Physical Security Flashcards

1
Q

____ is an executive-level forum that meets at least semi-annually to develop and refine antiterrorism program guidance, policy, and standards and act upon recommendations of the Antiterrorism Working Group and Threat Working Group to determine resource allocation priorities and mitigate or eliminate terrorism-related vulnerabilities.

A

The Antiterrorism Executive Committee (ATEC)

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2
Q

This group is responsible for assessing requirements for physical security, recommending and developing policy, preparing planning documents, and conducting criticality, vulnerability, and risk assessments.

A

ATWG stands for Antiterrorism Working Group. (ATWG)

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3
Q

This group is responsible for identifying foreign, domestic, and local threats and informing the installation commanding officer (CO) of current threat trends in the area of responsibility.

A

TWG is also known as the Threat Working Group. (TWG)

Note: The TWG is comprised of the Antiterrorism Officer, counterintelligence representative, law enforcement representative, operations security officer, information operations representative, and a chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosives (CBRNE) representative. Commanders of larger installations may choose to include more individuals in their TWG.

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4
Q

_____ meets quarterly to provide advocacy, coordination, and oversight to assist in both vertical and horizontal mission assurance alignment efforts on issues that cut across all DoD protection programs, including antiterrorism.

A

The Mission Assurance Senior Steering Group (MA SSG)

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5
Q

_____ are designated for the security or safeguarding of property or material. Facility directors or installation commanders designate these areas.

A

Restricted Areas

Note: Restricted areas improve security by controlling access and providing additional layers of security.

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6
Q

Various types of physical security countermeasures include:

A
  • Protective barriers
  • Site lighting
  • Security forces
  • Security systems
  • Facility access control
  • Lock and key systems
  • Storage containers and facilities
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7
Q

Protective Barriers

A

The first line of defense in any physical security system is usually some form of perimeter protection system. The perimeter of an installation or facility is the outermost area of responsibility.

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8
Q

Site Lighting

A

Lighting can be used for several purposes. It enables guard force personnel to observe activities inside or around an installation. Adequate lighting for all approaches to an area not only discourages attempted unauthorized entry, but also reveals persons within a given area.

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9
Q

_____ are made up of DoD civilian personnel, military personnel, and contract personnel who are employees of a private or commercial source contracted by the federal government, and even trained dogs, all of whom play an active part in protecting our national security and other DoD assets.

A

Security Forces

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10
Q

Security systems play an important role in protecting national security and other DoD assets. Security systems include:

A
  • Interior intrusion detection systems (IDS)
  • Exterior IDS
  • Closed circuit television (CCTV) systems
  • Access control systems
  • Screening equipment
  • Two-way radios
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11
Q

The purpose of an _____ is to deter, detect, document, and deny or delay intrusion.

A

Intrusion Detection System (IDS) // Interior IDS

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12
Q

____ is an excellent means for deterring and detecting loss, theft, or misuse of government property. They are used in a variety of facilities on installations and activities, including commissaries and exchanges.

A

CCTV

Note: CCTV systems have a camera that captures a visual image, converts it to a video signal and transmits it to a remote location. At the remote location the image can be received, displayed, recorded, and printed.

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13
Q

_____ is a process for ensuring that only authorized personnel are allowed into a designated area. This controls are implemented to prevent unauthorized personnel from entering designated areas. This control is one of the inner layers in the overall security-in-depth approach.

A

Access Control

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14
Q

At DoD installations and facilities, you may encounter guard force personnel using x-ray machines, similar to those seen at airports, scanning hand carried baggage coming into a facility.

A

Screening Equipment

Note: Additional measures, including portable hand held metal detectors, permanently installed metal detectors, and other specialized equipment may also be used before personnel are granted access to certain areas.

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15
Q

_____ typically serve as the primary means of communication between response forces and their respective control centers, as well as communication between response force members

A

Two-way radios

Note: While two- way radios are a great tool, there must be backup communications systems available in the event of a catastrophic radio failure. A good Plan B is always necessary!

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16
Q

Within the DoD, there are two primary types of locks that you will see being used.

A

These are combination and key-operated locks.

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17
Q

There are three types of approved combination locks used for the safeguarding of classified information.

