Inorganic Chemistry Flashcards

1
Q

Atomic mass

A

= sum of masses of protons and neutrons

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2
Q

Isotopes

A

Different number of neutrons (i.e. same element with a different atomic mass)

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3
Q

Atomic weight

A

The weighted average of the naturally occurring isotopes of an element

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4
Q

Planck relation (frequency) (E)

A

= h f

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5
Q

Angular momentum of an electron (Bohr model) (L)

A

= (n h) / (2 pi)

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6
Q

Energy of an electron (Bohr model) (E)

A

= - Rh / n^2

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7
Q

Planck relation (wavelength) (E)

A

= h c / lambda

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8
Q

Energy of electron transition (Bohr model) (E)

A

= - Rh ( 1 / n0^2 - 1 / n^2)

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9
Q

Maximum number of electrons within a shell

A

= 2 n^2

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10
Q

Maximum number of electrons within a sub-shell

A

= 4 l + 2

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11
Q

Mass of proton

A

1 amu

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12
Q

Mass of neutron

A

1 amu

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13
Q

Atomic number

A

The number of protons

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14
Q

Mass number

A

The number of protons and neutrons

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15
Q

The isotopes of hydrogen

A

Protium, deuterium, tritium

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16
Q

Quantum

A

The energy difference between energy levels

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17
Q

Quantization

A

There is not an infinite range of energy levels available to an electron; electrons can exist only at certain energy levels

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18
Q

Does the energy level of an electron increase or decrease when it is farther from the nucleus?

A

Increase

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19
Q

Heisenberg uncertainty principle

A

It is impossible to know both an electrons position and its momentum exactly at the same time

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20
Q

Quantum numbers

A

Describe an electron in an atom

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21
Q

What are the quantum numbers?

A

Principal quantum number (n), azimuthal quantum number (l), magnetic quantum number (ml), spin quantum number (ms)

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22
Q

Principal quantum number (n)

A

Describes the average energy of a shell

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23
Q

Azimuthal quantum number (l)

A

Describes the subshells within a given principal energy level (s, p, d and f)
must be < n - 1

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24
Q

Magnetic quantum number (ml)

A

Specifies the particular orbital within a sub-shell where an electron is likely to be found at a given moment in time
must be between - l and + l

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25
Q

Spin quantum number (ms)

A

Indicates the spin orientation (+/- 1/2) of an electron in an orbital

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26
Q

n + l rule

A

Electrons fill the principal energy levels and subshells according to increasing energy

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27
Q

Hund’s rule

A

Sub-shells with multiple orbitals (p, d and f) fill electrons so that every orbital in a sub-shell gets one electron before any of them gets a second

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28
Q

Paramagnetic materials

A

Have unpaired electrons that align with magnetic fields, attracting the material to a magnet

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29
Q

Diamagnetic materials

A

Have all paired electrons, which cannot easily be realigned; they are repelled by magnets

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30
Q

Where are the valence electrons in representative elements (Groups 1, 2, 13 to 18)?

A

s and p orbitals

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31
Q

Where are the valence electrons in transition elements?

A

s and either d or f orbitals

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32
Q

Effective nuclear charge (Zeff)

A

The strength with which protons in the nucleus can pull on electrons

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33
Q

In which direction does Zeff increase on the periodic table?

A

Left to right

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34
Q

What happens to valence electrons as the principal energy level, n, increases from top to bottom in a group?

A

They become increasingly separated from the nucleus

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35
Q

In which direction does the principal energy level, n, increase on the periodic table?

A

Top to bottom

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36
Q

In which direction does the atomic number increase on the periodic table?

A

Left to right and top to bottom

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37
Q

Ionic radius

A

The size of charged species

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38
Q

Are cations smaller or larger than their corresponding neutral atom?

A

Smaller

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39
Q

Are anions smaller or larger than their corresponding neural atom?

A

Larger

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40
Q

Ionization energy

A

The amount of energy necessary to remove an electron from the valence shell of a gaseous species

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41
Q

In which direction does ionization energy increase on the periodic table?

A

Left to right and bottom to top

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42
Q

Electron affinity

A

The amount of energy released when a gaseous species gains an electron in its valence shell

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43
Q

In which direction does electron affinity increase on the periodic table?

A

Left to right and bottom to top

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44
Q

Electronegativity

A

A measure of the attractive force of the nucleus for electrons within a bond

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45
Q

In which direction does electronegativity increase on the periodic table?

A

Left to right and bottom to top

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46
Q

What is the oxidation state of alkali metals?

A

+1

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47
Q

Do alkali metals prefer to gain or lose electrons?

A

Lose

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48
Q

Which metals are the most reactive on the periodic table?

A

Alkali metals and alkaline earth metals

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49
Q

What is the oxidation state of alkaline earth metals?

A

+2

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50
Q

Do alkaline earth metals prefer to gain or lose electrons?

A

Lose

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51
Q

What is the oxidation state of chalcogens?

A

-2 or +6 (depending on whether they are non-metals or metals, respectively)

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52
Q

What is the oxidation state of halogens?

A

-1

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53
Q

Do halogens prefer to gain or lose electrons?

A

Gain

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54
Q

Which group has the highest electronegativity on the periodic table?

A

Halogens

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55
Q

Noble gases

A

Have fully filled valence shell in their standard state and prefer not to give up or take on additional electrons
They have very high ionization energies and virtually nonexistent electronegativities and electron affinities

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56
Q

Transition metal features

A

Take on multiple oxidation states

Can form hydration complexes with water, increasing their solubility in water

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57
Q

Elements that form incomplete octets

A

H, He, Li, Be, B

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58
Q

Elements that form expanded octets

A

Any element in period 3 or greater

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59
Q

Characteristics of ionic bonds

A
  • High melting and boiling points due to electrostatic attractions
  • Solubility of ions in water and other polar solvents due to interactions with polar solvents
  • Good conductors of heat and electricity
  • Have crystal lattice arrangements to minimize repulsive forces
  • Large electronegativity differences between ions (delta EN > 1.7)
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60
Q

What is bond strength defined by?

A

The electrostatic attraction between nuclei and electrons

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61
Q

Do multiple bonds (higher bond order) increase or decrease bond strength?

A

Increase

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62
Q

Does a longer bond length result in a stronger bond or a weaker bond?

A

Weaker bond

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63
Q

Bond energy

A

The minimum amount of energy needed to break a bond

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64
Q

Does a stronger bond have higher bond energy or lower bond energy?

A

Higher

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65
Q

delta EN in non-polar covalent bonds

A

= between 0 and 0.5

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66
Q

delta EN in polar covalent bonds

A

= between 0.5 and 1.7

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67
Q

delta EN in ionic bonds

A

= 1.7 or higher

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68
Q

Intermolecular forces

A

Hydrogen bonding, dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces
They are electrostatic attractions between molecules
They are weaker than covalent bonds (which are weaker than ionic bonds)

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69
Q

What is the strongest intermolecular force?

A

Hydrogen bonding

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70
Q

What is the weakest intermolecular force?

A

London dispersion forces

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71
Q

Dipole-dipole interactions

A

A dipole consists of a segment of a molecule with partial positive and partial negative regions. The positive need of one molecule is attracted to the negative end of another molecule, and vice-versa.

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72
Q

When does hydrogen bonding occur?

A

A molecule must have a hydrogen bonded to either N, O or F

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73
Q

Octet rule

A

Elements will be most stable with eight valence electrons

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74
Q

Bond order

A

Refers to whether a covalent bond is a single bond, double bond or triple bond

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75
Q

Where do non-polar covalent bonds form?

A

In molecules in which both arms have exactly the same electronegativity

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76
Q

When do polar covalent bonds form?

A

When there is a significant difference in electronegativity, but not enough to transfer electrons and form an ionic bond

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77
Q

When do coordinate covalent bonds form?

A

When a single atom provides both bonding electrons while the other atom does not contribute any
Common in Lewis acid-base chemistry

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78
Q

When do resonance structures appear?

A

When a molecule has a pi system of electrons

Represent all the possible configurations of electrons (stable and unstable) that contribute to the overall structure

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79
Q

Valence shell electron pair repulsion (VESPER) theory

A

Predicts the three-dimensional molecular geometry of covalently bonded molecules
Electrons arrange themselves to be as far apart as possible from each other in three-dimensional space

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80
Q

Do non-bonding electrons exert more or less repulsion on each other than bonding electrons?

A

More repulsion because they reside closer to the nucleus

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81
Q

Electronic geometry

A

Refers to the position of all electrons in a molecule, whether bonding or nonbonding

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82
Q

Molecular geometry

A

Refers to the position of only the bonding pairs of electrons in a molecule

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83
Q

What kind of bonds do polar molecules have?

