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Behavioral Science Flashcards

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1
Q

Franz Gall

A

Phrenology

Associated development of trait with growth of its relevant part of the brain

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2
Q

Pierre Flourens

A

Extirpation/ablation

Concluded that different brain regions have specific functions

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3
Q

William James

A

“Father of American Psychology”

Pushed for importance of studying adaptations of the individual to his or her environment

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4
Q

John Dewey

A

Credited with the landmark article on functionalism

Argues for studying the entire organism as a whole

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5
Q

Paul Broca

A

Correlated pathology with specific brain regions, such as speech production from Broca’s area

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6
Q

Hermann von Helmoltz

A

Measured speed of a nerve impulse

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7
Q

Sir Charles Sherrington

A

Inferred the existence of synapses

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8
Q

Hindbrain functions

A

Balance, motor coordination, breathing, digestion, general arousal processes (sleeping and waking); “vital functioning”

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9
Q

Midbrain functions

A

Receives sensory and motor information from the rest of the body; reflexes to auditory and visual stimuli

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10
Q

Forebrain functions

A

Complex perceptual, cognitive and behavioral processes; emotion and memory

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11
Q

Methods used for mapping the brain

A

Brain lesions, extirpation, stimulation or recording with electrodes (cortical mapping, single-cell electrode recordings, electroencephalogram [EEG]) and regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF)

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12
Q

Basal ganglia

A

Smoothen movements and help maintain postural stability

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13
Q

Cerebellum

A

Coordinated movement

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14
Q

Cerebral cortex

A

Complex perceptual, cognitive and behavioral processes

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15
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Maintains homeostasis

Hunger and thirst; emotion

Controls the release of pituitary hormones through the hypophyseal portal system that connects it to the anterior pituitary

Releases neurotransmitters that affect mood and arousal

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16
Q

Inferior and superior colliculi

A

Sensorimotor reflexes

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17
Q

Limbic system

A

Emotion and memory

The primary nervous system component involved in experiencing emotion

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18
Q

Medulla oblongata

A

Vital function (breathing, digestion)

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19
Q

Reticular formation

A

Arousal and alertness

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20
Q

Thalamus

A

Sensory information relay station

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21
Q

Frontal lobe

A

Executive function, impulse control, long-term planning (prefrontal cortex), motor function (primary motor cortex), speech production (Broca’s area)

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22
Q

Parietal lobe

A

Sensation of touch, pressure, temperature and pain (somatosensory cortex); spatial processing, orientation and manipulation

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23
Q

Occipital lobe

A

Visual processing

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24
Q

Temporal lobe

A

Sound processing (auditory cortex), speech perception (Wernicke’s area), memory and emotion (limbic system)

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25
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Voluntary muscle control

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26
Q

Dopamine

A

Smooth movements and steady posture

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27
Q

Endorphins/enkephalins

A

Natural pain killer

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28
Q

Epinephrine/norepinephrine

A

Wakefulness and alertness, fight-or-flight response

Associated with sympathetic nervous system

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29
Q

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)/glycine

A

Brain “stabilizer”

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30
Q

Glutamate

A

Brain excitation

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31
Q

Serotonin

A

Mood, sleep, eating, dreaming

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32
Q

Pituitary (the master gland)

A

Triggers hormone secretion in many other endocrine glands

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33
Q

Adrenal medulla

A

Produces adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

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34
Q

Adrenal cortex

A

Produces cortisol, testosterone and estrogen

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35
Q

Cortisol

A

Stress hormone

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36
Q

Testes

A

Produce testosterone

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37
Q

Who is the sample group in a family study?

A

Family of genetically related individuals

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38
Q

Who is the control group in a family study?

A

Unrelated individuals (general population)

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39
Q

Who is the sample group in a twin study?

A

Monozygotic (MZ, identical) twins

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40
Q

Who is the control group in a twin study?

A

Dizygotic (DZ, fraternal) twins

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41
Q

Who is the sample group in an adoption study?

A

Adoptive family (relative to adopted child)

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42
Q

Who is the control group in an adoption study?

A

Biological family (relative to adopted child)

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43
Q

Neurulation

A

How the nervous system develops

Notochord: stimulates overlying ectoderm to fold over –> Neural tube topped with neural crest cells form

Occurs when a furrow is produced from ectoderm overlying the notochord. That furrow consists of the neural groove and two neural folds. As the neural folds grow, the cells at their leading edge are called neural crest cells. When the neural folds fuse, the neural tube is created which will then form the CNS.

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44
Q

Primitive reflex: rooting

A

Turns head towards direction of any object touching the cheek

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45
Q

Primitive reflex: moro

A

In response to sudden head movement, arms extend and slowly retract; baby usually cries

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46
Q

Primitive reflex: babinski

A

Extension of big tow and fanning of other toes in response to brushing the sole of the foot

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47
Q

Primitive reflex: grasping

A

Holding onto any object placed in the hand

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48
Q

What are the two main themes that dictate the stages of motor development in early childhood?

A

Gross motor development proceeds from head to toe and from the core to the periphery

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49
Q

Reflex arcs

A

Use the ability of interneurons in the spinal cord to relay information to the source of stimuli while simultaneously routing it to the brain

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50
Q

Peripheral nervous system (PNS) devisions

A

Divided into somatic and autonomic nervous systems

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51
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

Divided into parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems

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52
Q

Hindbrain parts

A

Cerebellum, medulla oblongata and reticular formation

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53
Q

Midbrain parts

A

Inferior and superior colliculi

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54
Q

Forebrain parts

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, limbic system and cerebral cortex

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55
Q

Limbic system parts

A

Septal nuclei, amygdala, thalamus, hypothalamus, prefrontal cortex and hippocampus

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56
Q

Septal nuclei

A

Involved with feelings of pleasure, pleasure-seeking behavior and addiction

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57
Q

Amygdala

A

Controls fear and aggression
Involved with attention and emotions
Helps interpret facial expressions
Part of the intrinsic memory system for emotional memory

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58
Q

Hippocampus

A

Consolidates memories and communicates with other parts of the limbic system through an extension called the fornix

Creates long-term explicit memories (episodic memories)

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59
Q

Which hemisphere is dominant for language?

A

Left hemisphere

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60
Q

What does the somatic nervous system use the neurotransmitter acetylcholine for?

A

To move muscles

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61
Q

What do the PNS and CNS use the neurotransmitter acetylcholine for?

A

Alertness

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62
Q

Is epinephrine a neurotransmitter or a hormone?

A

Hormone

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63
Q

Is norepinephrine a neurotransmitter or a hormone?

A

Neurotransmitter

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64
Q

Ovaries

A

Release estrogen

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65
Q

Family studies

A

Look at the relative frequency of a trait within a family compared to the general population

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66
Q

Twin studies

A

Compare concordance rates between monozygotic (identical) and dizygotic (fraternal) twins

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67
Q

Adoption studies

A

Compare similarities between adopted children and their adoptive parents, relative to similarities with their biological parents

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68
Q

What does the neural tube become?

A

CNS

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69
Q

What do the neural crest cells become?

A

Spread out throughout the body, differentiating into many different tissues

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70
Q

Primitive reflexes

A

Exist in infants and should disappear with age

Rooting, moro, babinski and grasping

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71
Q

How do social skills develop in children?

A

Shift from parent-oriented to self-oriented to other-oriented

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72
Q

Right hemisphere functions

A

Sense of direction

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73
Q

Left hemisphere functions

A

Learning a new language, reading

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74
Q

Catecholamines

A

Epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine

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75
Q

Pineal gland

A

Produces melatonin

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76
Q

Melatonin

A

Controls the body’s circadian rhythm

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77
Q

Schizophrenia

A

Associated with high levels of dopamine, or high sensitivity to dopamine (i.e. high levels of dopaminergic transmission)

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78
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

Associated with destruction of the dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia

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79
Q

How does the hippocampus communicate with the limbic system?

A

Through the fornix

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80
Q

What is the pathway for a stimulus to reach conscious perception?

A

Sensory receptor –> afferent neurons –> sensory ganglion –> spinal cord –> brain (projection areas)

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81
Q

Hair cell

A

Sense motion of fluid in the inner ear

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82
Q

Nociceptor

A

Sense painful or bothersome physical stimuli

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83
Q

Olfactory receptor

A

Sense volatile chemicals

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84
Q

Osmoreceptor

A

Sense changes in blood concentration

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85
Q

Photoreceptor

A

Sense electromagnetic radiation in the visible range

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86
Q

Taste receptor

A

Sense dissolved chemicals

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87
Q

Thermoreceptor

A

Sense changes in temperature

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88
Q

Absolute threshold

A

The minimum stimulus that can evoke an action potential in a sensory receptor

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89
Q

Threshold of conscious perception

A

The minimum stimulus that can evoke enough action potentials for a long enough time that the brain perceives the stimulus and it comes into awareness

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90
Q

Difference threshold (just-noticeable difference) (jnd)

A

The minimum difference between two stimuli that can be detected by the brain

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91
Q

Weber’s law

A

Just-Noticeable differences are best expressed as a ratio, which is constant over most of the range of sensory stimuli

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92
Q

Signal detection theory

A

The threshold to sense a stimulus, given obscuring internal and external stimuli
Refers to the effects of non sensory factors, such as experiences, motives and expectations, on perception of stimuli

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93
Q

How does sensory adaptation affect a difference threshold?

A

Adaptation generally raises the difference threshold for a sensory response; as one becomes used to small fluctuations in the stimulus, the difference in stimulus required to evoke a response must be larger

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94
Q

Cornea

A

Gathers and focuses the incoming light

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95
Q

Pupil

A

Allows passage of light from the anterior to posterior chamber

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96
Q

Iris

A

Controls the size of the pupil

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97
Q

Ciliary body

A

Produces aqueous humor; accommodation of the lens

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98
Q

Canal of Schlemm

A

Drains aqueous humor

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99
Q

Lens

A

Refracts the incoming light to focus it on the retina

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100
Q

Retina

A

Detects images

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101
Q

Sclera

A

Provides structural support

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102
Q

Visual pathway

A

Cornea –> pupil –> lens –> vitreous –> retina (rods and cones –> bipolar cells –> ganglion cells) –> optic nerve –> optic chiasm –> optic tract –> lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus –> visual radiations through the parietal and temporal lobes –> visual cortex (occipital lobe)

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103
Q

Parallel processing

A

The ability to simultaneously analyze color, shape and motion of an object and to integrate this information to create a cohesive image of the world
Calls on memory systems to compare a visual stimulus to past experiences to help determine the object’s identity

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104
Q

In feature detection, what type of cell is responsible for color?

A

Cones

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105
Q

In feature detection, what type of cell is responsible for shape?

A

Parvocellular cells

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106
Q

In feature detection, what type of cell is responsible for motion?

A

Magnocellular cells

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107
Q

What structures are used to detect linear acceleration?

A

Utricle and saccule

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108
Q

What structures are used to detect rotational acceleration?

A

Semicircular canals

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109
Q

Auditory pathway

A

Pinna –> external auditory canal –> tympanic membrane –> malleus –> incus –> stapes –> oval window –> perilymph in cochlea –> basilar membrane –> hair cells –> vestibulocochlear nerve –> brainstem –> medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) of thalamus –> auditory cortex (temporal lobe)

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110
Q

How does the organization of the cochlea indicate the pitch of an incoming sound?