A
  1. electromechanical lock used to secure classified material
  2. mechanical lock
  3. combination padlock
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18
Q

_____ is the authority to approve security containers used to store classified information. Security containers approved for storage of classified information are tested and certified by that same entity to ensure that a minimum level of protection against specified methods of unauthorized entry is provided.

A

General Service Administration (GSA)

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19
Q

_____ plans are comprehensive written plans providing for appropriate and economical use of personnel and equipment to prevent or minimize criminal or disruptive activities. It is essential that each installation, unit, or activity develop, implement, and maintain

A

Physical Security Plans

Note: Physical security plans have the potential to be designated For Official Use Only (FOUO) or may even be classified, and must be protected accordingly.

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20
Q

What ensures that everyone involved knows the procedures so that duties are carried out consistently and uniformly? They are supplemental guidance for implementing specific components of your physical security program.

A

SOPs and Post Orders

Note: SOPs are typically established to cover events such as fire, explosion, civil disturbance, major accidents, hostage situations, sabotage, bomb threats, terrorism attacks, and natural disasters.

Post orders typically establish duties, roles, and responsibilities at individual assignments, checkpoints, gates, and guard posts.

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21
Q

There are two types of inspections:

A

compliance inspections and self-inspections.

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22
Q

This type of inspection focuses on ensuring regulatory requirements are being met, usually by someone who may be in your immediate chain of command or higher headquarters. Assist visits, command inspections, and Inspector General (IG) inspections are examples of this inspection.

A

Compliance Inspections

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23
Q

This type of inspection is a review conducted by members of your own organization, usually with the aid of a checklist. This may serve to aid internal control, prepare for compliance inspections, and ensure your physical security program is implemented in a cost effective manner.

A

Self-inspections

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24
Q

Defensive measures used to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist attacks, to include limited response and containment

A

Antiterrorism

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25
Q

T or F: Terrorist threat levels should not be confused with Force Protection Conditions, also known as FPCONs.

A

True

Note: Threat levels are provided to senior leaders in order to assist in determining the appropriate FPCON level.

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26
Q

DoD uses a set of standardized terms to quantify terrorist threat levels. Threat levels are identified as Low, Moderate, Significant, and High.

A
  • Low signifies no terrorist group is detected or the terrorist group is non-threatening.
  • Moderate signifies terrorists are present but there are no indications of anti-U.S. activity. The Operating Environment favors the Host Nation or the U.S.
  • Significant signifies anti-U.S. terrorists are present and they attack personnel as their preferred method of operation, or a group uses large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method, but has limited operational activity. The Operating Environment is neutral.
  • High signifies anti-U.S. terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation. There is a substantial DoD presence, and the Operating Environment favors the terrorist.
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27
Q

What is defined as actions taken to prevent or mitigate hostile actions against DoD personnel, including family members, resources, facilities, and critical information.

A

Force Protections (FPCONs)

FPCONs are a DoD-approved system that standardizes the Department’s identification and recommended preventive actions and responses to terrorist threats to U.S. assets.

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28
Q

There are five FPCONs for DoD.

A

They are NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO, CHARLIE, and DELTA.

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29
Q

The two primary purposes of physical security are protection and _____

A

prevention

Feedback: The two primary purposes of physical security are protection and prevention.

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30
Q

A guard checking IDs at the gate of an installation is a good example of
what type of security?

A

Point Security

Feedback: A guard checking IDs is a good example of point security.

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31
Q

___________ is the layering of physical security countermeasures such as fencing, guards, cameras, lighting, and locks.

A

Security in depth

Feedback: Security-in-depth is the layering of physical security countermeasures such as fencing, guards, cameras, lighting, and locks.

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32
Q

Which policy guidance would you consult to find the minimum standards for the physical protection of DoD assets?

A

DoD 5200.08-R, Physical Security Program

Feedback: You should consult DoD 5200.08-R, Physical Security Program, to find the minimum standards for the physical protection of DoD assets.

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33
Q

T or F: You must identify assets, threats and vulnerabilities before you can conduct a risk analysis based on the impact and likelihood of an unwanted event happening.

A

True

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34
Q

Which policy should you consult to find the physical security requirements of protecting classified information?

A

DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4 DoD Information Security Program

Feedback: You should consult DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, DoD Information Security Program, to find the physical security requirements for protecting classified information.

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35
Q

Which policy authorizes commanders to issue regulations for the protection or security of property and places under their command?