A

Polar bonds

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84
Q

What kind of bonds do non-polar molecules have?

A

Polar bonds or non-polar bonds

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85
Q

What are sigma bonds results of?

A

The result of head-to-head overlap

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86
Q

What are pi bonds results of?

A

The result of the overlap of two parallel electron cloud densities

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87
Q

London dispersion forces

A

Present in all atoms and molecules

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88
Q

What happens to London dispersion forces when an atom or molecule’s size increases?

A

Increase

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89
Q

Where are dipole-dipole interactions most prominent?

A

Liquids and solids

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90
Q

Dipole moment (p)

A

= q d

q = charge
d = distance between charges
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91
Q

Formal charge

A

= N valence electrons - N non-bonding - (1/2 N bonding)

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92
Q

Molarity (M)

A

= moles of solute / liters of solution (mol/L)

Used for rate laws, the law of mass action, osmotic pressure, pH and pOH and the Nernst equation

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93
Q

How are molecular formulas and empirical formulas similar?

A

Both contain the same elements in the same ratios

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94
Q

How are molecular formulas and empirical formulas different?

A

The molecular formula gives the actual number of atoms of each element in the compound
The empirical formula gives only the ratio and therefore may or may not give the actual number of atoms

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95
Q

Molecular formula

A

Gives the actual number of atoms of each element in the compound

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96
Q

Empirical formula

A

Gives only the ratio and therefore may or may not give the actual number of atoms

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97
Q

How to find the empirical formula when we only have the percent mass of the elements in the molecule?

A
  1. Assume the percentages are the total grams of each element (e.g. 40.9% C = 40.9 g C)
  2. Convert grams to moles (e.g. 40.9 g C = 3.4 mol C)
  3. Once that is done for all the compounds, divide all the moles by the smallest mole value obtained (e.g. C 3.4 mol C, 4.6 mol H, 3.4 mol O => 1 mol C, 1.33 mol H, 1 mol O)
  4. Multiply the mole values obtained by whole numbers, until all the mole values are whole numbers (e.g. multiply by 2 => 2 mol C, 2.66 mol H, 2 mol O // multiply by 3 => 3 mol C, 3.99 mol H [~ 4 mol H], 3 mol O)
    Answer C3H4O3
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98
Q

How to find the empirical formula when both the percent mass of the elements in the molecule and the molar mass of the whole molecule are given?

A
  1. Multiply the molar mass by the percentages given to find the mass of each element present in 1 mole of the molecule (e.g. [40.9% C * molar mass of whole molecule] / 12 g/mol C = 9 mol)
  2. Divide all the mole values you get by the common denominator (e.g. 9 mol C, 12 mol H, 9 mol O => 3 mol C, 4 mol H, 3 mol O)
    Answer C3H4O3
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99
Q

What happens when Zn(NO3)2 dissolves in (NH4)2S?

A

Ammonium swaps places with (or displace) zinc cations yielding ammonium nitrate and zinc (II) sulfide. Zinc (II) sulfide then precipitates out of solution as a solid salt.

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100
Q

2 H2 + O2 –>

A

2 H2O

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101
Q

What type of reaction is 2 H2 + O2 –> 2 H2O

A

Combination

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102
Q

Al(OH)3 + H3PO4 –>

A

3 H2O + AlPO4

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103
Q

What type of reaction is Al(OH)3 + H3PO4 –> 3 H2O + AlPO4

A

Neutralization (a type of double-displacement)

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104
Q

2 H2O –(electricity)–>

A

2 H2 + O2

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105
Q

What type of reaction is 2 H2O –(electricity)–> 2 H2 + O2

A

Decomposition

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106
Q

NaNO3 + CuOH –>

A

NaOH + CuNO3

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107
Q

What type of reaction is NaNO3 + CuOH –> NaOH + CuNO3

A

Double-displacement (metathesis)

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108
Q

Zn + AgCl –>

A

ZnCl + Ag

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109
Q

What type of reaction is Zn + AgCl –> ZnCl + Ag

A

Single-displacement

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110
Q

Is HCl an electrolyte or a non-electrolyte?

A

Electrolyte

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111
Q

Is sucrose an electrolyte or a non-electrolyte?

A

Non-electrolyte

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112
Q

Is MgBr2 an electrolyte or a non-electrolyte?

A

Electrolyte

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113
Q

Is CH4 an electrolyte or a non-electrolyte?

A

Non-electrolyte

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114
Q

Phosphate

A

PO4^3-

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115
Q

Hypochlorite

A

ClO-

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116
Q

Ammonium

A

NH4+

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117
Q

Phosphide

A

P^3-

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118
Q

Bicarbonate

A

HCO3-

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119
Q

Nitrite

A

NO2-

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120
Q

Chromium (II)

A

Cr^2+

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121
Q

Moles from mass

A

= mass of sample / molar mass

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122
Q

Gram equivalent weight (GEW)

A

= molar mass / n

A measure of the mass of a substance that can donate one equivalent of the species of interest

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123
Q

Equivalents from mass

A

= mass of compound / gram equivalent weight

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124
Q

Molarity from normality

A

= normality / n

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125
Q

Percent composition

A

= (mass of element in formula / molar mass) 100

Determine the mass of the individual element and divide by the molar mass of the compound

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126
Q

Percent yield

A

= (actual yield / theoretical yield) 100

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127
Q

Molecular weight

A

The mass (in amu) of the constituent atoms in a compound as indicated by the molecular formula

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128
Q

Molar mass

A

The mass of one mole of a compound (g/mol)

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129
Q

Avogadro’s number

A

6.022e23

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130
Q

Normality

A

The ratio of equivalents per liter
The molarity of the species of interest

= molarity * n
n = equivalents of H+ or OH-

Used for acid-base and oxidation-reduction reactions

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131
Q

How is normality related to molarity?

A

By multiplying the molarity by the number of equivalents present per mole of compound

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132
Q

Equivalents

A

Moles of the species of interest

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133
Q

Law of constant composition

A

Any pure sample of a compound will contain the same elements in the same mass ratio

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134
Q

Combination reaction

A

Occurs when two or more reactants combine to form one product

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135
Q

Decomposition reaction

A

Occurs when one reactant is chemically broken down into two or more products

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136
Q

Combustion reaction

A

Occurs when a fuel and an oxidant (typically oxygen) react, forming the products water and carbon dioxide (if the fuel is a hydrocarbon)

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137
Q

Displacement reaction

A

Occurs when one or more atoms or ions of one compound are replaced with one or more atoms or ions of another compound

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138
Q

Single-displacement reaction

A

Occurs when an ion of one compound is replaced with another element

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139
Q

Double-displacement reaction

A

Occurs when elements from two different compound trade places with each other to form two new compounds

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140
Q

Neutralization reaction

A

Occurs when an acid reacts with a base to form a salt and usually water

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141
Q

Limiting reagent

A

The reactant that will be consumed first in a chemical reaction

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142
Q

Theoretical yield

A

The amount of product generated if all of the limiting reactant is consumed with no side reactions

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143
Q

What are Roman numerals in ion nomenclature used for?

A

Non-representative elements to denote ionic charge

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144
Q

What is -ous in ion nomenclature used for?

A

Indicate lesser charge

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145
Q

What is -ic in ion nomenclature used for?

A

Indicate greater charge

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146
Q

What is -ide in ion nomenclature used for?

A

The ending of monatomic anions

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147
Q

Oxyanions suffixes

A

-ite and -ate

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148
Q

What is -ite in ion nomenclature used for?

A

Contain a lesser amount of oxygen

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149
Q

What is -ate in ion nomenclature used for?

A

Contain a greater amount of oxygen

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150
Q

Oxyanions prefixes

A

Hypo- and per-

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151
Q

What is hypo- in ion nomenclature used for?

A

Contain the fewest amount of oxygen

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152
Q

What is per- in ion nomenclature used for?

A

Contain the highest amount of oxygen

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153
Q

Hydrogen-donating polyatomic ions

A

Hydrogen/bi- and dihydrogen

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154
Q

What is hydrogen/bi- in ion nomenclature used for?

A

Polyatomic ion that donates one hydrogen

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155
Q

What is dihydrogen in ion nomenclature used for?

A

Polyatomic ion that donates two hydrogens

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156
Q

Electrolytes

A

Contain equivalents of ions from molecules that dissociate in solution

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157
Q

What determines the strength of an electrolyte?