A

The basilar membrane is tonotopically organized: high-pitched sounds cause vibrates at the base of the cochlea, whereas low-pitched sounds cause vibrations at the apex of the cochlea

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111
Q

Olfactory pathway

A

Nostril –> nasal cavity –> olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves) on olfactory epithelium –> olfactory bulb –> olfactory tract –> higher-order brain regions, including the limbic system

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112
Q

What is the difference between the sense of taste and the sense of smell?

A

Smell is sensitive to volatile or aerosolized compounds

Taste is sensitive to dissolved compounds

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113
Q

The four main modalities of somatosensation

A

Pressure, vibration, pain and temperature

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114
Q

Bottom-up (data-driven) processing

A

Requires each component of an object to be interpreted through parallel processing and feature detection and then integrated into one cohesive whole

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115
Q

Top-down (conceptually driven) processing

A

Starts with the whole object and, through memory, creates expectations for the components of the object, with little attention to detail

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116
Q

Components of Gestalt principle

A

Proximity, similarity, good continuation, subjective contours, closure and prägnanz

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117
Q

Law of proximity in Gestalt principle

A

Components close to one another tend to be perceived as a unit

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118
Q

Law of similarity in Gestalt principle

A

Components that are similar (in color, shape, size) tend to be grouped together

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119
Q

Law of good continuation in Gestalt principle

A

Components that appear to follow in the same pathway tend to be grouped together; abrupt changes in form are less likely than continuation of the same pattern

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120
Q

Subjective contours in Gestalt principle

A

Edges or shapes that are not actually present can be implied by the surrounding objects (especially if good continuation is present)

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121
Q

Law of closure in Gestalt principle

A

A space enclosed by a contour tends to be perceived as a complete figure; such figures tend to be perceived as more complete (or closed) than they really are

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122
Q

Prägnanz in Gestalt principle

A

Perceptual organization will always be as regular, simple and symmetric as possible

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123
Q

Sensation

A

The conversion, or transduction, of physical, electromagnetic, auditory and other information from the internal and external environment into electrical signals in the nervous system

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124
Q

Perception

A

The processing of sensory information to make sense of its significance

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125
Q

Sensory receptors

A

Nerves that respond to stimuli and trigger electrical signals

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126
Q

What are sensory neurons associated with?

A

Sensory ganglia

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127
Q

Sensory ganglia

A

Collections of cell bodies outside the CNS

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128
Q

Projection areas

A

Receive sensory stimuli and further analyze the sensory input

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129
Q

Types of sensory receptors

A

Photoreceptors, hair cells, nociceptors, thermoreceptors, osmoreceptors, olfactory receptors and taste receptors

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130
Q

What do signal detection experiments do?

A

They allow us to look at response bias

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131
Q

How is a signal detection experiment carried out?

A

A stimulus may or may not be given, and the subject is asked to state whether or not the stimulus was given

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132
Q

What are the four possible outcomes of a signal detection experiment?

A

Hits, misses, false alarms or correct negatives

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133
Q

What are the two muscles in the iris?

A

Dilator pupillae and constrictor pupillae

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134
Q

How is the lens held in place?

A

Suspensory ligaments connected to ciliary muscle

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135
Q

Rods

A

Detect light and dark

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136
Q

The three forms of cones

A

Short wavelength, medium wavelength and long wavelength

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137
Q

Cones

A

Detect colors

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138
Q

Macula

A

Area of the retina that mostly contains cones

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139
Q

Fovea

A

The center of the macula and contains only cones

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140
Q

Where do rods and cones synapse?

A

On bipolar cells

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141
Q

Where do bipolar cells synapse?

A

On ganglion cells

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142
Q

Which cells integrate signals from ganglion cells and perform edge-sharpening?

A

Horizontal and amacrine cells

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143
Q

What supports the bulk of the eye?

A

Vitreous, sclera and choroid

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144
Q

Optic chiasm

A

Contains fibers crossing from the nasal side of the retina (temporal visual fields) of both eyes

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145
Q

Parvocellular cells

A

Detect shape

Have high spatial resolution and low temporal resolution

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146
Q

Magnocellular cells

A

Detect motion

Have low spatial resolution and high temporal resolution

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147
Q

Outer ear parts

A

Pinna (auricle), external auditory canal and tympanic membrane

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148
Q

Middle ear parts

A

Ossicles

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149
Q

Ossicles

A

Malleus (hammer), incus (anvil) and stapes (stirrup)

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150
Q

How is the middle ear connected to the nasal cavity?

A

Eustachian tube

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151
Q

Inner ear parts

A

Bony labyrinth and membranous labyrinth

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152
Q

What is the bony labyrinth filled with?

A

Perilymph

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153
Q

What is the membranous labyrinth filled with?

A

Endolymph

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154
Q

Membranous labyrinth parts

A

Cochlea, utricle, saccule and semicircular canals

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155
Q

Cochlea

A

Detects sound

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156
Q

Utricle

A

Detects linear acceleration

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157
Q

Saccule

A

Detects linear acceleration

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158
Q

Semicircular canals

A

Detect rotational acceleration

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159
Q

Where does sound information project?

A

Superior olive and inferior colliculus

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160
Q

Superior olive

A

Localizes sound

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161
Q

Inferior colliculus

A

Involved in the startle reflex

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162
Q

Pheromones

A

Chemicals given off by animals that have an effect on social, foraging and sexual behavior in other members of that species

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163
Q

Taste

A

The detection of dissolved compounds by tastebuds in papillae

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164
Q

Five modalities of taste

A

Sweet, sour, salty, bitter and umami (savory)

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165
Q

Two-point threshold

A

The minimum distance necessary between two points of stimulation on the skin such that the points will be felt as two distinct stimuli

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166
Q

Physiological zero

A

The normal temperature of the skin to which objects are compared to determine if they feel “warm” or “cold”

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167
Q

Gate theory of pain

A

Pain sensation is reduced when other somatosensory signals are present

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168
Q

Kinesthetic sense (proprioception)

A

The ability to tell where one’s body is in three-dimensional space

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169
Q

Is bottom-up (data-driven) processing fast or slow?

A

Slow

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170
Q

Is bottom-up (data-driven) processing more or less prone to mistakes?

A

Less

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171
Q

Is top-down (conceptually driven) processing fast or slow?

A

Fast

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172
Q

Is top-down (conceptually driven) processing more or less prone to mistakes?

A

More

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173
Q

Perceptual organization

A

Refers to our synthesis of stimuli to make sense of the world, including integration of depth, form, motion and constancy

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174
Q

Gestalt principles

A

Ways that brain can infer missing parts of a picture within a picture is incomplete

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175
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

Taking away a bad thing to encourage behavior

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176
Q

Positive punishment

A

Adding a bad thing to stop behavior

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177
Q

Why does a person eat less food if he or she is finishing each course separately rather than interrupting the main course several times by eating side dishes?

A

Eating each course of a meal before moving on to the next causes habituation; each bite causes less pleasurable stimulation, so people feel less desire to keep eating.
Mixing up the courses of a meal causes dishabituation for taste, which would cause people to eat more overall.

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178
Q

The three modes of information coding

A

Semantic, acoustic and visual

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179
Q

The strongest form of information coding

A

Semantic coding

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180
Q

The weakest form of information coding

A

Visual coding

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181
Q

Maintenance rehearsal

A

The repetition of information to keep it within short-term memory for near-immediate use

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182
Q

Elaborative rehearsal

A

The association of information to other stored knowledge

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183
Q

In terms of recall, why might it be a bad idea to study for a test while listening to music?

A

Because one will be taking the test in a quiet room, studying under similar circumstances will aid recall due to context effects.
Music may also compete for attention, reducing one’s ability to focus on the study materials.

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184
Q

What are some factors that might cause eyewitness courtroom testimony to be unreliable?

A

The manner in which questions are asked
The nature of information shared with the witness by police, lawyers and other witnesses following the event
The misinformation effect
Source-monitoring error
Amount of time elapsed between the event and the trial
Watching crime drama, the news or witnessing similar events can cause source-monitoring error

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185
Q

Which is a more effective way to move information from short-term to long-term memory: maintenance rehearsal or elaborative rehearsal?

A

Elaborative rehearsal

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186
Q

Neuroplasticity

A

The ability of the brain to form new connections rapidly

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187
Q

How does neuroplasticity change during life?

A

The brain is most plastic in young children and plasticity quickly drops off after childhood

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188
Q

Removing weak neural connections

A

Pruning

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189
Q

Strengthening memory connections through increased neurotransmitter release and receptor density

A

Long-term potentiation

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190
Q

Habituation

A

The process of becoming used to a stimulus

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191
Q

Dishabituation

A

Can occur when a second stimulus intervenes, causing a desensitization to the original stimulus

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192
Q

Associative learning

A

A way pairing together stimuli and responses, or behaviors and consequences

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193
Q

Classical conditioning

A

An unconditioned stimulus that produces an instinctive, unconditioned response is paired with a neutral stimulus. With repetition, the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus that produces a conditioned response

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194
Q

Operant conditioning

A

Behavior is changed through the use of consequences

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195
Q

Reinforcement

A

Increases the likelihood of a behavior

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196
Q

Punishment

A

Decreases the likelihood of a behavior

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197
Q

Schedule of reinforcement

A

Affects the rate at which the behavior is performed

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198
Q

The four schedules of reinforcement

A

Fixed ration, fixed interval, variable ratio and variable interval

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199
Q

Behavior learned through which schedule of reinforcement is hardest to break?

A

Variable ratio

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200
Q

Observational learning (modeling)

A

The acquisition of behavior by watching others

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201
Q

Encoding

A

The process of putting new information into memory

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202
Q

Types of encoding

A

Automatic and effortful

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203
Q

Which kinds of memory are transient and based on neurotransmitter activity?

A

Sensory memory and short-term memory

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204
Q

Which kind of memory requires short-term memory, attention and executive function to manipulate information?

A

Working memory

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205
Q

Which kind of memory requires elaborative rehearsal and is the result of increased neuronal connectivity?

A

Long-term memory

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206
Q

Types of long-term memory

A

Explicit (declarative) memory and implicit (non-declarative) memory

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207
Q

Explicit (declarative) memory

A

Stores facts and stories

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208
Q

Implicit (non-declarative) memory

A

Stores skills and conditioning effects

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209
Q

How are facts stored?

A

Via semantic networks

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210
Q

Is recognition of information stronger or weaker than recall?

A

Stronger

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211
Q

What is retrieval of information based on?

A

Priming

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212
Q

Priming

A

Interconnected nodes of the semantic network

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213
Q

Disorders that cause memory loss

A

Alzheimer’s disease, Korsakoff’s syndrome, agnosia, decay, and interference

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214
Q

Are memories subject to influence by outside information and mood during the time of encoding or recall?

A

Both

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215
Q

What do learning and memory rely on?

A

Changes in brain chemistry and physiology, the extent of which depends on neuroplasticity, which decreases as we age

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216
Q

Long-term potentiation

A

Responsible for the conversion of short-term to long-term memory
It is the strengthening of neuronal connections resulting from increased neurotransmitter release and adding of receptor sites

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217
Q

Generalization

A

The process by which similar stimuli can produce the same conditioned response

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218
Q

Avoidance learning

A

A type of negative reinforcement in which a behavior is increased to prevent an unpleasant future consequence

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219
Q

Extinction

A

A decreased response to a conditioned stimulus when it is no longer paired with an unconditioned stimulus

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220
Q

Punishment

A

Leads to decreased behaviors in operant conditioning

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221
Q

Fixed-interval schedules

A

The desired behavior is rewarded the first time it is exhibited after the fixed interval has elapsed

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222
Q

Behavior pattern in fixed-ratio and fixed-interval schedules

A

No immediate response after the reward is given

Behavior increases as the subject gets close to receiving the reward

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223
Q

How are complicated, multistage behaviors taught?