A

DoDI 5200.08, Security of DoD Installations and Resources and the DoD Physical
Security Review Board (PSRB) (correct answer)

Feedback: DoDI 5200.08, Security of DoD Installations and Resources and the DoD Physical Security Review Board (PSRB), authorizes commanders to issue regulations for the protection or security of property and places under their command.

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36
Q

Who is charged with management, implementation, and direction of all physical security programs?

A

Physical Security Officer

Feedback: The physical security officer is charged with management, implementation, and direction of all physical security programs.

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37
Q

Who is responsible for providing valuable information on the capabilities, intentions, and threats of adversaries?

A

CI Support

Feedback: CI support is responsible for providing valuable information on the capabilities, intentions, and threats of adversaries.

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38
Q

Who is responsible for developing countermeasures against potential threats to national security and other DoD assets?

A

OPSEC Officer

Feedback: The OPSEC officer analyzes threats to assets and their vulnerabilities.

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39
Q

Who should be included in a Threat Working Group?

A

 Antiterrorism Officer
 Counterintelligence (CI) representative
 Law enforcement representative
 Operations security officer
 Information operations representative
 Chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear and high yield explosive representative

Feedback: All of these individuals should be included in a Threat Working Group (TWG). In addition, commanders of larger installations may choose to include more individuals in their TWG.

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40
Q

Which of these can be made of solid steel to make them more attack resistant?

A

Doors

Feedback: Doors are a weak spot on a building and can be made of solid steel to make them more attack-resistant.

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41
Q

Which of these house ventilation systems that should be secured with steel bars?

A

Roofs

Feedback: Roofs house air conditioning units and ventilation systems that should be secured with steel bars.

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42
Q

Which of these should be covered with a protective film to make them less dangerous in an attack?

A

Windows

Feedback: Windows should be covered with a protective film to make them shatter-proof.

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43
Q

Which of the following locks are approved to secure classified information or material?

A

 Kaba Mas X-10
 S&G 8077/AD

The Kaba Mas X-10 is one of several locks that meet FF-L-2740 series lock specification which are approved for securing classified information. Sargent and Greenleaf (S&G) 8077/AD can be used for storage of Secret or Confidential bulk or temporary indoor storage.

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44
Q

True or False. Standby lighting is used when regular lighting is not available.

A

False

Feedback: Emergency lighting is used when regular lighting is not available. Standby lighting is used when additional lighting is necessary.

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45
Q

True or False. Site lighting is used to enable guard force personnel to observe activities inside or outside the installation.

A

True

Feedback: Site lighting is used to enable guard force personnel to observe activities inside or outside the installation.

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46
Q

True or False. Movable lighting is used when supplemental lighting is needed such as at construction sites.

A

True

Feedback: Movable lighting is used when supplemental lighting is needed such as at construction sites.

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47
Q

At a minimum _________ should include special and general guard orders, access and material control, protective barriers, lighting systems, locks, and Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS).

A

Physical Security Plans

Feedback: At a minimum physical security plans should include special and general guard orders, access and material control, protective barriers, lighting systems, locks, and Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS).

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48
Q

________ establish duties, roles, and responsibilities at individual assignments, checkpoints, gates, and guard posts.

A

Post Orders

Feedback: Post orders establish duties, roles, and responsibilities at individual assignments, checkpoints, gates, and guard posts.

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49
Q

___________provide supplemental guidance for physical security programs and establish procedures for emergency events as well as operational and administrative procedures.

A

Standard Operating Procedures

Feedback: SOPs provide supplemental guidance for physical security programs and establish procedures for emergency events as well as operational and administrative procedures.

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50
Q

True or False. Commanders may only implement measures according to the FPCON level in force at the time.

A

False

Feedback: The FPCON system allows commanders to be flexible and adaptable in developing and implementing antiterrorism measures that are more stringent than those mandated by higher authorities whenever FPCONS are invoked.

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51
Q

True or False. Commanders must comply with and integrate DoD physical security and installation access control policies into their FPCON plans.

A

True

Feedback: Commanders must comply with and integrate DoD physical security and installation access control policies into their FPCON plans.

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52
Q

True or False. Commanders educate their personnel on the insider threat to DoD elements and personnel.