A

Its degree of dissociation (i.e. solvation)

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158
Q

Ionic compounds

A
  1. They are composed of atoms held together by ionic bonds
  2. They associate charged particles with large differences in electronegativity
  3. Form large arrays of ions in crystalline solids
  4. Measured with formula weights
  5. Electrons are donated from the less electronegative atom to the more electronegative atom
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159
Q

Chalcogens

A

Group 16 elements

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160
Q

Do noble gases have high or low ionization energies?

A

Very high

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161
Q

Do noble gases have high or low electronegativities?

A

Virtually nonexistent

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162
Q

Do noble gases have high or low electron affinities?

A

Virtually nonexistent

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163
Q

Do ionic bonds have high or low melting points?

A

High

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164
Q

Do ionic bonds have high or low boiling points?

A

High

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165
Q

Why do ionic bonds have high melting and boiling points?

A

Due to their electrostatic attractions

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166
Q

Do ionic compounds interact with polar solvents?

A

Yes

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167
Q

Are ionic compound good conductors of heat and electricity?

A

Yes

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168
Q

How do ionic bonds minimize repulsive forces?

A

Because they have crystal lattice arrangements

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169
Q

Do ionic bonds have large electronegativity differences between ions?

A

Yes, EN > 1.7

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170
Q

Rate-determining step

A

The slowest step of a reaction
Determines the overall rate of the reaction because the reaction can only proceed as fast as the rate at which this step occurs

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171
Q

Activation energy

A

The minimum energy needed for a chemical reaction to occur

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172
Q

Transition state theory of chemical kinetics

A

States that molecules form a transition state or activated complex during a reaction in which the old bonds are partially dissociated and the new bonds are partially formed
Requires a certain activation energy to be overcome in order for a reaction to occur (therefore not all reactions will occur)
Focuses on forming a high-energy activated complex that can then proceed forward or backward, forming the products or reverting to the reactants, respectively

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173
Q

Collision theory of chemical kinetics

A

States that a reaction rate is proportional to the number of effective collisions between the reacting molecules
Requires a certain activation energy to be overcome in order for a reaction to occur (therefore not all reactions will occur)
Focuses on the energy and orientation of reactants, and considers each potential reaction to be “all-or-nothing” (either there is enough energy to form the products, to there is not).

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174
Q

What happens to a zero-order reaction if the temperature is lowered?

A

The reaction rate decreases

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175
Q

What happens to a first-order reaction if the temperature is lowered?

A

The reaction rate decreases

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176
Q

What happens to a second-order reaction if the temperature is lowered?

A

The reaction rate decreases

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177
Q

What happens to a zero-order reaction if all the reactants’ concentrations doubled?

A

The reaction rate is unaffected

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178
Q

What happens to a first-order reaction if all the reactants’ concentrations doubled?

A

The reaction rate is doubled

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179
Q

What happens to a second-order reaction if all the reactants’ concentrations doubled?

A

The reaction rate is quadrupled

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180
Q

What happens to a zero-order reaction if a catalyst was added?

A

The reaction rate increases

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181
Q

What happens to a first-order reaction if a catalyst was added?

A

The reaction rate increases

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182
Q

What happens to a second-order reaction if a catalyst was added?

A

The reaction rate increases

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183
Q

How to determine the rate law of a reaction?

A
  1. Compare two sets of data in which only one of the reactant’s concentration has changed
  2. Rate after concentration change / rate before concentration change = (rate of second concentration / rate of first concentration) ^ x
  3. Solve for x
    Answer = x is the order of that reactant
    Repeat for the rest of the reactants and then put it all in rate = k [A]^x [B]^y …
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184
Q

Gibbs free energy (delta G)

A

Determines whether or not a reaction is spontaneous

Is derived from both enthalpy and entropy values for a given system

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185
Q

Intermediates

A

Molecules that exist within the course of a reaction, but are neither reactants nor products overall

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186
Q

How can a collision be effective?

A

Molecules must be in the proper orientation and have sufficient kinetic energy to excel the activation energy

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187
Q

Arrhenius equation

A

k = A e^(-Er / [RT])

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188
Q

What is the highest point on a free energy reaction diagram?

A

Transition state

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189
Q

How does changing the medium affect the rate of a reaction?

A

It can increase or decrease the rate of the reaction, depending on how the reactants interact with the medium

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190
Q

Homogeneous catalysts

A

Are in the same phase as the reactants

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191
Q

Heterogenous catalysts

A

Are in a different phase from the reactions

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192
Q

Reaction rate

A

Measured in terms of the rate of disappearance of a reactant or appearance of a product

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193
Q

Rate law

A

rate = k [A]^x [B]^y

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194
Q

Do rate orders match stoichiometric coefficients?

A

Not necessarily

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195
Q

How are rate laws determined?

A

Through experimentation

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196
Q

Rate order

A

The sum of all individual rate orders in the rate law

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197
Q

Zero-order reactions

A

Have a constant rate that does not depend on the concentration of reactant

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198
Q

How can the rate of a zero-order reaction be affected?

A

Changing the temperature or adding a catalyst

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199
Q

What is the shape of a concentration v. time curve of a zero-order reaction?

A

Linear

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200
Q

What is the slope of a concentration v. time curve of a zero-order reaction?

A

-k

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201
Q

First-order reactions

A

Have a non constant rate that depends on the concentration of a reactant

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202
Q

What is the shape of a concentration v. time curve of a first-order reaction?

A

Nonlinear

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203
Q

What is the slope of a concentration v. time curve of a first-order reaction?

A

ln [A] v. time

slope = -k

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204
Q

What does a first-order reaction depend on?

A

Concentration of a reactant

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205
Q

Second-order reactions

A

Have a non constant rate that depends on the concentration of a reactant

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206
Q

What does a first-order reaction depend on?

A

Concentration of a reactant

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207
Q

What is the shape of a concentration v. time curve of a second-order reaction?

A

Nonlinear

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208
Q

What is the slope of a concentration v. time curve of a second-order reaction?

A

1/[A] v. time

Slope = k

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209
Q

Broken-order reactions

A

Reactions with nonifnteger orders

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210
Q

Mixed-order reactions

A

Reactions that have a rate order that changes over time

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211
Q

Collision theory equation

A

Rate = Z x f

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212
Q

Definition of rate

A

Rate = - (delta [A]) / (a delta t) = - (delta [B]) / (b delta t) = (delta [C]) / (c delta t) = (delta [D]) / (d delta t)

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213
Q

Radioactive decay [A]t

A

= [A]o e^(-k t)

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214
Q

Is a non-spontaneous reaction endergonic or exergonic?

A

Endergonic

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215
Q

Is an endergonic reaction reaction spontaneous?

A

No

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216
Q

Endergonic (non-spontaneous) reaction

A

The activation energy of the forward reaction is greater than the activation energy of the reverse reaction
The products have a higher free energy than the reactants

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217
Q

Are catalysts used up in a reaction?

A

No

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218
Q

How do catalysts increase the rate of the reaction?

A

By lowering the activation energy

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219
Q

Do catalysts alter the thermodynamics of the reaction?

A

No

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220
Q

What is the direction of the reaction when Q = Keq?

A

The reaction is at equilibrium, no net reaction

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221
Q

Q = Keq

A

Reaction is at dynamic equilibrium

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222
Q

What is the Gibbs free energy of a reaction when Q = Keq?

A

0

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223
Q

What is the direction of the reaction when Q > Keq?

A

Reaction proceeds towards the reactants

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224
Q

What is the Gibbs free energy of a reaction when Q > Keq?

A

Positive

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225
Q

What is the direction of the reaction when Q < Keq?

A

Reaction proceeds towards the products

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226
Q

What is the Gibbs free energy of a reaction when Q < Keq?

A

Negative

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227
Q

Kp

A

= Partial pressure of products in gas phase / Partial pressure of reactants in gas phase

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228
Q

Kc

A

= Concentration of products in aqueous phase / Concentration of reactants in aqueous phase

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229
Q

What conditions favor the formation of a kinetic product?

A

Low temperatures with low heat transfer

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230
Q

What conditions favor the formation of a thermodynamic product?

A

High temperatures with high heat transfer

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231
Q

On a reaction coordinate diagram, how would the kinetic pathway appear as compared to the thermodynamic pathway?

A

Kinetic pathways require a smaller gain in free energy to reach the transition state. They also have a higher free energy of the products, with a smaller difference in free energy between the transition state and the products.