A

Through shaping

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224
Q

Controlled processing

A

Requires active attention to the information being encoded

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225
Q

Association of words on a list to a pre-constructed set of ideas

A

Method-of-loci and peg-word mnemonics

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226
Q

Method-of-loci

A

Associate items with locations

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227
Q

Peg-word

A

Use images associated with numbers

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228
Q

Partial-report procedures

A

The individual is asked to recall a specific portion of the stimulus
Very accurate
Only lasts for a short period of time
Studies sensory (specifically iconic) memory

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229
Q

Characteristics of short-term memory

A

Serial position effect

7 +/- 2 rule

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230
Q

What do elderly individuals have the most trouble remembering?

A

Time-based prospective memory

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231
Q

Time-based prospective memory

A

Remembering to do an activity at a particular time

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232
Q

Steps of information processing

A

Encoding, storage and retrieval

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233
Q

An elderly man is taken to his doctor by his daughter. His daughter says that during the past two days, he has been speaking to his wife who has been deceased for four years. Prior to that, he was completely normal. The elderly man most likely has:

A

Delirium

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234
Q

Piaget’s four stags of cognitive development

A

Sensotimotor, preoperational, concrete operational and formal operational

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235
Q

Sensorimotor stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development

A

Focuses on manipulating environment for physical needs; circular reactions; ends with object permanence

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236
Q

Preoperational stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development

A

Symbolic thinking, egocentrism and centration

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237
Q

Concrete operational stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development

A

Understands conservation and the feelings of others; can manipulate concrete objects logically

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238
Q

Formal operational stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development

A

Can think abstractly and problem-solve

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239
Q

A child plays with a tool set, noting that a nail can only be hit with a hammer. When a friend suggests that the handle of a screwdriver can be used to hit a nail, the child passionately objects. This is an example of:

A

Functional fixedness

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240
Q

A doctor uses a flow chart to treat a patient with sepsis. Given its use in problem-solving, a flowchart is an example of a(n):

A

Algorithm

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241
Q

A patient in a mental health facility believes that the sky is pink. Despite several trips outside, the patient still declares the sky is pink. Which psychological principle does this represent?

A

Brief perseverance

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242
Q

Availability heuristic

A

Used for making decisions based on how easily similar instances can be imagined

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243
Q

Representativeness heuristic

A

Used for making decisions based on how much a particular item or situation fits a given prototype or stereotype
Involves categorization and classification based on how well an individual example fits its category

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244
Q

EEG waves while awake

A

Beta and alpha

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245
Q

EEG waves during stage 1 of sleep

A

Theta

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246
Q

EEG waves during stage 2 of sleep

A

Theta

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247
Q

EEG waves during stage 3 of sleep

A

Delta

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248
Q

EEG waves during stage 4 of sleep

A

Delta

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249
Q

EEG waves during REM sleep

A

Mostly beta

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250
Q

Features of being awake

A

Able to perceive, process, access information and express that information verbally

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251
Q

Stage 1 of sleep

A

Light sleep and dozing

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252
Q

Stage 2 of sleep

A

Sleep spindles and K complexes

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253
Q

Stage 3 of sleep

A

Slow-wave sleep; dreams; declarative memory consolidation; sleep disorders occur in this stage

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254
Q

Stage 4 of sleep

A

Slow-wave sleep; dreams declarative memory consolidation; sleep disorders occur in this stage

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255
Q

Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep (i.e. paradoxical sleep)

A

The mind appears awake physiologically dreams; procedural memory consolidation; body is paralyzed

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256
Q

Which two hormones are most associated with maintaining circadian rhythms?

A

Melatonin and cortisol

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257
Q

Dyssomnia

A

The duration or timing of sleep is disturbed

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258
Q

Parasomnia

A

Abnormal behaviors during sleep

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259
Q

What are sleep spindles and K complexes features of?

A

Stage 2 of sleep

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260
Q

When do dreams occur?

A

Stages 3, 4 and REM of sleep

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261
Q

When is the body paralyzed during sleep?

A

REM sleep

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262
Q

Examples of dyssomnia

A

Insomnia, narcolepsy and sleep apnea

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263
Q

Examples of parasomnia

A

Night terrors and sleep walking (somnambulism)

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264
Q

Somnambulism

A

Sleep walking

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265
Q

Drugs that increase GABA activity in the brain

A

Alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepines and marijuana

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266
Q

Drugs that increase dopamine activity in the brain

A

Amphetamines, cocaine ecstasy (MDMA)

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267
Q

Drugs that increase norepinephrine activity in the brain

A

Amphetamines, cocaine ecstasy (MDMA)

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268
Q

Drugs that increase serotonin activity in the brain

A

Amphetamines, cocaine ecstasy (MDMA)

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269
Q

Structures in the mesolimbic reward pathway

A

Nucleus accumbens, medial forebrain bundle and ventral tegmental area

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270
Q

What is the neurotransmitter used in the mesolimbic reward pathway?

A

Dopamine

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271
Q

Ecstacy (MDMA)

A

Designer amphetamine that has hallucinogenic properties

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272
Q

Controlled (effortful) processing

A

Used when maintaining undivided attention on a task

Used for new or complex actions

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273
Q

Automatic processing

A

Used for less critical stimuli in divided attention

Used for familiar or repetitive actions

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274
Q

What is the function of the “filter” in selective attention?

A

It permits us to focus on one set of stimuli while scanning other stimuli in the background for important information (such as our name, or significant change in the environment)

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275
Q

Milestones of language development at the age 9 to 12 months

A

Babbling

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276
Q

Milestones of language development at the age 12 to 18 months

A

Increase of about one word per month

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277
Q

Milestones of language development at the age 18 to 20 months

A

“Explosion of language” and combining words (two-word sentences)

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278
Q

Milestones of language development at the age 2 to 3 years

A

Longer sentences of three or more words

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279
Q

Milestones of language development at the age 5 years

A

Language rules largely mastered

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280
Q

What is the primary motivation of tigger for language development according to the nativist (biological) perspective

A

An innate ability to pick up language via the language acquisition device

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281
Q

What is the primary motivation of tigger for language development according to the learning (behaviorist) perspective

A

Operant conditioning with reinforcement by parents and caregivers

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282
Q

What is the primary motivation of tigger for language development according to the social interactionist perspective

A

A desire to communicate and act socially

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283
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

Difficulty producing language, with hesitance and great difficulty coming up with words

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284
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

Fluent, but includes nonsensical sounds and words devoid of meaning: language comprehension is lost

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285
Q

Conduction aphasia

A

Difficulty repeating speech, with intact speed production and comprehension

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286
Q

Stanford-Binet intelligence quotient (IQ)

A

= (mental age / chronological age) 100

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287
Q

Informational processing model

A

States that the brain encodes, stores and retrieves information must like a computer

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288
Q

What is early cognitive development limited by?

A

Brain maturation

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289
Q

Factors that influence cognitive development

A

Culture, genes, environment and brain maturation

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290
Q

Biological factors that affect cognition

A

Organic brain disorders, genetic and chromosomal conditions, metabolic derangements and drug use

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291
Q

Problem-solving

A

Requires identification and understanding of the problem, generation of potential solutions, testing of potential solutions and evaluation of results

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292
Q

Mental set

A

A pattered of approach for a given problem

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293
Q

Functional fixedness

A

The tendency to use objects only in the way they are normally utilized, which may create barriers to problem-solving

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294
Q

Types of problem-solving

A

Trial-and-error, algorithms, deductive reasoning and inductive reasoning

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295
Q

Deductive reasoning

A

Deriving conclusions from general rules

Drawing conclusions by integrating different pieces of evidence

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296
Q

Inductive reasoning

A

Deriving generalizations from evidence

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297
Q

Heuristics

A

Shortcuts or rules of thumb used to make decisions

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298
Q

Biases

A

Exist when an experimenter or decision-maker is unable to objectively evaluate information

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299
Q

Indution

A

A “gut feeling” regarding a particular decision

Can often be attributed to experience with similar situations

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300
Q

Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences

A

Proposes seven areas of intelligence including: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, visual-spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal and intrapersonal

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301
Q

What are variations in intellectual ability attributed to?

A

Environmental factors, education and genetics

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302
Q

States of consciousness

A

Alterness, sleep, dreaming and altered states of consciousness

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303
Q

Sleep cycle

A

Approximately 90 minutes for adults
Stage 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 3 - 2 - REM
Stage 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - REM
REM becomes more frequent towards the morning

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304
Q

Hypnosis

A

A state of consciousness in which individuals appear to be in control of their normal faculties but are in a highly suggestible state
Used for pain control, psychological therapy, memory enhancement, weight loss and smoking cessation

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305
Q

Meditation

A

Involves quoting of the mind and is often used for relief of anxiety

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306
Q

Depressants

A

Alcohol, barbiturates and benzodiazepines

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307
Q

What is the effect of depressants on the brain?

A

They promote or mimic GABA activity

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308
Q

Stimulants

A

Amphetamines, cocaine and ecstasy

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309
Q

What is the effect of stimulants on the brain?

A

Increase dopamine, norepinephrine and serotonin concentration at the synaptic cleft

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310
Q

Opiates and opioids

A

Heroin, morphine, opium and prescription pain medications such as oxycodone and hydrocodone

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311
Q

What is the effect of opiates and opioids?

A

Can cause respiratory distress

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312
Q

Hallucinogens

A

Lysergic acid diethyl amide (LSD), peyote, mescaline, ketamine and psilocybin-containing mushrooms

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313
Q

Marijuana

A

Has depressant, stimulant and hallucinogenic effects

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314
Q

What is the active ingredient in marijuana?

A

Tetrahydrocannabinol

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315
Q

What is drug addiction mediated by?

A

Mesolimbic pathway

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316
Q

Selective attention

A

Allows one to pay attention to a particular stimulus while determining if additional stimuli in the background require attention

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317
Q

Divided attention

A

Uses automatic processing to pay attention to multiple activities at one time

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318
Q

Components of language

A

Phonology, morphology, semantics, syntax and pragmatics

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319
Q

Phonology

A

The actual sound of speech

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320
Q

Morphology

A

The building blocks of words, such as rules for pluralization, past tense, etc.

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321
Q

Semantics

A

The meaning of words

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322
Q

Syntax

A

The rules dictating word order

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323
Q

Pragmatics

A

The changes in language delivery depending on context

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324
Q

Whorfian (linguistic relativity) hypothesis

A

The lens through which we vow and interpret the world is created by language

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325
Q

Broca’s area

A

Controls the motor function of speech

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326
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

Controls language comprehension

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327
Q

Arcuate fasciculus

A

Connects Wernicke’s area and Broca’s area

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328
Q

What does damage in acute fasciculus result in?

A

Conduction aphasia

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329
Q

How is new information processed?

A

By adaptation

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330
Q

Which gland releases cortisol?

A

Adrenal gland

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331
Q

Kinds of adaptation

A

Assimilation and accommodation

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332
Q

Assimilation

A

Incorporating new information into existing schemata

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333
Q

Accomodation

A

Modifying existing schemata to account for new information

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334
Q

Which of Piaget’s stages occur prior to adolescence?