A

True

Feedback: Commanders educate their personnel on the insider threat to DoD elements and personnel in accordance with the November 21, 2012 Presidential Memorandum and with DoDD 5205.16, The DoD Insider Threat Program.

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53
Q

Integrating layers of security to protect DoD assets

A

Security in depth

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54
Q

Guarding a specific asset or resource

A

Point Security

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55
Q

Protecting an entire area such as an installation or facility

A

Area Security

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56
Q

Designating islands of high security within a sea of moderate security

A

Enclaving

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57
Q

NOTE: Signage serves many purposes on DoD installations and facilities. Signs can be informational to communicate messages, such as directing individuals to various locations, or they can be regulatory and serve as a deterrent, such as establishing boundaries for restricted areas.

A

Note: Signage serves many purposes on DoD installations and facilities. Signs can be informational to communicate messages, such as directing individuals to various locations, or they can be regulatory and serve as a deterrent, such as establishing boundaries for restricted areas.

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58
Q

Fencing can be either permanent or temporary.

A
  1. Chain link is one of the most common types of permanent fencing material.
  2. Barbed wire can be used as permanent fencing or as a temporary barrier.
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59
Q

_____ wire, also known as razor wire, is a commercially manufactured wire coil of high-strength steel barbed wire, clipped together at intervals to form a cylinder

A

Concertina Wire

It is widely used to warehouses, prisons, military installations, and field locations. Concertina wire can be used as permanent fencing when used as an outrigger on top of a chain link fence. This is a common use in combat environments to prevent unauthorized entry into an area or installation.

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60
Q

_____ is commonly used as a temporary barrier around construction sites and may also be used for crowd control.

A

Plastic netting

The netting is a good resource for clearly identifying areas personnel should not enter.

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61
Q

_____ are considered active if they require action by personnel or equipment to permit entry.

A

Active Barriers

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62
Q

_____ an area inside and outside the perimeter fence or barrier of the protected area. This area provide increased effectiveness of physical barriers, allow security forces to have unimpeded observation, and prevent intruders from being able to hide.

A

Clear zones

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63
Q

Note: Site lighting is used for several purposes in support of physical security. Site lighting supplements other protective measures such as patrols, barriers, and alarms by illuminating approaches to an area, offering surveillance capability, deterring unauthorized entry, and enabling guard forces to observe activities inside or around an installation or facility and enabling them to conduct inspections of personnel and vehicles.

A

Note: Site lighting is used for several purposes in support of physical security. Site lighting supplements other protective measures such as patrols, barriers, and alarms by illuminating approaches to an area, offering surveillance capability, deterring unauthorized entry, and enabling guard forces to observe activities inside or around an installation or facility and enabling them to conduct inspections of personnel and vehicles.

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64
Q

Stand-by lighting

A

They are used when additional lighting is necessary and may be activated by an alarm or motion detector. Standby lighting is similar to continuous lighting except the lamps are not continuously lit.

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65
Q

Emergency Site-Lighting

A

lighting is used during a power failure or when regular lighting is not available for any reason. This type of lighting depends on alternative power sources such as batteries or generators.

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66
Q

Movable Site-Lighting

A

consists of manually operated, movable towers or searchlights that may be lit during hours of darkness or only as needed.

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67
Q

T or F: Barbed wire is also known as razor wire.

A

False

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68
Q

T or F: Jersey barriers may be placed around buildings to prevent vehicles from getting too close to the buildings.

A

True

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69
Q

T or F: Rapidly flowing rivers are considered active barriers.

A

False

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70
Q

Surface Lighting

A

This method is intended to display a silhouette of any person passing between the light source and the building or to show the contrast of a person inside the building.

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71
Q

Glare Projection

A

This method is intended to make the inside of a protected area difficult to see from outside the protected area.

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72
Q

Controlled Lighting

A

This method is intended to limit the width of the lighted strip outside the perimeter of a protected area so as not to interfere with adjoining property, nearby highways, railroads, navigable waters, or airports.

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73
Q

Emergency lighting depends upon the power supply of the utility company.

A

False

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74
Q

Standby lighting is the type of lighting used when the primary power source fails.

A

False

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75
Q

Contract Security Forces

A

Contract Security Forces are comprised of non-DoD personnel who are employees of private or commercial sources contracted by the federal government.

Remember, whether government or contract, all security forces have the same mission—to protect DoD assets.