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232
Q

Equilibrium constant (Keq)

A

= Concentrations of products / concentrations of reactants = ([C]^c [D]^d) / ([A]^a [B]^b)

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233
Q

Reaction quotient (Qc)

A

= Concentrations of products / concentrations of reactants = ([C]^c [D]^d) / ([A]^a [B]^b)

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234
Q

Reversible reactions

A

Eventually reach a state in which energy is minimized and entropy is maximized

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235
Q

Dynamic chemical equilibria

A

The reactions are still occurring, just at a constant rate
The concentrations of reactants and products remain constant because the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction

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236
Q

Why are the concentrations of reactants and products constant in dynamic chemical equilibria?

A

Because the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction

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237
Q

Law of mass action

A

Gives the expression for the equilibrium constant Keq

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238
Q

What is the difference between the reaction quotient (Q) and the equilibrium constant (Keq)?

A

They use the same formula, but the reaction quotient can be calculated at any concentrations of reactions and products (i.e. at any point in the reaction). The equilibrium constant can only be calculated at equilibrium.

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239
Q

Does the equilibrium constant (Keq) change when the temperature changes?

A

Yes

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240
Q

Do solids appear in the law of mass action?

A

No

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241
Q

Do liquids appear in the law of mass action?

A

No

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242
Q

Do gases appear in the law of mass action?

A

Yes

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243
Q

Do aqueous species appear in the law of mass action?

A

Yes

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244
Q

Le Châtelier’s principle

A

When a chemical system experiences a stress, it will react so as to restore equilibrium

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245
Q

Types of stresses applied to a system

A

Changes in concentration, pressure, volume and temperature

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246
Q

Will increasing the concentration of reactants shift the reaction to the right or to the left?

A

Right

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247
Q

Will decreasing the concentration of products shift the reaction to the right or to the left?

A

Right

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248
Q

Will increasing the concentration of products shift the reaction to the right or to the left?

A

Left

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249
Q

Will decreasing the concentration of reactants shift the reaction to the right or to the left?

A

Left

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250
Q

Will Increasing the pressure on a gaseous system increase or decrease its volume?

A

Decrease

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251
Q

Will increasing the pressure on a gaseous system (decreasing its volume) shift the reaction towards the side with the fewer moles of gas or the side of the more moles or gas?

A

Fewer

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252
Q

Will decreasing the pressure on a gaseous system increase or decrease its volume?

A

Increase

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253
Q

Will decreasing the pressure on a gaseous system (increasing its volume) shift the reaction towards the side with the fewer moles of gas or the side of the more moles or gas?

254
Q

Will increasing the temperature of an endothermic reaction shift the reaction to the right or to the left?

255
Q

Will decreasing the temperature of an exothermic reaction shift the reaction to the right or to the left?

256
Q

Will decreasing the temperature of an endothermic reaction shift the reaction to the right or to the left?

257
Q

Will increasing the temperature of an exothermic reaction shift the reaction to the right or to the left?

258
Q

Kinetic products

A

Higher in free energy than thermodynamic products
Can form in lower temperatures
Form more quickly than thermodynamic products

259
Q

Which product is higher in free energy: kinetic or thermodynamic?

260
Q

Which product can form in low temperatures: kinetic or thermodynamic?

261
Q

Which product can form faster: kinetic or thermodynamic?

262
Q

Thermodynamic products

A

Lower in free energy than kinetic products
More stable than kinetic products
Slower in formation than kinetic products
More spontaneous than kinetic products
Have a more negative Gibbs free energy than kinetic products

263
Q

Which product is lower in free energy: kinetic or thermodynamic?

A

Thermodynamic

264
Q

Which product is more stable: kinetic or thermodynamic?

A

Thermodynamic

265
Q

Which product forms slower: kinetic or thermodynamic?

A

Thermodynamic

266
Q

Which product forms more spontaneously: kinetic or thermodynamic?

A

Thermodynamic

267
Q

Which product has a more negative Gibbs free energy: kinetic or thermodynamic?

A

Thermodynamic

268
Q

Does a reaction in equilibrium have equal forward and reverse reactions?

269
Q

Kc&raquo_space; 1

A

The equilibrium mixture will favor products over reactants

270
Q

Ka

A

The ratio of products to reactants with each species raised to its stoichiometric coefficient

271
Q

Ka > 10^-7

A

The compound contains more H+ than HA- at equilibrium, which makes it an acid

272
Q

Keq of the reverse reaction

A

= (Keq of the forward reaction)^-1

273
Q

Negative delta H

A

Exothermic reaction

274
Q

A person snaps an ice pack and places it on his or her leg. In terms of energy transfer, what would be considered the system and what would be the surroundings in this scenario?

A

System: icepack
Surroundings: the person

275
Q

Isothermal process

A

Temperature is constant

276
Q

Adiabatic process

A

No heat is flowing into or out of the system

277
Q

Isobaric process

A

Pressure is constant

278
Q

Isovolumetric (isochoric)

A

Volume is constant

279
Q

Delta U in an isothermal process

280
Q

Q in an isothermal process

281
Q

W in an isothermal process

282
Q

Q in an adiabatic process

283
Q

Delta U in an adiabatic process

284
Q

P-V graph in an isobaric process

285
Q

W in an isochoric process

286
Q

Delta U in an isochoric process

287
Q

Standard conditions

A
T = 25 C (298 K)
P = 1 atm
Concentration = 1 M
288
Q

When are standard conditions used for calculation?

A

Kinetics, equilibrium and thermodynamics calculations use standard conditions

289
Q

State function

A

Properties of a system at equilibrium
Independent of the path taken to achieve equilibrium
State functions may depend on one another

290
Q

Process function

A

Define the path between equilibrium states

291
Q

Common state functions

A

Pressure (P), density (p), temperature (T), volume (V), enthalpy (H), internal energy (U), Gibbs free energy (G) and entropy (S)

292
Q

Triple point

A

The combination of temperature and pressure at which all three phases are in equilibrium

293
Q

Critical point

A

The temperature and pressure above which liquid and gas phases are indistinguishable and the heat of vaporization is zero

294
Q

Common process functions

A

Heat (Q) and work (W)

295
Q

Temperature

A

Indirect measure of the thermal content of a system that looks at average kinetic energy of particles in a sample

296
Q

Heat

A

The thermal energy transferred between objects as a result of differences in their temperatures

297
Q

Specific heat

A

The energy required to raise the temperature of one gram of a substance by one degree Celsius

298
Q

Heat capacity

A

The product of mass and specific heat and is the energy required to raise any given amount of a substance one degree Celsius

299
Q

Constant-volume calorimetry (bomb calorimeter)

A

Heats of certain reactions (like combustion) can be measured indirectly by assessing temperature change in a water bath around the reaction vessel

300
Q

Constant-pressure calorimetry (coffee cup calorimeter)

A

Exposed to constant (atmospheric) pressure. As the reaction proceeds, the temperature of the contents is measured to determine the heat of the reaction

301
Q

What is the specific heat of water (in calories)?

A

1 cal / g dot K

302
Q

Endothermic process

A

An increase in heat content of a system from the surroundings

303
Q

Exothermic process

A

A release of heat content from a system

304
Q

delta H in an endothermic process

305
Q

delta H in an exothermic process

306
Q

Enthalpy of a reaction

A

= bonds broken - bonds formed

307
Q

Rank the phases of matter from lowest to highest entropy

A

Solids < liquids < gases

308
Q

Entropy in terms of energy dispersal and disorder

A

Entropy increases as a system has more disorder or freedom of movements, and energy is dispersed in a spontaneous system
Entropy of the universe can never be decreased spontaneously
A measure of the degree to which energy has been spread throughout a system or between a system and its surrounds
A ratio of heat transferred per mole per unit kelvin

309
Q

Liquid water –> solid water : increase or decrease in entropy?

A

Decrease (freezing)

310
Q

Dry ice sublimates into carbon dioxide : increase or decrease in entropy?

A

Increase (sublimation)

311
Q

NaCl (s) –> NaCl (aq) : increase or decrease in entropy?

A

Increase (dissolution)

312
Q

N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) –> 2 NH3 (g) : increase or decrease in entropy?

A

Decrease (fewer moles of gas)

313
Q

An ice pack is placed on a wound : increase or decrease in entropy?