A

Sensorimotor, pre-operational and concrete operational

335
Q

Base rate fallacy

A

Occurs when prototypical or stereotypical factors are used for analysis rather than actual data

336
Q

Confirmation bias

A

Occurs when a person only seeks information that reinforces his or her opinions

337
Q

Fluid intelligence

A

Consists of problem-solving skills

338
Q

EEG waves while meditating

A

Slow alpha and theta waves

339
Q

Cognitive process dream theory

A

Cognitive theorists proposed that wakeful and dreaming states use the same mental systems within the brain, particularly stream-of-consciousness

340
Q

The activation-synthesis theory

A

Dreams are caused by widespread, random activation of neural circuitry

341
Q

The problem-solving dream model

A

Indicates that dreams are used to solve problems while sleeping due to untethering of dreams from obstacles perceived while awake

342
Q

The neurocognitive theory

A

Seeks to unify the cognitive and biological perspectives by correlating the subjective dream experience with the physiciological experience of dreaming

343
Q

What are the clinical features of marijuana use?

A

Hunger, redness of the eyes, dry mouth, euphoria, increased heart rate, short-term memory loss, paranoia and hallucinations

344
Q

Cataplexy

A

A sudden loss of muscle tone and intrusion of REM sleep during waking hours, usually in response to a startling or emotional trigger

345
Q

Sleep paralysis

A

An inability to move despite being awake, usually when waking up in the morning

346
Q

Symptoms of narcolepsy

A

Cataplexy and sleep paralysis

347
Q

Factors for motivation according to instinct theory

A

Instincts: innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli

348
Q

Factors for motivation according to arousal theory

A

Maintaining a constant level of arousal, the psychological and physiological state of being awake and reactive to stimuli

349
Q

Factors for motivation according to drive reduction theory

A

Drives: internal states of tension or discomfort that can be relieved with a particular action

350
Q

Factors for motivation according to need-based theory

A

Needs: factors necessary for physiological function or emotional fulfillment

351
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A
  1. Physiological needs (highest priority)
  2. Safety and security
  3. Love and belonging
  4. Self-esteem
  5. Self-actualization (lowest priority)
352
Q

Based on opponent-process theory, what clinical features would be expected with withdrawal from cocaine use?

A

Cocaine is a stimulant, causing euphoria, restlessness, increased heart rate, increased temperature and anxiety. According to opponent-process theory, cocaine withdrawal should be the opposite: depressed mood, fatigue, decreased heart rate, decreased temperature and apathy.

353
Q

What are the three elements of emotion?

A

Physiological response, behavioral response and cognitive response

354
Q

What are the seven universal emotions?

A

Happiness, sadness, contempt, surprise, fear, disgust and anger

355
Q

James-Lang theory of emotion

A

Stimulus leads to physiological arousal
Arousal leads to cognitive labeling of emotion
“I must be angry because my skin is hot and my blood pressure is high”
Requires connection between sympathetic nervous system and brain

356
Q

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

A

Stimulus leads to physiological arousal and feeling of emotion
Thalamus processes sensory information, sends it to cortex and sympathetic nervous system
Action is secondary response to stimulus
“I am afraid because I see a snake and my heart is racing … Let me out of here!”
Does not explain vagus nerve

357
Q

Schachter-Singer theory of emotion

A

Both arousal and labeling based on environment required to feel an emotion
“I am excited because my heart is racing and everyone else is happy”

358
Q

Ventromedial prefrontal cortex

A

Involved in decision-making and controlling emotional responses from the amygdala

359
Q

Physiological part of the emotional response

A

Autonomic nervous system changes: heart rate, breathing rate, skin temperature and blood pressure

360
Q

Behavioral part of the emotional response

A

Facial expressions and body language

361
Q

Cognitive part of the emotional response

A

Subjective interpretation, memories of part experiences, and perception of cause of emotion

362
Q

What are the key features of primary cognitive appraisal of stress?

A

Categorizing the stressor as irrelevant, benign-positive or stressful

363
Q

What are the key features of secondary cognitive appraisal of stress?

A

The evaluation of the ability of the organism to cope with that stress

364
Q

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?

A

Alarm, resistance and exhaustion

365
Q

Common stressors

A

Environmental or physical discomfort, daily events, workplace or academic setting, social expectations, chemical and biological stressors, and anything else that can lead to a stress response

366
Q

Effective techniques for managing stress

A

Exercise, relaxation techniques (meditation, diaphragmatic breathing, progressive muscle relaxation), spiritual practice, etc.

367
Q

Alarm stage of general adaptation syndrome

A

Activation of sympathetic nervous system, release of ACTH and cortisol, and stimulation of adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine

368
Q

Resistance stage of general adaptation syndrome

A

Continuous release of hormones activates sympathy nervous system

369
Q

Exhaustion stage of general adaptation syndrome

A

Can no longer maintain elevated sympathetic nervous system activity, more susceptible to illness and medical conditions, organ systems deteriorate and death

370
Q

Motivation

A

The purpose, or driving force, behind our actions

371
Q

Extrinsic motivation

A

Based on external circumstances

372
Q

Intrinsic motivation

A

Based on interval drive or perception

373
Q

Primary influences of emotion

A

Instincts, arousal, drives, and needs

374
Q

Instincts

A

Innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli

375
Q

Arousal

A

The state of being awake and reactive to stimuli

376
Q

Yerkes-Dodson law

A

Performance is optimal at a medium level of arousal

377
Q

Drives

A

Internal states of tension that beget particular behaviors focused on goals

378
Q

Primary drives

A

Related to bodily processes

379
Q

Secondary drives

A

Stem from learning and include accomplishments and emotions

380
Q

Self-determination theory

A

Emphasizes the role of three universal needs: autonomy, competence and relatedness

381
Q

Incentive theory

A

Explains motivation as the desire to pursue rewards and avoid punishments

382
Q

Expectancy-value theory

A

States that the amount of motivation for a task is based on the individual’s expectation of success and the amount that success is valued

383
Q

Opponent-process theory

A

Explains motivation for drug use: as drug use increases, the body counteracts its effects, leading to tolerance and uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms

384
Q

Sexual motivation

A

Related to hormones as well as cultural and social factors

385
Q

Emotion

A

A state of mind, or feeling, that is subjectively experienced based on circumstances, mood and relationships

386
Q

Prefrontal cortex

A

Involved with planning, expressing personality and making decisions

387
Q

Parts of the prefrontal cortex

A

Ventral prefrontal cortex and ventromedial prefrontal cortex

388
Q

Ventral prefrontal cortex

A

Critical for experiencing emotion

389
Q

Stress

A

The physiological and cognitive response to challenges or life changes

390
Q

Outcomes of stress

A

Distress or eustress

391
Q

Which theory of motivation is most significantly informed by Darwin’s theory of evolution?

A

Instinct theory

392
Q

Which brain lobe is associated with positive feelings, like joy and happiness?

A

Left frontal lobe

393
Q

Which brain lobe is associated with negative feelings, like sadness and disgust?

A

Right frontal lobe

394
Q

What does a positive stressor create?

A

Eustress

395
Q

Types of distress

A

Hassle and frustration

396
Q

What does a negative stress create?

A

Distress

397
Q

Approach-approach conflict

A

One in which both results are good outcomes

398
Q

Self-concept

A

Describes the sum of all of the phrases that come to mind when we think of who we are, who we used to be and who we may become in the future

399
Q

Identity

A

Describes a set of behaviors and labels we take on when in a specific group

400
Q

Factors that contribute to a person’s ethnic identity

A

(Is determined by birth) common ancestry, cultural heritage, language, etc

401
Q

Factors that contribute to a person’s national identity

A

(Is determined by political borders of where one lives and cultural identity of that nation) flag, pledge of allegiance, national anthem

402
Q

Internal locus of control

A

Looking for factors within oneself that would result or have resulted in a certain outcome

403
Q

External locus of control

A

Looking for external factors that would result or have resulted in a certain outcome

404
Q

Freud’s explanation for failing to advance in developmental stages

A

The individual has become fixated in that stage and will display the personality traits of that fixation for the rest of his or her life

405
Q

Erikson’s explanation for failing to advance in developmental stages

A

The individual will still move through subsequent phases, but will be lacking the skills and virtues granted by successful resolution of that stage

406
Q

Kohlberg’s explanation for failing to advance in developmental stages

A

The individual was incapable of reasoning at the le el of failure, and that the individual would use the reasoning described in previous stages to resolve moral dilemmas

407
Q

Phases of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development

A

Preconventional, conventional and postconventional

408
Q

Preconventional stage of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development

A

Reasoning is based on individual rewards and punishments

409
Q

Conventional stage of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development

A

Reasoning is based on the relationship of the individual to society

410
Q

Postconventional stage of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development

A

Reasoning is based on abstract principles

411
Q

Psychoanalytic perspective of personality

A

Personality is the result of unconscious urges and desires

412
Q

Humanistic perspective of personality

A

Personality comes from conscious feelings about oneself resulting from healthy striving for self-realization

413
Q

Type perspective of personality

A

Personalities are sets of distinct qualities and dispositions into which people can be grouped

414
Q

Trait perspective of personality

A

Personalities are assembled from having different degrees of certain qualities and dispositions

415
Q

Behaviorist perspective of personality

A

Personality is the result of behavioral responses to stimuli based on prior rewards and punishments through operant conditioning

416
Q

Social cognitive perspective of personality

A

Personality comes from the interactions between an individual and his or her environment in a cycle called reciprocal determinism

417
Q

Biological perspective of personality

A

Personality is based on genetic influences and brain anatomy

418
Q

Id

A

The sum of our basic urges to reproduce and survive

419
Q

Ego

A

Mediates the anxieties caused by the actions of the id and superego by using defense mechanisms

420
Q

Superego

A

Our sense of perfectionism and idealism

421
Q

Eysencks’ PEN theory

A

P: psychoticism
E: extraversion
N: neuroticism

422
Q

Big Five personality traits

A

Openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness and neuroticism

423
Q

Psychoticism in Eysencks’ PEN theory

A

Nonconformity or social deviance

424
Q

Extraversion in Eysencks’ PEN theory

A

Tolerance for social interaction and stimulation

425
Q

Neuroticism in Eysencks’ PEN theory

A

Emotional arousal in stressful situations

426
Q

Self-esteem

A

Our evaluation of ourselves

427
Q

How to increase our self-esteem?

A

When our actual self is close to our ideal self and ought self

428
Q

Ideal self

A

Who we want to be

429
Q

Ought self

A

Who others want us to be

430
Q

Self-efficacy

A

The degree to which we see ourselves as being capable at a given skill or in a given situation

431
Q

Learned hopelessness

A

Occurs when one is placed in consistently hopeless scenarios, diminishing his or her self-efficacy

432
Q

Locus of control

A

A self-evaluation that refers to the way we characterize the influences in our lives

433
Q

Freud’s psychosexual stages of personality development

A

Based on the tensions caused by the libido
Failure at any given stage leads to fixation that causes personality disorders

  1. Oral
  2. Anal
  3. Phallic [Oedipal]
  4. Latent
  5. Genital

Based on the erogenous zones that are the focus of each phase of development

434
Q

Erikson’s stages of psychological development

A

Stem from conflicts that occur throughout like

  1. Trust v. mistrust
  2. Autonomy v. shame and doubt
  3. Initiative v. guilt
  4. Industry v. inferiority
  5. Identity v. role confusion
  6. Intimacy v. isolation
  7. Generativity v. stagnation
  8. Integrity v. despair

These conflicts are the result of decisions we are forced to make about ourselves and the environment around us at each phase of our lives

435
Q

Kohlberg’s stages of moral development

A

Describe the approaches of individuals to resolving moral dilemmas
Believed that we progress through six stages divided into three main phases

  1. Preconventional
  2. Conventional
  3. Postconventional
436
Q

Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development

A

Development of language, culture and skills in a child requires a more knowledgable other to be accomplished

437
Q

How do children learn from others?