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76
Q

T or F: Contract security forces may be either military or civilian

A

False

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77
Q

T or F: Military working dogs can seek, detect, defend their handlers, and guard suspects.

A

True

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78
Q

The Premise Control Unit (PCU) is essentially the “brain” of the _____

A

IDS

It is the centralized device that receives changes of state from IDE sensors, and transmits an alarm or trouble condition to the monitoring station.

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79
Q

_____ is to adequately supervise and protect the communications between the alarmed area and the monitoring station to prevent modification and substitution of the transmitted signal.

A

Transmission Security Line

In high security areas, 128 bit or higher National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) listed encryption may be required. Transmission line security is determined and dictated by the type of DoD asset being protected.

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80
Q

Manual System

A

The basic manual access control system is simply personal recognition. This may be employed where a small number of employees are involved.

These employees must be trained to recognize and respond to the presence of unauthorized personnel. Another form of manual access control is a person who verifies an acceptable form of identification such as the Common Access Card (CAC).

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81
Q

Note: The Common Access Card (CAC) is a controlled item and shall not be used in temporary badge issuance exchanges. Use of a badge such as an intelligence community badge as an identifying badge instead of an access credential is not prohibited in restricted areas by FIPS 201-1 or this regulation.

A

Note: The Common Access Card (CAC) is a controlled item and shall not be used in temporary badge issuance exchanges. Use of a badge such as an intelligence community badge as an identifying badge instead of an access credential is not prohibited in restricted areas by FIPS 201-1 or this regulation.

82
Q

Card swipe, with or without a personal identification number (PIN) is an example of a _____ access control system.

A

non-biometric

83
Q

Portrable Security

A

Portable security screening equipment can include items such as hand-held magnetometers, commonly referred to as wands, and vapor trace detectors.

Vapor trace detectors are extremely sophisticated pieces of equipment used to detect minute traces of the chemicals associated with explosive materials.

84
Q

Sensor/detector

A

Responds to a physical stimulus

85
Q

Premise Control Unit (PCU)

A

Receives change of state and transmits alarm

86
Q

Monitoring station

A

Central point for collecting alarm status

87
Q

Transmission line security

A

Assures communications between the alarmed area and the monitoring station

88
Q

T or F: A CCTV camera may capture activity missed by security force personnel

A

True

89
Q

T or F: A CCTV can act as an intrusion detection system (IDS) when combined with video motion detection.

A

True

90
Q

T or F: An advantage of CCTV is that environmental factors do not affect its performance.

A

False

91
Q

T or F: A CCTV is only as good as the people who operate it.

A

True

92
Q

T or F: The schedules for entry and exit inspections should be posted in view of all DoD personnel.

A

False

93
Q

T or F: All visitors with the appropriate access level to enter a controlled area are permitted unescorted entry.

A

False

94
Q

Magnetometer

A

Fixed equipment that detects metal objects

95
Q

Vapor trace detector

A

Detects traces of explosive material

96
Q

Portable equipment that detects metal objects

A

Wand

97
Q

X-ray machine

A

Detects prohibited items

98
Q

What policy program _____ outlines the regulations for safeguarding information which includes lock and key systems?

A

DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1 through 4

DoD information Security Program

99
Q

Master Key Systems

A

A master key system is a system with two or more levels of key operation where there is a single master key that fits all of the locks in a facility or group of facilities. Examples of acceptable use of master key systems in the DoD include general office areas and barracks.

Note: The primary advantage of a master key system is the convenience to its owner or manager. If someone gets locked out of their living area late at night, a facility manager can easily open it using a master key.

100
Q

Lock Components (3 parts)

A

Although there are many different types of locks, they all share three components. They are the locking device, the switching device, and the operating mechanism.

OTHER INFO:

The locking device is the part of the system that physically keeps the area or container secured or locked. Examples of locking devices are latches and bolts.

The switching device is the element that authorizes the locking device to open. Examples of switching devices include keys, cards, combinations, or biometrics such as fingerprints, iris scans, or voice recognition.

The operating mechanism is the part of the system that interacts with the switching device to allow or deny entry into a given area or container. A cylinder is an example of an operating mechanism.

101
Q

Mortise Locks

A

Mortise locks are typically found in building entrance doors, office doors, and storage closets. The most common type has a doorknob or thumb latch on each side of the door. Either knob will operate the latch.