A

Increase (heat is transferred)

314
Q

Gibbs free energy (delta G)

A

= delta H - T delta S

315
Q

Gibbs free energy at equilibirum

316
Q

First law of thermodynamics

A

delta U = Q - W

317
Q

Heat transfer (no phase change) (q)

A

m c delta T

318
Q

Heat transfer (duding phase change) (q)

319
Q

Generalized enthalpy of reaction (delta H reaction)

A

= H products - H reactants

320
Q

Standard enthalpy of reaction (delta H reaction)

A

= sum of delta Hf, products - sum of delta Hf, reactants

321
Q

Bond enthalpy (delta H reaction)

A

= sum of delta H bonds broken - sum of delta H bonds formed

= total energy absorbed - total energy released

322
Q

Entropy (delta S)

A

= Q rev / T

323
Q

Second law of thermodynamics

A

delta S universe = delta S system + delta S surroundings > 0

324
Q

Standard entropy of reaction

A

delta S reaction = sum of delta Sf, products - sum of delta Sf, reactants

325
Q

Standard Gibbs free energy of reaction (delta G reaction)

A

= sum of delta Gf, products - sum of delta Gf, reactants

326
Q

Standard Gibbs free energy from equilibrium constant (delta G reaction)

A

= - R T ln (Keq)

327
Q

Gibbs free energy from reaction quotient (delta G reaction)

A

= delta G reaction + R T ln (Q) = R T ln (Q / Keq)

328
Q

Isolated systems

A

Exchange neither matter nor energy with the environment

329
Q

Closed systems

A

Exchange energy, but not matter, with the environment

330
Q

Open systems

A

Exchange both energy and matter with the environment

331
Q

When do phase changes exist?

A

At characteristic temperatures and pressures

332
Q

Where do fusion (melting) and freezing (crystallization or solidification) occur?

A

At the boundary between the solid and the liquid phases

333
Q

Where do vaporization (evaporation or boiling) and condensation occur?

A

At the boundary between the liquid and the gas phases

334
Q

Where do sublimation and deposition occur?

A

At the boundary between the solid and the gas phases

335
Q

Phase diagram

A

Graphs the phases and phase equilibria as a function of temperature and pressure

336
Q

Enthalpy

A

A measure of potential energy of a system found in intermolecular attractions and chemical bonds

337
Q

Hess’s law

A

The total change in potential energy of a system is equal to the changes of potential energies of the individual steps of the process

338
Q

When is entropy maximized?

A

At equilibrium

339
Q

Negative delta G

A

Reaction proceeds in the forward direction (spontaneous)

Endothermic reaction (conclusion, not a comment)

340
Q

Positive delta G

A

Reaction proceeds in the reverse direction (nonspontaneous)

Exothermic reaction (conclusion, not a comment)

341
Q

Does Gibbs free energy depend on temperature?

342
Q

Temperature-dependent processes

A

Change between spontaneous and nonspontaneous, depending on the temperature

343
Q

What must be the value of Keq if ln (Keq) is positive?

344
Q

Combustion

A

Hydrocarbon reacting with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water

345
Q

Do longer hydrocarbon chains yield greater or less amounts of combustion products?

346
Q

Do longer hydrocarbon chains release more or less heat in a combustion process?

347
Q

Spontaneous forward reaction

348
Q

Characteristics of gas phase

A

Compressible, have rapid molecular motion, have large intermolecular distances, have weak intermolecular forces

349
Q

What will happen to the level of mercury in a mercury barometer if the barometer was moved to the top of a mountain?

350
Q

What will happen to the level of mercury in a mercury barometer if the barometer was placed ten meters under water?

351
Q

Standard temperature and pressure (STP) conditions

A

T = 273 K (0 C)
P = 1 atm
One mole of ideal gas occupies 22.4 L

352
Q

Standard conditions

A
T = 298 K (25 C)
P = 1 atm
Concentration = 1 M
353
Q

How can the concentration of carbon dioxide in sodas or other carbonated beverages be so much higher than that of atmospheric carbon dioxide?

A

High pressures of carbon dioxide are forced on top of the liquid in sodas, increasing its concentration in the liquid.

354
Q

Assumptions made by the kinetic molecular theory

A

Negligible volume of gas particles, no intermolecular forces (neither attraction nor repulsion), random motion, elastic collisions among gas particles, and the average kinetic energy of the gas particles is recruit proportional to temperature

355
Q

Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) has a very strong rotten egg odor. Methyl salicylate (C8H8O) has a wintergreen odor, and benzaldehyde (C7H6O) has a pleasant almond odor. If the vapors for these three substances were released at the same time from across the room, in which order would one smell the orders?

A

The rotten egg odor first, the almond next and the wintergreen last. Because all of the gases have the same temperature, they have the same kinetic energy; thus, the lightest molecules travel the fastest.

356
Q

In what ways do real gases differ from ideal gases?

A

Real gas molecules have nonnegligible volume and attractive forces. Real gases deviate from ideal gases at high pressure (low volume) and low temperature.

357
Q

If the attractive forces between gas molecules were to increase while the actual volumes of the molecules remained negligible, what would occur?

A

According to the van der Waals equation, if a is increased while b remains negligible, the correction term (n^2 a) / V^2 gets larger, and the pressure or volume must drop to compensate

358
Q

If the volumes of gas molecules were to increase while the attractive forces between the molecules remained negligible, what would occur?

A

Increasing the volume of gas molecules while keeping attraction negligible makes the term V - nb smaller; thus, the pressure or volume must rise to compensate

359
Q

Ideal gas law

A

P V = n R T

Describes the relationship between the four variables of the gas state for an ideal gas

360
Q

Density of a gas

A

p = m / V = (P M) / (R T)

361
Q

Combined gas law

A

(P1 V1) / T1 = (P2 V2) / T2
A combination of Boyle’s, Charles’s and Gay-Lussac’s laws; it shows an inverse relationship between pressure and volume along with direct relationships between pressure and volume with temperature

362
Q

Avogadro’s principle

A

n / V = k
n1 / V1 = n2 / V2
A special case of the ideal gas law for which the pressure and temperature are held constant; it shows a direct relationship between the number of moles of gas and volume

363
Q

Boyle’s law

A

P V = k
P1 V1 = P2 V2
A special case of the ideal gas law for which temperature and the tumble of moles are held constant; it shows an increase relationship between pressure and volume

364
Q

Charles’s law

A

V / T = k
V1 / T1 = V2 / T2
A special case of the ideal gas law for which pressure and number of moles are held constant; it shows a direct relationship between temperature and volume

365
Q

Gay-Lussac’s law

A

P / T = k
P1 / T1 = P2 / T2
A special case of the ideal gas law for which volume and number of moles are held constant; it shows a direct relationship between temperature and pressure

366
Q

Dalton’s law (total pressure from partial pressures) (PT)

A

= PA + PB + …

367
Q

Dalton’s law (partial pressure from total pressure) (PA)

A

= XA PT

XA = moles of A / total number of moles

368
Q

Henry’s law

A

[A] = kH x PA
[A1] / P1 = [A2] / P2 = kH

States that the amount of gas dissolved in solution is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas at the surface of a solution

369
Q

Average kinetic energy of a gas (KE)

A

= 1/2 m v^2 = 1.5 kB T

370
Q

Root-mean-square speed (u rms)

A

= square root of ([3 R T] / M)

371
Q

Graham’s law

A

r1 / r2 = square root of (M2 / M1)
Describes the behavior of has diffusion or effusion, stating that gases with lower molar masses will diffuse or effuse faster than gases with higher molar masses at the same temperature

372
Q

van der Waals equation of state

A

(P + [n^2 a] / v^2) (V - n b) = n R T

Is used to correct the ideal gas law for intermolecular attractions (a) and molecular volume (b)

373
Q

What is the least dense phase of matter?

374
Q

Do gases conform to the shape of the container?

375
Q

Are gases easily compressible?

376
Q

Variables that describe gas systems

A

Temperature, pressure, volume and moles

377
Q

1 atm in mmHg

378
Q

760 mmHg in atm

379
Q

1 atm in torr

380
Q

760 mmHg in torr

381
Q

760 torr in mmHg

382
Q

760 torr in atm

383
Q

1 atm in Pa

A

101.325 kPa

384
Q

760 mmHg in Pa

A

101.325 kPa

385
Q

760 torr in Pa

A

101.325 kPa

386
Q

101.325 kPa in torr

387
Q

101.325 kPa in mmHg

388
Q

101.325 kPa in atm

389
Q

Simple mercury barometer

A

Measures incident (usually atmospheric) pressure. As pressure increases, more mercury is forced into the column, increasing its height. As pressure decreases, mercury glows out of the column under its own weight, decreasing its height.

390
Q

Dalton’s law of partial pressures

A

States theta individual gas components of a mixture of gases will exert individual pressures in proportion to their mole fractions. The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the component gases.

391
Q

Kinetic molecular theory

A

The average kinetic energy of a molecule of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas in kelvins

392
Q

Diffusion

A

The spreading out of particles from high to low concentrations

393
Q

Effusion

A

The movement of gas from one compartment to another through a small opening under pressure

394
Q

How do real gases deviate from ideal gases at modernly high pressure, low volumes or low temperatures?

A

They will occupy less volume than predicted by the ideal gas law because the particles have intermolecular attractions

395
Q

How do real gases deviate from ideal gases at extremely high pressures, low volumes or low temperatures?

A

They will occupy more volume than predicted by the ideal gas law because the particles occupy physical space

396
Q

Graham’s law of effusion

A

States that the relative rates of effusion of two gases at the same temperature and pressure are given by the inverse ratio of the square roots of the masses of the gas particles

397
Q

Which factors affect a gas’s pressure?

A

Temperature and volume

If one of those two values is kept constant, the pressure will always be found

398
Q

What does heating a gas at constant volume do?

A

Increase pressure

399
Q

What does cooling a gas at constant volume do?

A

Decrease pressure

400
Q

How can pressure be calculated when both volume and temperature are changing?

A

If both changes in volume and temperature have the same effect on pressure, then pressure can be predicted
e.g.
Cooling the gas and increasing its volume will both decrease pressure

401
Q

What would increasing volume do to a gas if temperature is constant?

A

Decreases its pressure

402
Q

What would decreasing volume do to a gas if temperature is constant?

A

Increases its pressure

403
Q

Solvation

A

The breaking of intermolecular forces between solute particles and between solvent particles, with formation of intermolecular forces between solute and solvent particles

404
Q

Solubility

A

The amount of solute contained in a solvent

405
Q

How can the solubility of solids be increased?

A

Increasing the temperature

406
Q

Which ions can form salts that are always soluble?

A

Group I metals, ammonium, nitrate and acetate salts

407
Q

What is the solvent in aqueous solution?

408
Q

Saturation

A

The maximum solubility of a compound at a given temperature; one cannot dissolve any more of the solute just by adding more at this temperature

409
Q

How can the solubility of gases be increased?

A

Decreasing temperature or increasing the partial pressure of the gas above the solvent (Henry’s law)

410
Q

Colligative property

A

Physical properties of solutions that depend on the amount of solute present, but not the actual identity of the solute particles

411
Q

How are molality and molarity related for water?

A

Molarity and molality are nearly equal at room temperature because 1 L solution if approximately equal to 1 kg solvent for dilute solutions (like the denominators of the molarity and molality equations, respectively).

412
Q

How are molality and molarity related for solvents other than water?

A

Molarity and molality differ significantly because their densities are not 1 g/mL like water

413
Q

Examples of colligative properties

A

Vapor pressure depression, boiling point elevation, freezing point depression and osmotic pressure

414
Q

Percent composition by mass

A

= (mass of solute / mass of solution) x 100%

Used for aqueous solutions and solid-in-solid solutions

415
Q

Mole fraction (Xa)

A

= moles of a / total moles of all species

Used for calculating vapor pressure depression and partial pressures of gases in a system

416
Q

Molality (m)

A

= moles of solute / kilograms of solvent (mol/kg)

Used for boiling point elevation and freezing point depression

417
Q

Dilution formula

A

Mi Vi = Mf Vf

418
Q

Solubility product constant (Ksp)

A

= [A^n+]^m [B^m-]^n

The equilibrium constant for a dissociation reaction

419
Q

Ion product (IP)

A

= [A^n+]^m [B^m-]^n

Determines the level of saturation and behavior of the solution

420
Q

Raoult’s law (vapor pressure depression)

A

Pa = Xa Poa

The presence of other solutes decreases the evaporation rate of a solvent without affecting its condensation rate, thus decreasing its vapor pressure

421
Q

Boiling point elevation (delta Tb)

A

= i Kb m

A shift in the phase equilibrium dependent on the molality of the solution

422
Q

Freezing point depression (delta Tf)

A

= i Kf m

A shift in the phase equilibrium dependent on the molality of the solution

423
Q

Osmotic pressure (pi)

A

= i M R T

Primarily depends on the molarity of the solution

424
Q

Solution

A

Homogenous mixtures composed of two or more substances

Combine to form a single phase, generally the liquid phase

425
Q

Solvent

A

Surrounds solute particles via electrostatic interactions in a process called salvation or dissolution

426
Q

Hydration

A

Salvation in water

427
Q

Are dissolutions endothermic or exothermic?

A

Endothermic

428
Q

Is the dissolution of gas into liquid endothermic or exothermic?

A

Exothermic

429
Q

How is solubility expressed?

A

As molar solubility

430
Q

Molar solubility

A

The molarity of the solute at saturation

431
Q

Complex ions (coordination compounds)

A

Composed of metallic ions bonded to various neutral compounds and anions (ligands)

Increase the solubility of otherwise insoluble ions (the opposite of the common ion effect)

432
Q

How are complex ions formed?

A

The process involves electron pair donors and electron pair acceptors such as those seen in coordinate covalent bonding

433
Q

IP < Ksp

A

The solution is unsaturated

If more solute is added, it will dissolve

434
Q

IP = Ksp

A

The solution is saturated (at equilibrium)

There will be no change in concentrations

435
Q

IP > Ksp

A

The solution is supersaturated

A precipitate will form

436
Q

Formation (stability constant, Kf)

A

The equilibrium constant for complex formation

Its value is usually much greater than Ksp

437
Q

Is Kf greater than or less than Ksp?

A

Greater than

438
Q

Why does the formation of a complex ion increase the solubility of other salts containing the same ion?

A

Because it uses up the products of those dissolution reactions, shifting the equilibrium to the right (the opposite of the common ion effect)

439
Q

Common ion effect

A

Decreases the solubility of a compound in a solution that already contains one of the ions in the compound. The pretense of that ion in solution shifts the dissolution reaction to the left, decreasing its dissociation.

440
Q

As vapor pressure decreases, does the temperature (energy) required to boil the liquid increase or decrease?

441
Q

van’t Hoff factor (i)

A

It is used in freezing point depression, boiling point elevation and osmotic pressure calculations for solutes that dissociate

442
Q

What is the van’t Hoff factor (i) for a solute that does not dissociate into smaller components?

443
Q

Raoult’s law

A

The ideal solution behavior is observed when solute-solute, solvent-solvent and solute-solvent interactions are all very similar

444
Q

When is melting point depressed?

A

Upon solute addition

Solute particles interfere with lattice formation

445
Q

Lattice formation

A

The highly organized state in which solid molecules align themselves

446
Q

Is breaking the solute into its individual components an endothermic or exothermic process?

A

Endothermic

Energy is required to break molecules apart

447
Q

Is making room for the solute in the solvent by overcoming intermolecular forces in the solvent an endothermic or exothermic process?

A

Endothermic

The intermolecular forces in the solvent must be overcome to allow incorporation of solute particles

448
Q

Is allowing solute-solvent interactions to occur to form the solution an endothermic or exothermic process?

A

Exothermic

Polar water molecules will interact with the dissolved ions, creating a stable solution and releasing energy

449
Q

Is a spontaneous reaction endothermic or exothermic?

A

Endothermic

450
Q

Arrhenius acid

A

Dissociates to form excess H+ in solution

451
Q

Arrhenius base

A

Dissociates to form excess OH- in solution

452
Q

Bronsted-Lowry acid

453
Q

Bronsted-Lowry base

A

H+ acceptor

454
Q

Lewis acid

A

Electron pair acceptor

455
Q

Lewis base

A

Electron pair donor

456
Q

Amphoteric species

A

A species that can act as an acid or a base

457
Q

If a compound has a Ka value&raquo_space; water, what does it mean about its behavior in solution? How does this compare with a solution that has only a slightly higher Ka than water?

A

High Ka indicates a strong acid, which will dissociate completely in solution. Having a Ka slightly greater than water means the acid is a weak acid with minimal dissociation.

458
Q

If a compound has a Kb value&raquo_space; water, what does it mean about its behavior in solution? How does this compare with a solution that has only a slightly higher Kb than water?

A

High Kb indicates a strong base, which will dissociate completely in solution. Having a Kb slightly greater than water means the base is a weak base with minimal dissociation.

459
Q

What is the mathematical relationship between Ka, Kb and Kw?

A

Ka x Kb = Kw

460
Q

What species are considered the equivalents of acids and bases?

A

Acids use moles of H+ (H3O+) as an equivalent

Bases use moles of OH- as an equivalent

461
Q

Buffering region in a titration curve

A

Occurs when [HA] ~= [A-]

The flattest portion of the titration curve (i.e. resistant to changes in pH)

462
Q

Half-equivalence point in a titration curve

A

The center of the buffering region, where [HA] = [A-]

463
Q

Equivalence point in a titration curve

A

The steepest point of the titration curve

Occurs when the equivalents of acid present equal the equivalents of base added (or vice-versa)

464
Q

Endpoint in a titration curve

A

The pH at which an indicator turns its final color

465
Q

In which part f the pH range will the equivalence point fall for titration with a strong acid with a weak base?

A

In the acidic range

466
Q

In which part f the pH range will the equivalence point fall for titration with a strong base with a weak acid?

A

In the basic range

467
Q

In which part f the pH range will the equivalence point fall for titration with a strong acid with a strong base?

A

pH = 7 (neutral)

468
Q

In which part f the pH range will the equivalence point fall for titration with a weak acid with a weak base?

A

In the acidic range, basic range or neutral range, depending on the relative strengths of the acid and base

469
Q

Buffer solution

A

Resists changes in pH and has optimal buffering capacity within 1 pH point from its pKa
Consist of a mixture of a weak acid and its conjugate salt or a weak base and its conjugate salt

470
Q

Autoionization constant for water (Kw)

A

= [H3O+] [OH-] = 10^-14 (at 25 C, 298 K)

471
Q

Definition of pH

A

= - log [H+] = log (1 / [H+])

472
Q

Definition of pOH

A

= - log [OH-] = log (1 / [OH-])

473
Q

Relationship of pH and pOH at 298 K

A

pH + pOH = 14

474
Q

p scale value approximation

A

p value ~= m - 0.n

475
Q

Acid dissociation constant (Ka)

A

= ([H3O+] [A-]) / [HA]

476
Q

Base dissociation constant (Kb)

A

= ([B+] [OH-]) / [BOH]

477
Q

Equivalence point

A

Na Va = Nb Vb

478
Q

Henderson-Hasselbalch equation (acid buffer)

A

pH = pKa + log ([A-] / [HA])

479
Q

Henderson-Hasselbalch equation (base buffer)

A

pOH = pKb + log ([B+] / [BOH])

480
Q

Are all Arrhenius acids and bases also Bronsted-Lowry acids and bases?

481
Q

Are all Bronsted-Lowry acids and bases also Lewis acids and bases?

482
Q

Are all Lewis acids and bases also Bronsted-Lowry acids and bases?

483
Q

Are all Bronsted-Lowry acids and bases also Arrhenius acids and bases?

484
Q

Amphoteric species

A

Can behave as either acids or bases

485
Q

Amphiprotic species

A

Amphoteric species that specifically can behave as a Bronsted-Lowry acid or base

486
Q

Examples of amphoteric and amphiprotic species

A

Water and conjugate species of polyvalent acids and bases

487
Q

What is the water dissociation constant (Kw, auto ionization constant of water) affected by?

A

Changes in temperature

488
Q

Strong acids and bases

A

Completely dissociate in solution

489
Q

Weak acids and bases

A

Do not completely dissociate in solution and have corresponding dissociation constants (Ka and Kb)

490
Q

Bronsted-Lowry definition

A

Acids have conjugate bases that are formed when the acid is deprotonated. Bases have conjugate acids that are formed when the base is protonated. Strong acids and bases have very weak (inert) conjugates. Weak acids and bases have weak conjugates.

491
Q

Neutralization reactions

A

Form salts and (sometimes) water

492
Q

Equivalent

A

One mole of the species of interest

493
Q

Normality

A

The concentration of acid or base equivalents in solution

494
Q

Polyvalent acids and bases

A

Can donate or accept multiple electrons

495
Q

What is the normality of a solution containing polyvalent species?

A

It is the molarity of the acid or base times the number of protons it can donate or accept

496
Q

Titrations

A

Used to determine the concentration of a known reactant in a solution

497
Q

Titrant

A

Has known concentration and is added slowly to the titrand to reach the equivalence point

498
Q

Titrand

A

Has an unknown concentration but a known volume

499
Q

Indicators

A

Weak acids or bases that display different colors in their protonated and deprotonated forms

500
Q

How should the indicator for a titration be chosen?

A

The indicator should have a pKa close to the pH of the expected equivalence point

501
Q

Titration curve or polyvalent species

A

Has multiple buffering regions and equivalence points

502
Q

Buffering capacity

A

Refers to the ability of a buffer to resist changes in pH

503
Q

When is maximal buffering capacity seen?

A

Within 1 pH point of the pKa of the acid in the buffer solution

504
Q

Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

A

Quantifies the relationship between pH and pKa for weak acids and between pPH and pKb for weak bases
When a solution is optimally buffered, pH = pKa and pOH = pKb

505
Q

Acids ending in -ic

A

Derivatives of acids ending in -ate

506
Q

Acids ending in -ous

A

Derivatives of acids ending in -ite

507
Q

Strong bases

A

Soluble hydroxides of Group IA and IIA metals

508
Q

Ka = 1

A

Strong acid

509
Q

Oxidation

A

Loss of electrons

510
Q

Reduction

A

Gain of electrons

511
Q

Oxidizing agent

A

Facilitates the oxidation of another compound and is reduced itself in the process

512
Q

Reducing agent

A

Facilitates the reduction of another compound and is itself oxidized in the process

513
Q

Common oxidizing agents

A

Contain oxygen or a similarly electronegative element

514
Q

Common reducing agent

A

Contain metal ions or hydrides

515
Q

Half-reaction method (ion-electron method)

A
  1. Separate the two half-reactions
  2. Balance the atoms of each half-reaction
  3. Balance the charges of each half-reaction by adding electrons
  4. Multiply the half-reactions as necessary to obtain the same number of electrons in both half-reactions
  5. Add the half-reactions, cancelling out terms on both rides of the reaction arrow
  6. Confirm the mass and charge are balanced
516
Q

Complete ionic equation

A

Accounts for all of the ions present in a reaction

517
Q

How to write a complete ionic equation?

A

Split all aqueous compounds into their relevant ions. Keep solid salts intact

518
Q

Net ionic equation

A

Removes spectator ions to focus only on the species that actually participate in the reaction

519
Q

How to obtain the net ionic reaction?

A

Subtract the ions appearing on both sides of the reaction

520
Q

Spectator ions

A

Ions appearing on both sides of the reaction

521
Q

For reactions that contain no aqueous salts, what does the net ionic equation look like?

A

It is generally the same as the overall balanced reaction

522
Q

For double displacement (metathesis) reactions that do not form a solid salt, what does the net ionic equation look like?

A

There is no net ionic equation because all ions remain in solution and do not change oxidation numbers

523
Q

Disproportionation (dismutation) reaction

A

A type of reduce reaction in which one element is both oxidized and reduced forming at least two molecules containing the element with different oxidation states

524
Q

Oxidation-reduction titrations

A

Follow the transfer of charge

Use indicators to indicate when certain voltages of solutions are achieved

525
Q

Potentiometric titration

A

A form of redox titration in which a voltmeter or external cell measures the electromotive force (emf) of a solution
No indicator is used
The equivalence point is determined by a sharp change in voltage

526
Q

What is the site of oxidation in a galvanic (voltaic) cell?

527
Q

In a galvanic (voltaic) cell, what to electrons flow towards?

528
Q

In a galvanic (voltaic) cell, what does current flow towards?

529
Q

In a galvanic (voltaic) cell, what has a (-) designation?

530
Q

In a galvanic (voltaic) cell, what attracts cations?

531
Q

What is the site of oxidation in an electrolytic cell?

532
Q

In an electrolytic cell, what to electrons flow towards?

533
Q

In an electrolytic cell, what does current flow towards?

534
Q

In an electrolytic cell, what has a (-) designation?

535
Q

In an electrolytic cell, what attracts cations?

536
Q

Cell diagram for the discharging state of a lead-acid battery

A

Pb (s) | H2SO4 (4 M) || H2SO4 (4 M) | PbO2 (s)

537
Q

Which type of cell has a positive delta G?

A

Electrolytic cells (because they are non spontaneous)

538
Q

Which type of cell has a positive Ecell?

A

Galvanic (voltaic) cells (because they are spontaneous and have a negative delta G and therefore a positive Ecell)

539
Q

Is Ni-Cd (discharging) galvanic or electrolytic?

540
Q

Is Ni-Cd (charging) galvanic or electrolytic?

A

Electrolytic

541
Q

Is molten NaCl (discharging) galvanic or electrolytic?

A

Electrolytic

542
Q

Is Daniell cell (discharging) galvanic or electrolytic?

543
Q

Is lead-acid (charging) galvanic or electrolytic?

A

Electrolytic

544
Q

Is lead-acid (discharging) galvanic or electrolytic?

545
Q

What is the anode material in Ni-Cd (discharging)?

546
Q

What is the anode material in Ni-Cd (charging)?

547
Q

What is the anode material in molten NaCl (discharging)?

548
Q

What is the anode material in Daniell cell (discharging)?

549
Q

What is the anode material in lead-acid (charging)?

550
Q

What is the anode material in lead-acid (discharging)?

551
Q

What is the anode charge in Ni-Cd (discharging)?

552
Q

What is the anode charge in Ni-Cd (charging)?

553
Q

What is the anode charge in molten NaCl (discharging)?

554
Q

What is the anode charge in Daniell cell (discharging)?

555
Q

What is the anode charge in lead-acid (charging)?

556
Q

What is the anode charge in lead-acid (discharging)?

557
Q

What is the cathode material in Ni-Cd (discharging)?

558
Q

What is the cathode material in Ni-Cd (charging)?

559
Q

What is the cathode material in molten NaCl (discharging)?

560
Q

What is the cathode material in Daniell cell (discharging)?

561
Q

What is the cathode material in lead-acid (charging)?

562
Q

What is the cathode material in lead-acid (discharging)?

563
Q

What is the cathode charge in Ni-Cd (discharging)?

564
Q

What is the cathode charge in Ni-Cd (charging)?

565
Q

What is the cathode charge in molten NaCl (discharging)?

566
Q

What is the cathode charge in Daniell cell (discharging)?

567
Q

What is the cathode charge in lead-acid (charging)?

568
Q

What is the cathode charge in lead-acid (discharging)?

569
Q

How are standard reduction potentials measured?

A

Setting up a cell relative to a standard hydrogen electrode, with is given a reduction potential of 0 V by convention

570
Q

Positive emf

A

The cell is spontaneous (galvanic)

571
Q

Negative emf

A

The cell is non spontaneous (electrolytic)

572
Q

Is:
2 Fe^3+ (aq) + 2 Cl- (aq) –> 2 Fe^2+ (aq) + Cl2 (g) || Ecell = -0.59 V
galvanic or electrolytic?

A

Electrolytic, because emf is negative

573
Q

Is:
2 Fe^3+ (aq) + 2 I- (aq) –> 2 Fe^2+ (aq) + I2 (aq) || Ecell = +0.25 V
galvanic or electrolytic?

A

Galvanic, because emf is positive

574
Q

If Keq = 1.2e-2, is delta G positive or negative?

575
Q

If Keq = 2e2, is delta G positive or negative?

576
Q

If Keq = 1 is delta G positive or negative?

577
Q

If Keq = 1.2e-2, is the reaction spontaneous or non spontaneous?

A

Nonspontaneous

578
Q

If Keq = 2e2, is the reaction spontaneous or non spontaneous?

A

Spontaneous

579
Q

If Keq = 1, is the reaction spontaneous or non spontaneous?

A

The cell is in equilibrium

580
Q

If Keq = 1.2e-2, is Ecell positive or negative?

581
Q

If Keq = 2e2, is Ecell positive or negative?

582
Q

If Keq = 1, is Ecell positive or negative?

583
Q

What is the direction of the reaction if Q = 10^-3 and Keq = 10^-2?

584
Q

What is the direction of the reaction if Q = 10^2 and Keq = 1.1?

585
Q

What is the direction of the reaction if Q = 1 and Keq = 1?

A

The reaction is in equilibrium

586
Q

If Q = 10^-3 and Keq = 10^-2, is Ecell positive or negative?

587
Q

If Q = 10^2 and Keq = 1.1, is Ecell positive or negative?

588
Q

If Q = 1 and Keq = 1, is Ecell positive or negative?

589
Q

How is the equation:
delta G = - R T ln Keq
affected if Keq < 1?

A

ln Keq < 0 and delta G > 0

590
Q

How is the equation:
delta G = - R T ln Keq
affected if Keq > 1?

A

ln Keq > 0 and delta G < 0

591
Q

How is the equation:
delta G = - R T ln Keq
affected if Keq = 1?

A

ln Keq = 0 and delta G = 0

592
Q

Moles of electrons transferred during reduction

A

M^n+ + n e- –> M (s)

593
Q

Electrodeposition equation

A

mol M = (I t) / (n F)

594
Q

Standard electromotive force of a cell (Ecell)

A

= E red, cathode - E red, anode

The difference in standard reduction potential between the two half-cells

595
Q

Standard change in free energy from standard emf (delta G)

A

= - n F Ecell

596
Q

Nernst equation (full)

A

Ecell = Ecell - ([{R T} / {n F}] ln Q)

Describes the relationship between the concentration of species in a solution under nonstandard conditions and the electromotive force

597
Q

Nernst equation (simplified)

A

Ecell = Ecell - (0.0592 / n) log Q

598
Q

Reaction quotient (Q)

A

= ([C]^c [D]^d) / ([A]^a [B]^b)

599
Q

Standard change in free energy from equilibrium constant (delta G)

A

= - R T ln Keq

600
Q

Free energy change (nonstandard conditions) (delta G)

A

= delta G standard + R T ln Q

601
Q

Electrochemical cell

A

Any cell in which oxidation-reduction reactions take place

602
Q

Characteristics of electrochemical cells

A

Electrodes, anodes, cathodes, electrons flow from the anode to the cathode, and current flowed from the cathode to the anode

603
Q

Electrodes

A

Strips of metal or other conductive materials placed in an electrolyte solution

604
Q

Anode

A

The site of oxidation

Attracts anions

605
Q

Cathode

A

The site of reduction

Attracts cations

606
Q

Cell diagrams

A

Shorthand notation that represent the reactions taking place in an electrochemical cell
Written from anode to cathode with electrolytes (the solution) in between
A cortical line represents a phase boundary, and a double vertical line represents a salt bridge or other physical boundary

607
Q

Galvanic (voltaic) cell

A

Spontaneous (delta G < 0)

Positive electromotive force

608
Q

Electrolytic cell

A

Nonspontaneous (delta G > 0)

Negative electromotive force

609
Q

Concentration cell

A

Specialized form of galvanic cell in which both electrodes are made of the same material
Rather than a potential difference causing the movement of charge, it is the concentration gradient between the two solutions

610
Q

Rechargeable batteries

A

Electrochemical cells that can experience charging (electrolytic) and discharging (galvanic) states
Ranked by energy density

611
Q

Energy density of a rechargeable battery

A

The amount of energy a cell can produce relative to the mass of battery material

612
Q

Lead-acid batteries (discharging)

A

Consist of a Pb anode and a PbO2 cathode in a concentrated sulfuric acid solution

613
Q

Lead-acid batteries (charging)

A

PbSO4-plated electrodes are dissociated to restore the original Pb and PbO2 electrodes and concentrate the electrolyte

614
Q

Do lead-acid batteries have high or low energy density?

615
Q

Are lead-acid batteries rechargeable?

616
Q

Nickle-cadmium batteries (Ni-Cd) (discharging)

A

Consist of a Cd anode and a NiO(OH) cathode in a concentrated KOH solution

617
Q

Nickle-cadmium batteries (Ni-Cd) (charging)

A

Ni(OH)2 and Cd(OH)2-plated electrodes are dissociated to restore the original Cd and NiO(OH) electrodes and concentrate the electrolyte

618
Q

Do Ni-Cd batteries have high or low energy density?

A

Low, but higher than that of lead-acid batteries

619
Q

Are Ni-Cd batteries rechargeable?

620
Q

Nickel-metal hydride (NiMH) batteries

A

Replace Ni-Cd batteries because they have higher energy density, are more cost effective and are less toxic

621
Q

Do NiMH batteries have high or low energy density?

A

High, higher than those of lead-acid batteries and Ni-Cd batteries

622
Q

Are NiMH batteries rechargeable?

623
Q

Surge current

A

An above-average current transiently released at the beginning of the discharge phase, it eases rapidly until a stable current is achieved

624
Q

Reduction potential

A

Quantifies the tendency for a species to gain electrons and be reduced

625
Q

What does a higher reduction potential mean?

A

The more the species wants to be reduced

626
Q

Standard reduction potential (Ered)

A

Calculated by comparison to the standard hydrogen electrode (SHE) under the standard conditions of 298 K, 1 atm pressure and 1 M concentrations

627
Q

Standard hydrogen electrode (SHE)

A

Has a standard reduction potential of 0 V

628
Q

In a galvanic cell, what is the sign of the difference of the reduction potentials of the two half reactions?

629
Q

In an electrolytic cell, what is the sign of the difference of the reduction potentials of the two half reactions?

630
Q

How are the signs of electromotive force and change in free energy relate to one another?

A

They are always opposites of each other

631
Q

In a galvanic cell, can the reduction potential of the cathode be less than that of the anode?

632
Q

Keq in an electrolytic cell