A

Imitation and role-taking
Children first reproduce the behaviors of role models and later learn to see the perspectives of others and practice taking on new roles

438
Q

Reference group

A

Determines our self-concept

The group to which we compare ourselves

439
Q

Examples of psychoanalytic perspectives on personality

A

Freud: id, ego and superego
Jung: collective unconscious and archetypes
Adler: the unconscious is influenced by social urges
Horney: the unconscious is influenced by social urges

440
Q

Collective unconscious (according to Jung)

A

Links all humans together

441
Q

According to Jung, how is personality influenced?

A

By archetypes

442
Q

Examples of humanistic perspectives on personality

A

Maslow: Hierarchy of needs
Rogers: Unconditional positive regard in therapy

443
Q

Examples of type perspectives on personality

A

Greeks: humors
Sheldon: somatotypes (Types A and B)
Myers-Briggs Type Inventory

444
Q

Examples of trait perspectives on personality

A

Eysencks: PEN
Big Five
Allport: cardinal, central and secondary
McClelland: the need for achievement (N-Ach)

445
Q

Cardinal traits (according to Allport)

A

The traits around which a person organizes his or her life (not everyone has one)

446
Q

Central traits (according to Allport)

A

Represent major characteristics of the personality

447
Q

Secondary traits (according to Allport)

A

More personal characteristics and are limited in occurrence

448
Q

Reciprocal determinism (according to social cognitive perspective)

A

People mold their environments according to their personalities, and those environments in turn shape our thoughts, feelings and behaviors

449
Q

Androgyny

A

Scoring highly on scales of both femininity and masculinity

450
Q

Undifferentiated

A

Scoring low on scales of both femininity and masculinity

451
Q

Anal retentiveness

A

Both excessive organization and excessive sloppiness are indicative of fixation in the anal stage of psychosexual development

452
Q

Goal of intimacy v. isolation

A

Forming significant relationships with others

453
Q

Conclusion of the Bobo doll experiment

A

Young children do not necessarily model behavior performed by their parents

454
Q

Are teens influenced by peers or celebrities?

A

Peers

455
Q

Is female child going to model behavior of a female adult or a male adult?

A

Female adult

456
Q

Animus

A

A woman’s inner man

457
Q

Anima

A

A man’s inner woman

458
Q

Conscientiousness

A

Being hardworking and organized

459
Q

Which defense mechanism does Stockholm syndrome use?

A

Reaction formation

460
Q

Reaction formation

A

Converts unwanted feelings into their exact opposite

461
Q

Fictional finalism

A

Internal, idealistic beliefs about the future

462
Q

Functional autonomy

A

When a behavior continues after the drive behind the behavior has ceased

463
Q

Unconditional positive regard

A

Used in humanistic therapy
The therapist believes in the internal good of the client and does not judge the client negatively for any words or actions

464
Q

Biomedical model of psychological disorders

A

Considers only the physical, pathological mechanisms that underlie mental illness

465
Q

Biopsychosocial model of psychological disorders

A

Considers the contributions of biological factors along with psychology (thoughts, emotions or behaviors) and social situation (environment, social class, discrimination or stigmatization)

466
Q

Psychological disorders with greater than 2% one0year prevalence in the United States (affecting more than 1 in 50 people per year)

A 
Specific phobia
Social anxiety disorder
Major depressive disorder
Alcohol use disorder
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Generalized anxiety disorder
Panic disorder
Bipolar disorder
467
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A 
Delusions
Hallucinations (usually auditory)
Disorganized thought
Disorganized speech
Disorganized behavior
468
Q

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Disturbance of affect and avolition

469
Q

Major depressive episode

A

Two-week duration of at least five of the following symptoms: Depressed mood, loss of interest (anhedonia), sleep disturbance, feelings of guilt, lack of energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite, psychomotor symptoms and sducidal thoughts
At least one of the symptoms but be depressed mood or anhedonia

470
Q

Manic episode

A

One-week duration of at least three of the following symptoms: Elevated or expansive mood, distractibility, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, flight of ideas or racing thoughts, agitation, pressured speech and engagement in risky behavior

471
Q

Major depressive disorder

A

Contains at least one major depressive episode with no manic episodes

472
Q

Bipolar I disorder

A

Has at least one manic episode with or without depressive episodes

473
Q

Bipolar II disorder

A

Has at least one hypomanic episode with at least one major depressive episode

474
Q

Cyclothymic disorder

A

Has hypomanic episodes and dysthymia that is not severe enough to be a major depressive episode

475
Q

Obsessions

A

Persistent, intrusive thoughts and impulsions that produce tension

476
Q

Compulsions

A

Repetitive tasks that relieve tension but cause significant impairment in a person’s life

477
Q

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

A

Obsessions raise tension while compulsions relieve that tension

478
Q

Personality cluster A

A

Odd, eccentric, weird

479
Q

Personality disorders related to personality cluster A

A

Paranoid, schizotypal, schizoid

480
Q

Personality cluster B

A

Dramatic, emotional, erratic, wild

481
Q

Personality disorders related to personality cluster B

A

Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic

482
Q

Personality cluster C

A

Anxious, fearful, worried

483
Q

Personality disorders related to personality cluster C

A

Avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive

484
Q

Anhedonia

A

Loss of interest

485
Q

Which hormones and/or neurotransmitters are elevated in depression?

A

Cortisol

486
Q

Which hormones and/or neurotransmitters are reduced in depression?

A

Norepinephrine, serotonin and dopamine

487
Q

What is an example of a genetic factor that appears to increase risk of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Mutations in the presenilin genes (chromosomes I and 14) and beta-amyloid precursor gene (chromosome 21)

488
Q

Dopamine levels in schizophrenia

A

High

489
Q

Dopamine levels in Parkinson’s disease

A

Low

490
Q

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)

A

Used to diagnose psychological disorders

Categorizes mental disorders based on symptom patterns

491
Q

Positive symptoms

A

Add something to behavior, cognition, or affect

492
Q

Negative symptoms

A

Loss of something from behavior, cognition, or affect

493
Q

Depressive disorders

A

Major depressive disorder
Persistent depressive disorder
Seasonal affective disorder

494
Q

Persistent depressive disorder

A

Dysthymia for at least two years that does not meet criteria for major depressive disorder

495
Q

Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

A

Major depressive disorder with seasonal onset, with depression occurring during winter months

496
Q

Bipolar and related disorders

A

Have manic and hypomanic episodes

Bipolar I disorder
Bipolar II disorder
Cyclothymic disorder

497
Q

Anxiety disorders

A 
Generalized anxiety disorder
Specific phobias
Social anxiety disorder
Agoraphobia
Panic disorder
498
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder

A

Disproportional and persisted worry about many different things for at least six months

499
Q

Specific phobias

A

Irrational fears of specific objects or situations

500
Q

Social anxiety disorder

A

Anxiety due to social or performance situations

501
Q

Agoraphobia

A

A fear of places or situations where it is hard for an individual to escape

502
Q

Panic disorder

A

Marked by recurrent panic attacks

May lead to agoraphobia

503
Q

Panic attack

A

Intense, overwhelming fear and sympathetic nervous system activity with no clear stimulus

504
Q

Body dysmorphic disorder

A

Unrealistic negative evaluation of one’s appearance or a specific body part
The individual often takes extreme measures to correct the perceived imperfection

505
Q

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A 
Intrusion symptoms (reliving the event, flashbacks, nightmares)
Avoidance symptoms (avoidance of people, places, objects associated with trauma)
Negative cognitive symptoms (amnesia, negative mood and emotions)
Arousal symptoms (increased startle response, irritability, anxiety)
506
Q

Dissociative disorders

A

Dissociative amnesia
Dissociative identity disorder
Depersonalization/derealization disorder

507
Q

Dissociative amnesia

A

An inability to recall past experience without an underlying neurological disorder
May involve dissociative fugue

508
Q

Dissociative fugue

A

A sudden change in location that may involve the assumption of a new identity

509
Q

Dissociative identity disorder

A

The occurrence of two or more personalities that take control of a person’s behavior

510
Q

Depersonalization/derealization disorder

A

Involves feelings or detachment from the mind and body, or from the environment

511
Q

Somatic symptom and related disorders

A

Involve significant bodily symptoms

Somatic symptom disorder
Illness anxiety disorder
Conversion disorder
Personality disorder

512
Q

Somatic symptom disorder

A

Involves at least one somatic symptom, which may or may not be linked to an underlying medical condition, that causes disproportionate concern

513
Q

Illness anxiety disorder

A

Preoccupation with thought about having, or coming down with, a serious medical condition

514
Q

Conversion disorder

A

Involves unexplained symptoms affecting motor or sensory function and is associated with prior trauma

515
Q

Personality disorders (PD)

A

Patterns of inflexible, maladaptive behavior that causes distress or impaired functioning in at least two of the following: cognition, emotions, interpersonal function or impulse control

Personality cluster A
Personality cluster B
Personality cluster C

516
Q

Paranoid personality disorder

A

Pervasive distrust and suspicion of others

517
Q

Schizotypal personality disorder

A

Ideas of reference, magical thinking and eccentricity

518
Q

Schizoid personality disorder

A

Detachment from social relationships and limited emotion

519
Q

Antisocial personality disorder

A

Disregard for the rights of others

520
Q

Borderline personality disorder

A

Instability in relationships, mood and self-image

Splitting is characteristic, as are recurrent suicide attempts

521
Q

Histrionic personality disorder

A

Constant attention-seeking behavior

522
Q

Narcissistic personality disorder

A

A grandiose sense of self-importance and need for admiration

523
Q

Avoidant personality disorder

A

Extreme shyness and fear of rejection

524
Q

Dependent personality disorder

A

A continuous need for reassurance

525
Q

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

A

Perfectionism, inflexibility and preoccupation with rules

526
Q

Schizophrenia risk factors

A

Genetic facts, birth trauma, adolescent marijuana use and family history

527
Q

Biological factors of schizophrenia

A

High levels of dopaminergic transmission

528
Q

Biological factors of depression

A

High levels of glucocorticoids

Low levels of norepinephrine, serotonin and dopamine

529
Q

Biological factors of bipolar disorders

A

High levels of norepinephrine and serotonin

530
Q

Bipolar disorder risk factors

A

Family history

531
Q

Alzheimer’s disease risk factors

A

Genetic factors and brain atrophy

532
Q

Biological factors of Alzheimer’s disease

A

Low levels of acetylcholine
High levels of senile plaques of beta-amyloid
Neurofibrillary tangles of hyperphosphorylated tau protein

533
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

Bradykinesia, resting tremors, pill-rolling tremor, mask like facies, cogwheel rigidity and shuffling gait

534
Q

Biological factors of Parkinson’s disease

A

Low levels of dopamine

535
Q

What produces dopamine?