102
Q

Cylindrical Lock

A

The cylindrical lock is the most common of all door locks in use today. They are used to secure office doors, storerooms, and exterior doors. It is named for the locking cylinder located in the knob or lever. Some cylindrical locks require a key to lock and unlock them.

103
Q

Hight Security (padlocks)

A

DoD-authorized padlocks used for high security protection include the S&G 833C and the S&G 951

104
Q

Pin Tumblers

A

The pin tumbler is a lock mechanism that uses pins of varying lengths to prevent the lock from opening without the correct key. Pin tumblers are most commonly employed in cylinder locks, but may also be found in tubular locks. Different countermeasures can be built into a pin tumbler cylinder to make it more resistant to picking.

105
Q

Note: Appoint a key and lock custodian to ensure proper custody and handling of keys and locks used for the protection of classified information. While the key and lock custodian has specific responsibilities, everyone is responsible for ensuring keys are properly safeguarded.

A

Note: Appoint a key and lock custodian to ensure proper custody and handling of keys and locks used for the protection of classified information. While the key and lock custodian has specific responsibilities, everyone is responsible for ensuring keys are properly safeguarded.

106
Q

S&G 2937

A

The S&G 2937 is the only approved mechanical combination lock under Federal Specification FF-L-2937, used for storage of secret and confidential information under field conditions and in military platforms, AA&E, and other sensitive DoD assets.

107
Q

Note: Many types of storage containers would fall under the non-GSA approved category. Some examples of non-GSA approved containers are money safes, record safes, and insulated file cabinets. These containers may be burglary resistant or even fire resistant. For storage of classified information, the DoD does not authorize the use of non-GSA- approved containers, unless approved by heads of the DoD components with notification to the Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence, or (USD(I)), as outlined in DoD 5220.22-M, the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).

A

Note: Many types of storage containers would fall under the non-GSA approved category. Some examples of non-GSA approved containers are money safes, record safes, and insulated file cabinets. These containers may be burglary resistant or even fire resistant. For storage of classified information, the DoD does not authorize the use of non-GSA- approved containers, unless approved by heads of the DoD components with notification to the Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence, or (USD(I)), as outlined in DoD 5220.22-M, the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).

108
Q

These containers are used to store both classified material and Communications Security (COMSEC) material.

A

GSA-approved

109
Q

The combination padlock model that meets the current Federal Specification?

A

The combination padlock model that meets the current Federal Specification, FF-P-110, is the S&G 8077AD. The key-operated padlock model that meets the current Military Specification, MIL-P-43607, is the S&G 951. However, the S&G 833C is still authorized for use.

110
Q

T or F: GSA-approved security containers must clearly display the GSA-approved label on the face of the container in order to be used to store classified information.

A

True

Labels for containers manufactured prior to October 1990 either have a silver background with black lettering or a black background with silver lettering.

111
Q

GSA-approved containers can be compromised through:

A

• Unauthorized entry
• Neutralization (drilled or cut open) by properly trained and equipped personnel
• Unauthorized modifications such as drilling, attaching items to the outside of the
container, or painting the container an unauthorized color
• Environmental damage, such as rust

112
Q

TOP SECRET storage

A

Top Secret information must be stored in a GSA-approved security container, modular vault, vault, or secure room. No matter what container is used, supplemental protection is required for Top Secret information.

Note: If Top Secret information is stored in a vault or secure room, the alarm response time must be within 15 minutes if the area is covered by security-in-depth or within 5 minutes if the area is not covered by security-in-depth.

113
Q

Use Form _____ Security Container Information, to track the location of the storage container as well as the contact information for each individual who knows the combination and should be contacted in the event the container is found open and unattended.

A

SF-700

The SF-700 must be stored in a sealed, opaque envelope inside the control drawer. The SF-700 forms can be ordered by calling Federal Supply Service customer assistance.

114
Q

Use Form _____, Activity Security Checklist, to record end-of-day security checks which are conducted to ensure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified information are secured at the end of each working day.

A

SF-701

115
Q

Use Form _____, Security Container Check Sheet, to track each opening and closing of storage containers. If there is an open container violation, this form helps to narrow the scope of inquiry.

A

SF-702

116
Q

Neutralization

A

When a lock freezes, or if you forget the combination or lose the key, only properly trained and equipped personnel shall neutralize the lock or container by drilling or cutting it open. Neutralization must be done by a GSA Authorized Safe & Vault Technician using methods outlined in Federal Standard 809B, Neutralization and Repair of GSA Approved Containers. Neutralization may affect the container’s certification, so the container must be repaired to its original condition so it may be recertified.

117
Q

T or F: Class V and Class VI are the only models of GSA- approved storage containers that are currently being manufactured for the storage of classified information.

A

True

When you purchase a new GSA- approved security container, you will only be able to purchase a Class V or Class VI container. However, other classes of containers previously approved by the GSA for the storage of classified information may continue to be used provided they are still serviceable.

118
Q

T or F: Store classified information with sensitive items or weapons.

A

False

Sensitive items and weapons may not be stored with classified information. Doing so could make the classified storage container more of a target for thieves looking for valuables.

119
Q

Drainage

A

Drainage structures and water passages must be barred and welded at the intersections when the structures or passages cross the fence line, the cross- sectional area exceeds 96 square inches, and any dimension exceeds 6 inches. This is to prevent anyone from crawling into the area.

120
Q

Who provides construction and security

requirements for SCIFs?

A

Director of National Intelligence (DNI)

The Director of National Intelligence (DNI) provides the construction and security requirements for SCIFs in the Director of Central Intelligence Directive (DCID) 6/9 Manual, Physical Security Standards for Sensitive Compartmented Information Facilities.

121
Q

Who provides accreditation for SCIFs?

A

Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

The Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) provides accreditation for SCIFs.

122
Q

This group meets at least quarterly and is responsible for developing and refining terrorism threat assessments based on the threats against DoD assets. They also coordinates and disseminates threat warnings, reports, and summaries.

A

Threat Working Group (TWG)

This group comprises an Antiterrorism Officer, the Installation Commander or designated representative, members of the staff, tenant unit representatives, law enforcement representatives, and the Intelligence Community (IC).

123
Q

This working group is responsible for developing and providing program execution, and oversight recommendations, which include identifying and prioritizing mission essential critical assets and infrastructures and assessing their vulnerability and risk to human error, natural disasters, or intentional physical or cyber attack.

A

Defense Critical Infrastructure Program (DCIP) working group

This group also develops strategies for remediating or mitigating vulnerabilities and risks to critical assets and infrastructures.

124
Q

Law Enforcement Officials

A

Local, state, and Federal law enforcement officials are vital to the physical security program.

Effective liaison with these officials fosters good working relationships so we can coordinate antiterrorism concerns and efforts, prepare an emergency response, and address criminal incidents. Coordination activities support mutual understanding of jurisdiction and authority.

125
Q

These individuals facilitate the process for identifying critical information, identifying threats to specific assets, assessing vulnerabilities to assets, analyzing risk to specific assets and to national security as a whole, and assist in developing countermeasures against potential threats to national security and other DoD assets.

A

The Operations Security (OPSEC) Officer is an integral part of the physical security team.

126
Q

T or F: Certain types of lighting can incapacitate an intruder.

A

True

127
Q

T or F: Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) prevent unauthorized entry.

A

False

128
Q

T or F: Securing man-passable openings is one of the most overlooked physical security protective measures.

A

True

129
Q

T or F: Cost and risk must always be considered when planning which physical security measures to use in a facility or installation.

A

True

130
Q

T or F: CCTV can deter loss, theft, or misuse of government property and resources.

A

True

131
Q

Physical Security Review Board (PSRB)

A

Installation commanders and facility directors must consider threats, assess vulnerabilities, and plan for the protection of assets by clearly defining protective measures required to safeguard DoD assets in a Physical Security Plan. These plans must be constant, practical, flexible to the mission, and responsive to the needs of the installation commander or facility director.

132
Q

Post orders

A

Typically establish duties, roles, and responsibilities at individual assignments, checkpoints, gates, and guard posts. Post Orders allow for uniformity and ensure that everyone involved knows the procedures

133
Q

What define emergency delegations of authority and orders of succession for key positions; identify and provide for alert notification, movement, and training of continuity staffs; and address information technology and communications support to continuity operations.

A

Continuity of Operations Plan (COOP)

A COOP typically includes provisions for the complete or partial loss of operational facilities; utilities such as electricity, water, and sewer; telephones and other communications systems; computer systems or computerized components of other systems; and transportation systems.

134
Q

What exists the need for military installations and facilities to enter into formal agreements with outside activities or agencies to assist in implementing a physical security program.?

A

Memorandum of Agreement or Understanding (MOA/MOU)

These formal agreements can take the form of a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) or a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).

135
Q

Within the DoD Antiterrorism Program, there are AT tools the DoD uses to safeguard DoD assets. Two of these tools are?

A
  • DoD Terrorist Threat Levels

- Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs)

136
Q

Terrorist threat levels are based on a continuous intelligence analysis of a minimum of four (4) elements pertaining to terrorist groups:

A
  • operational capability
  • intentions
  • activity
  • operational environment.
137
Q

Who sets the DoD Terrorist Threat Level identifying potential risk to DoD interests in a particular country, regardless of whether U.S. personnel are present in the country?

A

Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

138
Q

Note: DoD Terrorist Threat Levels should not be confused with the Threat Conditions associated with the National Homeland Security Advisory System. DoD Terrorist Threat Levels are identified as Low, Moderate, Significant, and High.

A

Note: DoD Terrorist Threat Levels should not be confused with the Threat Conditions associated with the National Homeland Security Advisory System. DoD Terrorist Threat Levels are identified as Low, Moderate, Significant, and High.

139
Q

T or F: Combatant Commanders issue both DoD Terrorist Threat Levels and FPCONs.

A

True

140
Q

T or F: Both the DIA and COCOMs issue FPCONs.

A

False

141
Q

T or F:

A

Terrorist Threat Levels are based on information about terrorist groups such as their operational capability and their intentions.

142
Q

These visits are conducted to validate the baseline security posture and provide advice on how to meet requirements. They are frequently used when personnel first assume security responsibilities, or as a prelude to the formal inspection process. They are conducted either by peers or by senior agency personnel in the chain-of-command.

A

Staff Assist Visits (SAVs), also referred to as assist visits or visits

They are conducted either by peers or by senior agency personnel in the chain-of-command. Assist visits can be broad and of indeterminate scope. Each situation is different and specific to the needs of the individual activity or organization.

143
Q

What evaluate and assess the effectiveness and efficiency of the security program?

A

Inspections

144
Q

Inspections evaluate and assess the effectiveness and efficiency of the security program. The two types of inspections are

A

management

self-inspections

compliance inspections.

145
Q

Internal reviews conducted by members of the organization, usually with the aid of a checklist.

A

management & self-inspections

146
Q

Formal reviews that evaluate and assess the effectiveness and efficiency of the security program.

A

Compliance inspections

147
Q

Inspectors Role

A

Their goal is to ensure that DoD resources are protected from threats. To meet this goal, they identify existing or potential weaknesses or security violations and they teach, help, and advise on correct policy and procedures.

148
Q

Ballast

A

A ballast is a device used with an electric discharge light source to obtain the necessary circuit conditions of voltage, current, and waveform for starting and operating. The ballast ensures the lamp stays lit by managing the distribution of energy throughout the fixture.

149
Q

There are four types of exterior security lighting used by DoD installations and facilities:

A
  • Continuous
  • Standby
  • Emergency
  • Portable
150
Q

In planning security lighting, you must consider several factors about the placement and positioning of light fixtures. These factors include:

A
  • Illuminance
  • Height of the light fixture
  • Direct glare
  • Light trespass
  • Light uniformity
151
Q

Which component in a light fixture changes the direction and controls the distribution of light rays?

A

Lens

152
Q

Which component in a light fixture is used with an electric discharge light source to obtain the necessary circuit conditions of voltage, current, and waveform for starting and operating?

A

Ballast

153
Q

What is the technical term for a light fixture?

A

Luminaire

154
Q

Which policy document should you consult for specific lighting requirements for areas containing DoD sensitive conventional AA&E?

A

DoDM 5100.76, Physical Security of Sensitive Conventional Arms, Ammunition and Explosives (AA&E)

Feedback: DoDM 5100.76 provides specific lighting requirements for areas containing DoD sensitive conventional AA&E.

155
Q

Which of these factors allows security personnel to identify colors
accurately?

A

Color rendition

Feedback: Color rendition allows security personnel to identify colors accurately. