square root 2

A

= 1.4

598
Q

square root 3

A

= 1.7

599
Q

log a (1)

A

= 0

600
Q

log a (a)

A

= 1

601
Q

log (a x b)

A

= log a + log b

602
Q

log (a / b)

A

= log a - log b

603
Q

log (a^b)

A

= b log (a)

604
Q

log (1 / a)

A

= - log (a)

605
Q

log (x)

A

= ln (x) / 2.303

606
Q

log (n x 10^m)

A

= m + 0.n

607
Q

sin (theta)

A

= opposite / hypotenuse = a / c

= cos (90 - theta)

608
Q

cos (theta)

A

= adjacent / hypotenuse = b / c

609
Q

tan (theta)

A

= opposite / adjacent = a / b

610
Q

Fahrenheit (F)

A

= 9/5 C + 32

611
Q

Kelvin (K)

A

= C + 273

612
Q

In measurements, is the last digit considered a significant figure?

A

No

613
Q

Significant figures in addition

A

The answer must have the same number of decimal places as the number with the fewest number of decimal places

614
Q

Significant figures in subtraction

A

The answer must have the same number of decimal places as the number with the fewest number of decimal places

615
Q

Significant figures in multiplication

A

The answer must have the same number of significant figures as the number with the fewest number of significant figures

616
Q

Significant figures in division

A

The answer must have the same number of significant figures as the number with the fewest number of significant figures

617
Q

What is the inverse of exponents?

A

Logarithms

618
Q

What is the base of natural logarithms?

A

e

619
Q

What is the base of common logarithms?

A

10

620
Q

2^3 = 8 in log form

A

log base 2 of 8 = 3

621
Q

pH equation

A

= pKa + log ([A-] / [HA])

622
Q

log (1)

A

= 0

623
Q

How can the value of a natural logarithm be converted to the value of a common logarithm?

A

The normal logarithm is divided by a constant

624
Q

|sin (theta) x cos (theta)|

A

|sin (theta)| + |cos (theta)|

625
Q

sin (theta) / cos (theta)

A

= tan (theta)

626
Q

tan (90)

A

= undefined

627
Q

What forces are acting on an object in uniform circular motion?

A

Centripetal force

628
Q

Errors or biases during publication of results are most likely to affect which stages of the scientific method?

A

Errors during publication of current studies adversely affect the quality of future experimentation by providing an incomplete or flawed research base. Without accurate resources, subsequent hypotheses are likely to be flawed.

629
Q

An experiment with an improperly tared (zeroed) mass balance would suffer from what type of error?

A

Inaccuracy error

630
Q

What is the purpose of a control during experiments?

A

Controls in experiments help to establish causality by demonstrating that the outcome does not occur in the absence of an intervention

631
Q

What characteristics of experimental research would be reduced in the absence of a control?

A

Controls are used to keep the manipulations of different systems as similar as possible, or as a known standard against which to judge an experimental manipulation. WiWithout controls, it is far more difficult to establish causality.

632
Q

Can a researcher who fails to demonstrate temporality still provide evidence for a causal relationship by satisfying the rest of Hill’s criteria?

A

No
Temporality is the only necessary criterion from Hill’s criteria. If temporality is not satisfied, the relationship cannot be said to be causal. The addition of other criteria increases the probability of a causal relationship, assuming that temporality has not been invalidated.

633
Q

Observational research

A

Does not involve manipulation of the subject’s environment

634
Q

Experimental research

A

Involves manipulation of the subject’s environment

635
Q

Bias

A

A systematic (unidirectional) error that occurs during the selection of subjects or the measurement and collection of data

636
Q

Confounding

A

An error that occurs during data analysis, in which an association is erroneously drawn between two variables because of a shared connection to a third variable

637
Q

Which is more conclusive: observational or experimental research?

A

Experimental research

638
Q

Which is more subjective: observational or experimental research?Less conclusive and more subjective than experimental research

A

Observational research

639
Q

Autonomy in medical ethics

A

The right of an individual to make decisions on his or her own behalf and to have those decisions be respected

640
Q

Respect for persons in research ethics

A

Requires honesty, confidentiality, informed consent, and freedom from coercion

641
Q

During study design, a company wishing to market a drug to severe diabetics proposes to enroll only mild diabetics. Which principle of research ethics is the company violating? Are there any research concerns in this proposed study besides ethics?

A

The company is violating the principle of justice by choosing participants that are not part of the target population. The company is also introducing selection bias.

642
Q

Coercive influence

A

The subject loses autonomy to make the decision to participate

643
Q

Monetary compensation

A

Does not impact the decision to participate

644
Q

What are some populations that must receive special consideration for coercion?

A

Children, pregnant women and prisoners

645
Q

Internal validity

A

The tendency of the same experiment to produce the same results when repeated, and provides support for causality

The identification of causality in a study between the independent and dependent variables

646
Q

External validity (i.e. generalizability)

A

The ability to take the information generated during research and apply it to a larger group

647
Q

Why might small samples provide insufficient information about a population?

A

Small samples are subject to more random variation than large samples and is more susceptible to being affected by outliers

648
Q

What qualities must a study have to provide justification for an intervention?

A

A study must have not statistical significant and clinical significance to provide justification for an intervention. A study without statistical significance may be the result of random chance, whereas one without clinical significance will not impact patients

649
Q

Scientific method

A

A series of eight steps for the generation of new knowledge

  1. Generate a testable question
  2. Gather data and resources
  3. Form a hypothesis
  4. Collect new data
  5. Analyze the data
  6. Interpret the data and existing hypothesis
  7. Publish and verify results
650
Q

FINER method

A

Assess the value of a research question on the basis of whether or not it is:

Feasible
Interesting
Novel
Ethical
Relevant
651
Q

Controls

A

Used to correct for any influences of an intervention that are not part of the model

652
Q

Types of controls

A

Positive or negative controls

653
Q

Positive controls

A

Ensure that a change in the dependent variable occurs when expected

654
Q

Negative controls

A

Ensure that no change in the dependent variable occurs when none is expected

655
Q

Types of errors in measurement

A

Accuracy (validity) and precision (reliability)

656
Q

Accuracy (validity)

A

The quality of approximating the true value

657
Q

Precision (reliability)

A

The quality of being consistent in approximations

658
Q

What kind of research is one consisting of human subjects?

A

Observational

659
Q

Cohort studies

A

Record exposures throughout time and then assess the rate of a certain outcome

660
Q

Cross-sectional studies

A

Assess both exposure and outcome at the same point in time

661
Q

Case-control studies

A

Assess outcome status and then assess for exposure history

662
Q

What is causality in observational studies supported by?

A

Hill’s criteria

663
Q

Hill’s criteria

A
  1. Temporality
  2. Strength
  3. Dose-response relationships
  4. Consistency
  5. Plausibility
  6. Consideration of alternative explanations
  7. Experiments
  8. Specificity
  9. Coherence
664
Q

Forms of error

A

Bias, confounding or random error

665
Q

Bias

A

Systematic and results from a problem during data collection

666
Q

Selection bias

A

The sample differs from the population

667
Q

What is the most common bias in human subjects research?

A

Selection bias

668
Q

Detection bias

A

Arises from education professionals using their knowledge in an inconsistent way by searching for an outcome disproportionately in certain populations

669
Q

Hawthorn effect

A

Results from changes in behavior - by the subject, experimenter or both - that occur as a result of the knowledge that the subject is being observed

670
Q

Confounding

A

An error in data analysis that results from a common connection of both the dependent and independent caiciables to a third variable

671
Q

Medical ethics

A

Refers to the four principles of:

Beneficence
Nonmaleficence
Respect for patient autonomy
Justice

672
Q

How were research ethics established?

A

By the Belmont Report

673
Q

Research ethics

A

Respect for persons
Justice
Beneficence

674
Q

Respect for persons in research ethics

A

Autonomy, informed consent and confidentiality

675
Q

Justice in research ethics

A

Which study questions are with pursuing and which subjects to use

676
Q

Beneficence in research ethics

A

Do the most food with the least harm

Do not perform an intervention without equipoise

677
Q

Equipoise

A

A lack of knowledge about which arm of the research study is better for the subject

678
Q

Populations

A

All of the individuals who share a set of characteristics

679
Q

Parameters

A

Population data

680
Q

Samples

A

A subset of a population that are used to estimate population data

681
Q

Statistics

A

Sample data

682
Q

How is an intervention supported?

A

By statistical and clinical significance

683
Q

Statistical significance

A

The low likelihood of the experimental findings being due to chance

684
Q

Clinical significance

A

The usefulness or importance of experimental findings to patient care or patient outcomes

685
Q

What would establish a class causal link: an observational study or an experiment?

A

Experiment

686
Q

What happens when data is off in a systematic way (reads at a value that is not a true value)?

A

Bias (lack of validity or accuracy)

687
Q

Does unreliable data suffer from random or systemic error?

A

Random

688
Q

Does confounding arise from errors in data analysis or data collection?

A

Data analysis

689
Q

Does invalid data lead to bias or confounding?

A

Bias

690
Q

What types of data sets are best analyzed using the mean as a measure of central tendency?

A

A data set with relatively normal distributing (not one that has outliers)

691
Q

Is the mean of a sample considered a parameter?

A

No; the mean of a sample is a statistic; the mean of a population is a parameter

692
Q

How do the mean, median and mode compare for a right-skewed distribution?

A

The mean of a right (positively) skewed distribution is to the right of the median, which is to the right of the mode

693
Q

Can data that do not follow a normal distribution be analyzed with measures of central tendency and measures of distribution?

A

Any distribution can be mathematically or procedurally transformed to follow a normal distribution by virtue of the central limit theory. Regardless, a distribution that is not normal may still be analyzed with these measures.

694
Q

What is the difference between normal or skewed distributions, and bimodal distributions?

A

Bimodal distributions have two peaks whereas normal or skewed distributions have only one.

695
Q

How to determine outliers from the interquartile range?

A

Outliers are data points more than 1.5 x IQR below Q1 or above Q3

696
Q

How to determine outliers from the standard deviation?

A

Outliers are data points more than 3 standard deviations above or below the mean

697
Q

How do range and standard deviation generally relate to one another mathematically?

A

Where the data is not available, the range can be approximated as four times the standard deviation

698
Q

Why would the average difference from the mean be an inappropriate measure of distribution?

A

The average distance from the mean will always be zero. This is why, in calculations of standard deviation, we always square the distance from the mean and then take the square root at the end - it forces all of the values to be positive numbers, which will not cancel out to zero.

699
Q

Assume the likelihood of having a male child is equal to the likelihood of having a female child. In a series of ten live births, the probability of having at least one boy is equal to:

A

The probability of having all girls is (0.5)^10
The probability of having at least one boy is:
1 - (0.5)^10 => 99.90%

700
Q

Independence

A

A condition of events wherein the outcome of one event has no effect on the outcome of the other

701
Q

Mutual exclusivity

A

A condition wherein two outcomes cannot occur simultaneously

702
Q

Exhaustiveness

A

There are no other possible outcomes

703
Q

Hypothesis tests

A

Used to validated or invalidate a claim that two populations are different, or that one population differs from a given parameter

We calculate a p-value and compare it to a chosen significance level (alpha) to conclude if an observed difference between two populations (or between a population and the parameter) is significant or not

Use a known distribution to determine whether a hypothesis of no difference (the null hypothesis) can be rejected

704
Q

Confidence intervals

A

Used to determine a potential range of values for the true mean of a population

A range of values about a sample mean that are used to estimate the population mean (A wider interval is associated with a higher confidence level, 95% is common)

705
Q

If the p-value is greater than alpha in a given statistical test, what is the outcome of the test?

A

We fail to reject the null hypothesis

706
Q

How is the p-value calculated during a hypothesis test?

A

After the test statistic is calculated, a computer program or table is consulted to determine the p-value of the statistic

707
Q

Is power the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when the alternative hypothesis is true for the population?

A

Yes

708
Q

What type of data relationship is least likely to require transformation into a semilog or log-log plot?

A

Linear relationships

709
Q

Pros of a pie chart

A

Easily constructed

Useful for categorical data with a small number of categories

710
Q

Pros of a bar graph

A

Multiple organization strategies

Good for large categorical data sets

711
Q

Pros of a box plot

A

Information-dense

Can be useful for comparison

712
Q

Pros of a map

A

Provide relevant and integrated geographic and demographic information

713
Q

Pros of a graph

A

Provide information about relationships

Useful for estimation

714
Q

Pros of a table

A

Categorical data can be presented without comparison

Does not require estimation for calculations

715
Q

Cons of a pie chart

A

Easily overwhelmed with multiple categories

Difficult to estimate values with circles

716
Q

Cons of a bar graph

A

Axes are often misleading because of sizable breaks

717
Q

Cons of a box plot

A

May not highlight outliers or mean value of a data set

Only useful for numerical data

718
Q

Cons of a map

A

May only be used to represent at most two variables coherently

719
Q

Cons of a graph

A

Axis labels and logarithmic scales require careful interpretation

720
Q

Cons of a table

A

Disorganized or unrelated data may be presented together

721
Q

Exponential curve

A

Has a steep component

Has horizontal symptoms and become flat on one side

722
Q

Parabolic curve

A

Has a steep component

Is symmetrical and has steep components on both sides of a center point

723
Q

Is statistical significance a sufficient criteria to enact policy change?

A

No : There must be practical (clinical) as well as statistical significance for a conclusion to be useful

724
Q

Are two variables that are causally related also correlated with each other?

A

Yes

725
Q

Median position

A

= (n + 1) / 2

726
Q

Interquartile range (IQR)

A

= Q3 - Q1

727
Q

Standard deviation

A

= square root ([{x1 - mean}^2 + {x2 - mean}^2 + …] / [n - 1])

728
Q

Probability of two independent events co-occurring

A

P(A ∩ B) = P(A and B) = P(A) x P(B)

729
Q

Probability of at least one event occurring

A

P(A U B) = P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A and B)

730
Q

Measures of central tendency

A

Provide a single value representation for the middle of a group of data

731
Q

Arithmetic mean (average)

A

Measure of central tendency that equally weighs all values

It is most affected by outliers

732
Q

Median

A

The value that lies in the middle of the data set

Fifty percent of data points are above and below the median

733
Q

Mode

A

The data point that appears most often; there may be multiple (or zero) modes in a data set

734
Q

How are distributions classified?

A

By measures of central tendency and measures of distribution

735
Q

Normal distribution

A

Symmetrical
The mean, median and mode are all the same
68% of data points occur within one standard deviation of the mean
95% of data points occur within two standard deviations of the mean
99% of data points occur within three standard deviation s of the mean

736
Q

Standard distribution

A

A normal distribution with a mean of zero and a standard deviation of one
Used for calculations
68% of data points occur within one standard deviation of the mean
95% of data points occur within two standard deviations of the mean
99% of data points occur within three standard deviation s of the mean

737
Q

Skewed distribution

A

Has differences in its mean, median and mode

738
Q

What is the direction of a skew?

A

The direction of the tail of the distribution

739
Q

Bimodal distribution

A

Has multiple peans, although not necessarily multiple modes

740
Q

Range

A

The difference between the largest and smallest values in a data set

741
Q

Interquartile range

A

The difference between the value of the third quartile and first quartile
Used to determine outliers

742
Q

Standard deviation

A

A measure of variability about the mean

Used to determine outliers

743
Q

Outliers

A

May be a result of true population variability, measurement error or a non-normal distribution

744
Q

When are procedures for handling outliers formulated?

A

Before the beginning of a study

745
Q

Does the probability of an independent event change based on the outcome of another event?

A

No

746
Q

Does the probability of a dependent event change based on the outcome of another event?

A

Yes

747
Q

Mutually exclusive outcomes

A

Outcomes that cannot occur simultaneously

748
Q

Null hypothesis

A

A hypothesis of no difference

749
Q

How is a finding determined to be statistically significant?

A

By the comparison of a p-value to the selected significance level (alpha)

750
Q

Common significance level (alpha)

A

0.05

751
Q

Pie chart (circle chart)

A

Used to compare categorical data

752
Q

Bar chart

A

Used to compare categorical data

753
Q

Histogram

A

Used to compare numerical data

754
Q

Box plot (box-and-whisker plot)

A

Used to compare numerical data

755
Q

Maps

A

Used to compare up to two demographic indicators

756
Q

How can linear, semilog and log-log plots be distinguished?

A

By their axes

757
Q

Which plot is easiest when trying to find the slope?

A

Linear

758
Q

Tables

A

May contain related or unrelated categorical data

759
Q

How are correlation and causation linked?

A

By Hill’s criteria

760
Q

In a sample of hospital patients, the mean age is found to be significantly lower than the median. What is the shape of the distribution?

A

Skewed to the left : The mean is to the left of the median, which implies that the tail of the distribution is on the left side

761
Q

A hypothesis test was correctly conducted and the experimenter failed to reject the null hypothesis. What must be true?

A

The p-value was greater than alpha and a type I error did not occur :: Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected :: If we failed to reject the null hypothesis, then the p-value must be greater than the significance level

762
Q

A 95% confidence interval will fall within what distance from the mean?

A

+/- 2 standard deviations

763
Q

Which measure of distribution is most useful for determining probabilities?

A

Standard deviation because it is the most closely linked to the mean of a distribution and can be used to calculate p-values, which are probabilities (specifically, p-values are the probability that an observed difference between two populations is due to chance)

764
Q

What does low power in a study mean?

A

If a study has low power, it is more difficult to get results that are statistically significant.

765
Q

What corresponds to the probability of a type I error?

A

Significance level (alpha)

766
Q

Type I error (alpha)

A

The probability of mistakenly rejecting the null hypothesis

We set the type I error level by selecting a significance level (alpha)

767
Q

Power (1 - beta)

A

Correctly rejecting the null hypothesis

768
Q

Confidence

A

Correctly failing to reject the null hypothesis

769
Q

Type II error (beta)

A

Mistakenly not rejecting the null hypothesis