A

Substantia nigra

536
Q

Echolalia

A

Involuntary repetition of others’ words and utterances

Seen in schizophrenia

537
Q

Echopraxia

A

Imitation of others’ actions

538
Q

Loosening of associations

A

A type of disordered though in which the patient moves between remotely related ideas

539
Q

Neologisms

A

Newly invented words

540
Q

La belle indifférence

A

Lack of concern over the deficit

541
Q

A 42-year-old woman has always been extremely neat and tidy. She works as a secretary and stays long after normal working hours to check the punctuation and spelling of letters she prepared during the day. Her boss referred her for counseling after she repeatedly got into fights with her coworkers. “They don’t take the job to heart,” she says. “They just joke around all day.” The most likely preliminary diagnosis for this patient is:

A

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

542
Q

A 36-year-old who works from home is referred for evaluation. He is reluctant to venture out to meet with other people and rarely has people in to visit. When selected for a company-wide award, he refused to have his picture taken for the company newsletter. During an assessment, he averts his face and asks the examiner to “stop look at me.” Although he is average in appearance, he is convinced that his face is ugly and misshapen. The most likely diagnosis for this man would be:

A

Body dysmorphic disorder

543
Q

A young woman of unknown age is brought by the Philadelphia police to the local emergency department for evaluation after they found her wandering in a park. She carries no purse or identification. She is unable to state her name or any details about her life, except that the name Phoenix seems familiar. The police in Arizona are contacted and find a missing persons report matching the patient’s description. Based on this information, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is:

A

Dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue

544
Q

Agora phobia is most often seen in association with which other psychiatric diagnosis?

A

Panic disorder

545
Q

A 28-year-old male comes to a clinic concerned that he has pancreatic cancer. Review of his medical records show that this is the fourth time in the past year that the patient has appeared for medical attention. No identifiable medical problem is found. When confronted with this history, he confesses that he feels relieved after being told that all of the tests are negative, but soon becomes worried again that he has cancer. Based on the information, the most likely diagnosis for this patient would be:

A

Illness anxiety disorder

546
Q

A physician is attempting to diagnose a patient’s mental disorder based on a set of symptoms. The confirmed symptoms currently include appetite disturbance, substantial weight change, decreased energy, a feeling of worthlessness and excessive guilt. What two disorders could these symptoms indicate?

A

Major depressive and bipolar disorders

547
Q

A physician is attempting to diagnose a patient’s mental disorder based on a set of symptoms. The confirmed symptoms currently include appetite disturbance, substantial weight change, decreased energy, a feeling of worthlessness and excessive guilt. These symptoms are indicative of either major depressive and bipolar disorders. What should the physician ask about to distinguish between the two possible disorders affecting the patient?

A

Whether the patient has also had manic episodes

548
Q

A mother notices that her teenage son seems to have a phobia for snakes. In the past week, on several occasions, the teenager has had more severe fear symptoms than usual, without seeing or even thinking about a snake. Which mental disorder could cause this reaction?

A

Panic disorder

549
Q

Splitting is a defense mechanism commonly seen with with personality disorder?

A

Borderline personality disorder

550
Q

A woman comes to the doctor with a two-week history of complete paralysis of her left arm, She has had no injury to the extremity, and full neurological workup fails to demonstrate any underlying cause. She seems surprisingly unconcerned about the paralysis, and seems more worried about an argument she had one month ago in which she hit her daughter. Based on this information, the woman’s most likely diagnosis is:

A

Conversion disorder

551
Q

A woman notices that her father has started to move his fingers in such a way that it looks like he is rolling something, despite nothing actually being there. She also notes slowed movement and a shuffling gait. Which neurotransmitter is likely to be present in decreased levels in her father’s brain?

A

Dopamine

552
Q

Social facilitation

A

The tendency of people to perform at a different level based on the fact that others are around

553
Q

Deindividuation

A

The idea that people will lose a sense of self-awareness and can act dramatically different because of the influence of a group

554
Q

Bystander effect

A

The observation that individuals are less likely to respond to a person in need when in a group

555
Q

Social loafing

A

A decrease in effort seen when individuals are in a group

556
Q

Peer pressure

A

The social influence placed on individuals by others they consider their equals

557
Q

Group polarization

A

A social process that occurs when groups make decisions

The tendency towards extreme decisions in a group

558
Q

Groupthink

A

A social process that occurs when groups make decisions
The tendency for groups to make decisions based on ideas and solutions that arise within the group without considering outside ideas, given the pressure to conform and rain loyal to the group

559
Q

Assimilation in culture

A

The process by which multiple culture begin to merge into one, typical with an unequal blending of ideas and beliefs

560
Q

Multiculturalism

A

The idea that multiple cultures should be encouraged and respected without one culture becoming dominant overall

561
Q

Primary socialization

A

The initial learning of acceptable behaviors and societal norms during childhood, which is facilitated mostly by parents and other trusted adults

562
Q

Secondary socialization

A

Learning the norms of specific environments and subgroups or situations during adolescence and adulthood

563
Q

Conformity

A

Changing beliefs or behaviors in order to fit into a group or society

564
Q

Compliance

A

Occurs when individuals change their behavior based on the request of others who do not wield authority over the individual

565
Q

Obedience

A

A change in behavior because of a request from an authority figure

566
Q

Foot-in-the-door

A

Asking for favors that increase in size

567
Q

Door-in-the-face

A

Making a large request and then, if refused, making a smaller request

568
Q

Lowball

A

Gaining compliance without revealing the full cost (money, effort, or time) of the favor

569
Q

That’s-not-all

A

Increasing the reward for a request before an individual has the chance to make a decision

570
Q

Components of attitude

A

Affective, behavioral and cognitive

571
Q

Functional areas of the functional attitudes theory

A

Knowledge, ego, expression, adaptation and ego defense

572
Q

Routes of processing used to explain the elaboration likelihood model

A

Central route processing and peripheral route processing

573
Q

Which route of processing is associated with high elaboration?

A

Central route processing

574
Q

Interactive factors of Bandura’s triadic reciprocal causation

A

Behavior, personal factors and environment

575
Q

Culture

A

The beliefs, ideas, behaviors, actions and characteristics of a group or society of people

Encompasses the lifestyle of a group of people and includes both material and symbolic elements

576
Q

Subculture

A

A group of people within a culture that distinguish themselves from the primary culture to which they belong

577
Q

Socialization

A

The process of developing and spreading norms, customs and beliefs

578
Q

Norms

A

What determine the boundaries of acceptable behavior within a society

579
Q

Agents of socialization

A

Family, peers, school , religious affiliation and other groups that promote socialization

580
Q

Stigma

A

The extreme disapproval or dislike of a person or group based on on perceived differences from the rest of society

581
Q

Deviance

A

Any violation of norms, rules or expectations within a society

582
Q

Methods of gaining compliance

A

Foot-in-the-door technique, door-in-the-face technique, lowball technique and that’s-not-all technique

583
Q

Attitudes

A

Tendencies towards expression of positive or negative feelings or evaluations of something

584
Q

Functional attitudes theory

A

There are four functional areas of attitudes that serve individuals in life: knowledge, ego expression, adaptability and ego defense

585
Q

Learning theory

A

Attitudes are developed through forms of learning: direct contact, direct interaction, direct instruction and conditioning

586
Q

Elaboration likelihood model

A

The attitudes are formed and changed through different routes of information processing based on the degree of elaboration (central route processing or peripheral route processing)

587
Q

Social cognitive theory

A

Attitudes are formed though observation of behavior, personal factors and environment

588
Q

The behavior of the individuals in the Stanford prison experiment is explained by:

A

Deinidividuation and internalization

589
Q

A jury member who initially feels that a strict penalty should be placed on the defendant votes for an even stricter penalty after deliberation with the other jury members. This behavior is best described by which social phenomenon?

A

Group polarization

590
Q

During group think, members of the group partake in:

A

Stereotyping members outside of the group
Withholding opposing views
Ignoring warnings against the ideas of the group

591
Q

Adult prison systems may attempt to change the behavior of inmates through:

A

Secondary socialization, anticipatory socialization and resocialization

592
Q

Resocialization

A

The process by which one changes behaviors by discarding old routines and patterns and transitions to new behaviors necessary for a life change

593
Q

Anticipatory socialization

A

Preparation for life due to future changes in environment

594
Q

Your neighbor asks you to check her mail while she is out of town and you agree. Later that day, she asks you to water her plants as well. What technique for compliance is she using in this scenario?

A

Foot-in-the-door technique

595
Q

Affective component of attitude

A

Feelings and emotions towards something

596
Q

Conclusion of the Milgram shock experiment

A

Individuals would obey orders from authority figures even if they were not comfortable with the task at hand

597
Q

In the Milgram shock experiment, many subjects were willing to give the maximal voltage shock because they were influenced by which psychological principal?

A

Obedience

598
Q

Each individual in a group of teenagers is asked to estimate the height of a tree. One individual estimates the height to be 25 feet, but after discussing with the group is convinced that the height is likely closer to 40 feet. Which type of conformity is seen here?

A

Internalization

599
Q

Internalization

A

The type of conformity in which an individual changes his or her outward opinion to match the group and also personally agrees with those ideas

600
Q

The swimming times for all members of a swim team are tracked over a six-month period in team-only practices and at public meets. For 14 of the 16 members, top times were clocked at the meets. What social phenomenon does this evidence support?

A

Social facilitation

601
Q

An 18-year-old male is completing his final months of high school and beings to wake up early each day to run five miles in preparation for joining the Army. What type of socialization is this young man experiencing?

A

Anticipatory socialization

602
Q

Social action

A

The effects of a group on an individual’s behavior

Includes: social facilitation, deindividualtion, the bystander effect, social loafing and peer pressure

603
Q

Social interaction

A

The effects that multiple individuals all have on each other

Includes: group polarization and groupthink

604
Q

In the group setting, the mentality of “If you aren’t with us, you’re against us” is most representative of which factor of groupthink?

A

Pressure for conformity

605
Q

Pressure for conformity

A

Placing spoken or unspoken expectations on individuals to agree with the ideas of the group

606
Q

Types of statuses

A

Ascribed, achieved and master

607
Q

Ascribed status

A

Any status given involuntarily, due to factors such as race, ethnicity, gender and family background

608
Q

Achieved status

A

Any status that is gained as a result of one’s efforts or choices

609
Q

Master status

A

Any status by which a person would be most readily identified and that pervades all aspects of an individual’s life

610
Q

Status

A

Position in society used to classify individuals

611
Q

Role

A

Behaviors and expectations associated with a status in a particular context
A set of believes, values and norms that define the expectations of a certain status in a social situation

612
Q

Group

A

A collection of at least two individuals with similar characteristics that share a sense of unity

613
Q

Network

A

A formal illustration of the relationships between individuals, usually through graphic representation
An observable pattern of social relationships between individuals or groups

614
Q

Organization

A

A body with a specific set of goals, a structure, and a culture
Made up of members and may exist before and after an individual member’s association with the organization
Bodies of people with a structure and culture designed to achieve specific goals
Exist outside of each individual’s membership within the organization

615
Q

Is American Sign Language verbal or nonverbal communication?

A

Verbal

616
Q

Is turning your body away from another person verbal or nonverbal communication?

A

Nonverbal

617
Q

Are text messages verbal or nonverbal communication?

A

Verbal

618
Q

Is giving a high-five verbal or nonverbal communication?

A

Nonverbal

619
Q

Is frowning verbal or nonverbal communication?

A

Nonverbal

620
Q

Front stage self

A

When we are on stage and performing
Requires us to live up to the roles and expectations assumed by our status
The individual is seen by the audience and strives to preserve his desired image

621
Q

Back stage self

A

When we are away from others and may include behaviors that would not be appropriate or consistent with the front stage self
Where the individual is not in front of an audience and is free to act outside of his desired image

622
Q

What is an example of body language?

A

Crossing one’s arms

Dog’s tail in between its legs

623
Q

What is an example of facial expressions?

A

Smiling

Baring teeth in animals

624
Q

What is an example of visual displays?

A

Colorful feathers

625
Q

What is an example of scents?

A

Pheromones

626
Q

What is an example of vocalizations?

A

Mating calls

Birdcalls

627
Q

Role performance

A

Carrying out the behaviors of a given role

628
Q

Role partner

A

Another individual who helps define a specific role within the relationship

629
Q

Role set

A

All the difference roles associated with a status

630
Q

Role conflict

A

Occurs when one has difficulty in satisfying the requirements of multiple roles simultaneously

631
Q

Role strain

A

Occurs when one has difficulty satisfying multiple requirements of the same role simultaneously

632
Q

Peer group

A

A self-selected group formed around similar interests, ages and statuses

633
Q

Family group

A

The group into which an individual is born, adopted or married

634
Q

In-group

A

One with which an individual identifies

635
Q

Out-group

A

One that an individual competes with or opposes

636
Q

Reference group

A

A group to which an individual compares him or herself

637
Q

Primary groups

A

Contain strong, emotional bonds

638
Q

Secondary groups

A

Often temporary

Contain few emotional bonds and weak bonds overall

639
Q

Gemeinschaft (community)

A

A group is unified by feelings of togetherness due to shared beliefs, ancestry or geography
e.g. shared beliefs, ancestry and geography

640
Q

Gesellschaft (society)

A

A group unified by mutual self-interests in achieving a goal

e.g. companies and countries

641
Q

Groupthink

A

Occurs when members begin to conform to one another’s views and ignore outside perspectives

642
Q

Basic model of emotional expression in social situations

A

There are universal emotions, along with corresponding expressions that can be understood across cultures

643
Q

Social construction model of emotional expression in social situations

A

Emotions are solely based on the situational context of social interactions

644
Q

Display rules

A

Unspoken rules that govern the expression of emotion

645
Q

Cultural syndrom

A

A shared set of beliefs, norma, values and behaviors organized around a central theme, as is found among people sharing the same language and geography

646
Q

Impression management

A

The maintenance of public image, which is accomplished though carious strategies

647
Q

Self-disclosure

A

Sharing factual information

648
Q

Managing appearances

A

Using props, appearance, emotional expression or association to create a positive image

649
Q

Ingratiation

A

Using flattery or conformity to win over someone else

650
Q

Aligning actions

A

The use of excuses to account for questionable behavior

651
Q

Alter-casting

A

Imposing an identity onto another person

652
Q

Dramaturgical approach

A

Individuals create images of themselves in the same way that actors perform a role in front of an audience

653
Q

Verbal communication

A

The conveyance of information through spoken, written or signed words

654
Q

Nonverbal communication

A

The conveyance of information by means other than the use of words, such as body language, prosody, facial expressions and gestures

655
Q

Animal communication

A

Takes place not only between nonhuman animals, but between humans and other animals as well

656
Q

Becoming a college graduate requires hard work and diligence in academics. As such, what kind os status is being a college graduate?

A

Achieved status

657
Q

What kind of group is a bureaucracy?

A

An organization, specifically one with the goal of performing complex tasks as efficiently as possible

658
Q

What are the characteristics of a bureaucracy?

A

Rigidly defined work procedures
Requirement for officials to hold an advanced degree
Regular salary increases
Fixed salary
Nonelected officials who are provided rights and privileges as a result of making their career out of holding office
Seniority rights
Promotions upon passing exams or milestones

659
Q

While on the phone, a friend says: “A good friend would let me borrow the bike.” This friend is using which impression management strategy?

A

Alter-casting

660
Q

In some cultures, it is considered taboo for one to show too much sadness at a funeral. In other cultures, wailing and crying loudly is expected. These cultures differ in their:

A

Display rules

661
Q

Dimensions of the system for multiple level observation of groups (SYMLOG)?

A

It’s a method for analyzing group dynamics and considers groups along three dimensions:
Dominant v. submissive
Friendliness v. unfriendliness
Instrumentally controlled v. emotionally expressive

662
Q

Political campaign ads often focus on “exposing” an opposing candidate’s negative characteristics. In the dramaturgical approach, one would describe this as:

A

Bringing the back stage self to the front stage

663
Q

Ought self

A

Who others think we should be

664
Q

Tactical self

A

The self we present to others when we adhere to their expectations

665
Q

Presented self

A

A combination of the authentic, ideal and tactical selves

666
Q

What is the ought self most similar to?

A

Tactical self

667
Q

The evolutionary role of emotions has been used as support for which model(s) of emotional expression?

A

The basic model of emotional expression

668
Q

Intraspecific communication

A

Communication between members of the same species

669
Q

Interspecific communication

A

Communication between members of different species

670
Q

Autocommunication

A

The sender of the signal and the recipient are the same organism
e.g. echolocation

671
Q

Interpersonal attraction

A

What makes people like each other

672
Q

Factors that influence interpersonal attraction

A

Physical attractiveness
Similarity (attitudes, intelligence, education , height, age, religion, appearance and socioeconomic status)
Self-disclosure
Reciprocity
Proximity (being physically close to someone)

673
Q

Aggression

A

A behavior with the intention to cause harm or increase relative social dominance
It can be physical, verbal or nonverbal

674
Q

Types of attachment

A

Secure
Avoidant
Ambivalent
Disorganized

675
Q

Secure attachment

A

Upset at departure of caregiver, comforted by return
Trusts caregiver, who is viewed as a secure base

Requires a consistent caregiver so the child is able to go out and explore, knowing he or she has a secure base to return to
The child will show strong preference for the caregiver

676
Q

Avoidant attachment

A

The child shows no preference for a stranger or caregiver
Shows little distress at departure and little relief by return of caregiver

Occurs when a caregiver has little or no reposes to a distressed, crying child

677
Q

Ambivalent attachment

A

The child is distressed by departure of caregiver and has mixed reactions at caregiver’s return

Occurs when a caregiver has an inconsistent response to a child’s distress, sometimes responding appropriately, sometimes neglectful

678
Q

Disorganized attachment

A

There is no clear pattered of the child’s behavior in response to the caregiver’s presence or absence
The child may exhibit repetitive behaviors or seems dazed, frozen or confused

Occurs when a caregiver is erratic or abusive

679
Q

Social support

A

The perception or reality that one is cared for by a social network

680
Q

Types of social support

A 
Emotional support
Esteem support
Material support
Informational support
Network support
681
Q

Altruism

A

A form of helping behavior in which the persons intent is to benefit someone else at some cost to him or herself

682
Q

Primacy effect

A

The power of first impressions over later impressions of an individual

683
Q

Recency effect

A

Weighing the most recent information of a person as the most important

684
Q

Halo effect

A

Occurs when one applies general feelings about a person (usually, “good” or “bad”) to specific characteristics of that person

685
Q

Just-world hypothesis

A

The belief that good things happen to good people and bad things happen to bad people

686
Q

Self-serving bias

A

The tendency to attribute our successes to internal factors and our failures to external factors

687
Q

Attribution theory

A

The tendency of individuals to infer the causes of other people’s behavior

688
Q

Types of attribution

A

Dispositional (internal) causes: which relate to the features of the target
Situational (external) causes: which relate to features of the surroundings or context

689
Q

Fundamental attribution error

A

The general bias towards making dispositional attributions rather than situational attributions about the behavior of others, especially in negative contexts

690
Q

Attribute substitution

A

Occurs when individuals must make judgments that are complex but instead substitute a simpler solution or heuristic

691
Q

Stereotype

A

Occur when attitudes and impressions are made based on limited and superficial information about a person or a group of individuals and are cognitive

692
Q

Prejudice

A

Irrational negative, or positive, attitude towards a person, group or thing, which is formed prior to an actual experience and is affective

693
Q

Discrimination

A

When prejudicial attitudes cause individuals of a particular group to be treated differently than others and is behavioral

694
Q

Types of social inequality that can influence prejudice

A

Power
Prestige
Class

695
Q

Ethnocentrism

A

The practice of making judgments about other cultures based on the values and beliefs of one’s own culture

An individual perceives another group to which he or she does not belong

696
Q

Cultural relativism

A

The recognition that social groups and cultures must be studied on their own terms

An individual perceives another group to which he or she does not belong

697
Q

How is physical attractiveness increased?

A

When symmetry and proportions are close to the golden ratio

698
Q

Self-disclosure

A

Includes sharing fears, thoughts and goals with another person and being met with empathy and nonjudgmental

699
Q

Reciprocity

A

We like people who we think like us

700
Q

Attachment

A

An emotional bond to another person, and usually refers to the bond between a child and a caregiver

701
Q

Emotional support

A

Listening to, affirming, and empathizing with someone’s feelings

702
Q

Esteem support

A

Affirms the qualities and skills of the person

703
Q

Material support

A

Providing physical or monetary resources to aid a person

704
Q

Informational support

A

Providing useful information to a person

705
Q

Network support

A

Providing a sense of belonging to a person

706
Q

Foraging

A

Searching for and exploring food resources

707
Q

Mating system

A

Describes the way in which a group is organized in terms of sexual behavior

708
Q

Monogamy

A

Consists of exclusive mating relationships

709
Q

Polygamy

A

Consists of one member of a sex having multiple exclusive relationships with members of the opposite sex

710
Q

Types of polygamy

A

Polygyny

Polyandry

711
Q

Polygyny

A

One male with multiple female sexual partners

712
Q

Polyandry

A

One female with multiple male sexual partners

713
Q

Promiscuity

A

A member of one sex mates with any member of the opposite sex without exclusivity

714
Q

Mate choice (intersexual selection)

A

The selection of a mate based on attraction and traits

715
Q

Altruism

A

A form of helping behavior in which the person’s intent is to benefit someone else at some cost to himself or herself

716
Q

Game theory

A

Attempts to explain decision-making between individuals as if they are participating in a game

717
Q

Inclusive fitness

A

A measure of an organism’s success in the population
Based on the number of offspring, success in supporting offspring and the ability of the offspring to then support others

718
Q

Social perception (social cognition)

A

The way by which we generate impressions about people in our social environment

719
Q

Actors in social perception (social cognition)

A

Perceiver
Target
Situation

720
Q

Implicit personality theory

A

People make assumptions about how different types of people, their traits and behavior are related

721
Q

Types of cognitive biases

A 
Primacy effect
Recency effect
Reliance on central traits
Halo effect
Just-world hypothesis
Self-serving bias
722
Q

Correspondent inference theory

A

Describes attributions made by observing the intentional (especially unexpected) behaviors performed by another person

723
Q

What influences attributions?

A

The culture in which one resides

724
Q

What can stereotypes lead to?

A

Self-fulfilling prophecy

725
Q

Self-fulfilling prophecy

A

Stereotypes can lead to expectations of certain groups, which can create conditions that lead to confirmation of the stereotype

726
Q

Stereotype threat

A

Concern or anxiety about confirming a negative stereotype about one’s social group

727
Q

In-group

A

A social group with which a person experiences a sense of belonging

728
Q

Out-group

A

Refers to a social group with which an individual does not identify

729
Q

Discrimination

A

When prejudicial attitudes cause individuals of a particular group to be treated differently from other

730
Q

Individual discrimination

A

Refers to one person discriminating against a particular person or group

731
Q

Institutional discrimination

A

Refers to the discrimination against a particular person or group by an entire institution

732
Q

The tendency to become close friends with neighbors rather than people in other neighborhood is most strongly related to:

A

Proximity (interpersonal attraction)

733
Q

What does increased activity of the amygdala result in?

A

Increased levels of aggression

734
Q

What does decreased activity of the amygdala result in?

A

Decreased levels of aggression

735
Q

What does increased activity of the prefrontal cortex result in?

A

Decreased levels of aggression

736
Q

What does decreased activity of the prefrontal cortex result in?

A

Increased levels of aggression

737
Q

A child who cries when his mother departs and smiles and runs to his mother when she returns is displaying which type of attachment pattern?

A

Secure attachment

738
Q

Elephant seal males mate with multiple females each mating season, while females only have one mate each. What type of mating system is this?

A

Polygyny

739
Q

A person with a ventromedial hypothalamus injury will likely show which behavior?

A

Increased food intake

740
Q

Female great reed warblers are attracted to males with larger song repertoires because they tend to produce offspring with higher viability. This is an example of:

A

Indirect phenotypic benefits

741
Q

Phenotypic benefits

A

Refer to observed traits in an individual that make them more attractive to the opposite sex

742
Q

Direct phenotypic benefits

A

Benefits associated with increased fitness though direct material advantages

743
Q

Indirect phenotypic benefits

A

Benefits that involve increased genetic fitness for offspring

744
Q

In several species of shrimp, the larger adults will sacrifice themselves to produce the younger, smaller shrimp. This is an example of:

A

Inclusive fitness

745
Q

When you first meet Dustin, he is very rude to you. You run into him twice more and he is very friendly, but you still dislike him because of your first meeting. What impression bias does this describe?

A

Primacy effect

746
Q

Glen brings cookies to work. Although you have no yet tasted them, you say to another coworker, “Glen is such a great guy; I’m sure these cookies are fantastic!” What type of bias is this?

A

Halo effect

747
Q

A friend wins a tennis game and says, “I trained so hard–that was a great win!” When she loses a subsequent match, she says, “My baby brother kept me up all night crying; I was tired for the match.” These statements reflect:

A

Self-serving bias

748
Q

Carl is always happy and smiling. Today, you notice he seems down and think something must have happened to upset him. What types of attributions are you making?

A

External and situational attributions

749
Q

A group of men and women are going to be rated on their driving abilities. The role of gender is emphasized in the experiment and the women perform worse than the men. In another experiment, the role of gender is not mentioned and the rating are comparable between the two groups. Which principle do these results support?

A

Stereotype threat

750
Q

Manifest functions

A

Actions that are intended to help some part of a system

751
Q

Latent functions

A

Unintended, unstated or unrecognized positive consequences of actions on society

752
Q

What is the primary thesis of functionalism?

A

Each part of society serves a function; when these functions work together correctly, society overall can function normally

753
Q

What is the primary thesis of conflict theory?

A

Power differentials are created when groups compete for economic, social and political resources; these differentials contribute to the maintenance of social order

754
Q

What is the primary thesis of symbolic interactionism?

A

Humans communicate through words, gestures and other symbols to which we attach meaning

755
Q

What is the primary thesis of social constructionism?

A

Individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality

756
Q

What is the primary thesis of rational choice theory?

A

Individuals will make decisions that maximize potential benefit and minimize potential harm

757
Q

What is the primary thesis of feminist theory?

A

Explores the ways in which one gender can be subordinates, minimized, or devalued compared to the other

758
Q

What are the key tenets of American medical ethics?

A

Beneficence
Normaleficence
Respect for autonomy
Justice

759
Q

Beneficence

A

Act in the patient’s best interest

760
Q

Normaleficence

A

DO no harm; avoid interventions where the potential for harm outweighs the potential for benefit

761
Q

Respect for autonomy

A

Respect patients’ decisions and choices about their own healthcare

762
Q

Justice

A

Treat similar patients with similar care; distribute healthcare resources fairly

763
Q

Material culture

A

Focuses on the artifacts associated with a group: the physical objects, such as artwork, emblems, clothing, jewelry, food, buildings and tools

764
Q

Symbolic culture

A

Focuses on the ideas and principles that belong to a particular group

765
Q

Value

A

What a person deems to be important

766
Q

Belief

A

What a person deems to be true

767
Q

Race

A

Based on phenotypic differences between groups os people

768
Q

Ethnicity

A

Based on common language, religion, nationality or other cultural factors

769
Q

Symbolic ethnicity

A

Recognition of an ethnic identity of special occasions or in specific circumstances, but not during everyday life

770
Q

Fertility rate

A

The average number of children a woman has during her lifetime in a population

771
Q

Birth rate

A

The number of births in a population per unit time, usually measured as births per 1000 people per year

772
Q

Mortality rate

A

The number of deaths in a population per unit time, usually measured as deaths per 1000 people per year

773
Q

During demographic transition, what happens to the mortality rate?

A

It decreases

774
Q

During demographic transition, what happens to the birth rate?

A

It decreases

775
Q

Types of social movement

A

Proactive and reactive social movements

776
Q

Proactive social movement

A

In favor of a specific social change

777
Q

Reactive social movement

A

Runs against a specific social change

778
Q

Expectancy theory

A

Applies rationale choice theory within social groups

779
Q

Social institutions

A

Well-established social structures that dictate certain patterns of behavior or relationships and are accepted as a fundamental part of culture
e.g. family, education, religion, government, economy, health and medicine

780
Q

Cultural log

A

The idea that material culture changes more quickly than symbolic culture

781
Q

Cultural barrier

A

A social difference that impedes interaction

782
Q

Language

A

Spoken or written symbols combined into a system and covered by rules

783
Q

Ritual

A

Formalized ceremonial behavior in which members of a group or community regularly engage
It is governed by specific rules, including appropriate behavior and a predetermined order of events

784
Q

Norms

A

Societal rules that define the boundaries of acceptable behavior

785
Q

Demographics

A

The statistics of populations and are the mathematical applications of sociology

786
Q

Ageism

A

Prejudice or discrimination on the basis of a person’s age

787
Q

Gender

A

The set of behavioral, cultural or psychological traits typically associated with a biological sex

788
Q

Gender inequality

A

The intentional or unintentional empowerment of one gender to the detriment of the other

789
Q

Sexual orientation

A

Can be defined by one’s sexual interest towards members of the same, opposite or both sexes

790
Q

Immigration

A

The movement into a new geographic area

791
Q

Emigration

A

The movement away from a geographic area

792
Q

Migration

A

Refers to the movement of people from one geographic location to another

793
Q

Demographic transition

A

A model used to represent drops in birth and death rates as a result of industrialization

794
Q

Globalization

A

The process of integrating a global economy with free trade and tapping of foreign labor markets

795
Q

Urbanization

A

The process of dense areas of population creating a pull for migration; in other words, creating cities

796
Q

Because there are more than 500 Native American tribes, there are several different healing practices among them. Some tribes may have ceremonies that include chanting, singing, body-painting, dancing and even use of mind-altering substances to persuade the spirits to heal the sick person. The ceremonies are example of:

A

Rituals

797
Q

Over the last few decades, the United States population has become:

A

Bigger, older and more diverse

798
Q

During which stage of demographic transition are both birth rates and mortality rates low?

A

Stage 4

799
Q

Score of 6 on the Kinsey scale

A

Exclusively homosexual

800
Q

Score of 3 on the Kinsey scale

A

Bisexuality

801
Q

How is socioeconomic status (SES) determined?

A

It can be ascribed according to physical or external characteristics, such as age, gender or skin color
It can be acquired through direct efforts such as hard work or merit

802
Q

What is the relationship between social capital and social cohesion?

A

The less social capital a person has (reduced network equality and equality of opportunity), the most social inequality. This, in turn, decreases social cohesion.

803
Q

What are some groups that suffer disproportionate social inequality?

A

Racial and ethnic minorities, female-headed facilities, the elderly and the poor

804
Q

Is social mobility dependent on merit?

A

It can be dependent on intellectual talent and achievement (meritocratic competition), but it can also be obstructed by concentrated power and discrimination

805
Q

With regard to health, which groups are most often affected by environmental hazards?

A

Low-income areas with a high population of racial and ethnic minorities, resulting in increased illness and disease among these groups of people

806
Q

Waitzkin’s second sickness

A

Health outcomes are exacerbated by social inequalities and social injustice; as a result, higher-income groups have longer life expectancies that lower-income groups

807
Q

What is the relationship between class, ethnicity and health?

A 
Low-income racial and ethnic minorities have higher morbidity rates and overall worse health compared to the middle and upper classes
Lower class has higher infant morality rates, homicide rates and suicide rates in comparison to wealthier classes
808
Q

Why are women more likely to have better health profiles than men?

A

Women are less likely to have life-threatening conditions, although they do have higher morbidity rates
Women are more likely to seek care and to utilize healthcare services than men

809
Q

What is the relationship between class and healthcare disparities?

A

Low-income groups have worse access to healthcare services and worse healthcare quality
Poor Americans are less likely to be insured and consequently are less likely to seek medical attention until conditions have become extremely serious, thereby limiting available interventions
As a result: morbidity and mortality rates are highest among low-income groups

810
Q

What is social stratification based on?

A

Socioeconomic status (SES)

811
Q

Social class

A

A category of people with shared socioeconomic characteristics, lifestyles, job opportunities, attitudes and behaviors

812
Q

Prestige

A

The respect and importance tied to specific occupations or associations

813
Q

Power

A

The capacity to influence people through real or perceived rewards and punishments

814
Q

What does power depend on?

A

The unequal distribution of valued resources

815
Q

Anomie

A

A state of normlessness

Erodes social solidarity by means of excessive individualism, social inequality and isolation

816
Q

Social capital

A

The investment people make in their society in return for economic or collective rewards

817
Q

Mertiocracy

A

A society in which advancement up the social ladder is based on intellectual talent and achievement

818
Q

Social mobility

A

Allows one to acquire higher-level employment opportunities by achieving required credentials and experience
Can occur in the positive upward direction or the negative downward direction

819
Q

Poverty

A

A socioeconomic condition determined by the government’s calculation of the minimum income requirements for families to acquire the minimum necessities of life

820
Q

Social reproduction

A

The passing on of social inequality, especially poverty, from one generation to the next

821
Q

Absolute poverty

A

When people do not have enough resources to acquire basic life necessities

822
Q

Relative poverty

A

When one is poor in comparison to a larger population

823
Q

Social exclusion

A

A sense of powerlessness when individuals feel alienated from society

824
Q

Social inequality

A

A form of social stratification across territories and their populations, and can occur along residential, environmental and global lines

e.g. Urban areas tend to have more diverse economic opportunities and more ability for social mobility than rural areas
Urban areas tend to have more low-income racial and ethnic minority neighborhoods than rural areas
Formation of higher-income suburbs is a common occurrence and is due in part to the limited mobility of lower-income groups in urban centers

825
Q

Environmental injustice

A

An uneven distribution of environmental hazards in communities

Lower-income neighborhoods may lack the social and political power to prevent the placement of environmental hazards in their neighborhoods

826
Q

Globalization

A

Led to further inequalities in space, food, water, energy, housing, and education as the production of goods shifts to cheaper and cheaper labor markets. This has led to significant economic hardship in industrializing nations

827
Q

Incidence

A

The number of new cases of a disease per population at risk in a given period of time

828
Q

Prevalence

A

The number of cases of a disease per population in a given period of time

829
Q

Morbidity

A

The burden or degree of illness associated with a given disease

830
Q

Mortality

A

The deaths caused by a given disease

831
Q

Health in poor communities

A

Worse health outcomes, decreased life expectancy, higher rates of life-shortening disease, higher rates of suicide and homicide, and higher infant morality rates

832
Q

Racial health profiles (worst to best)

A
  1. African-Americans
  2. White = Native Americans = Hispanic
  3. Asians = Pacific Islanders
833
Q

Healthcare access and quality across populations

A
  1. Low-income groups and racial and ethnic minorities receive worse care than white people
  2. Fat people receive lower-quality treatment
  3. Women receive more healthcare resources than men
  4. LGBT receive lower-quality treatment due to prejudice, discrimination and homophobia

MCAT (7 decks)

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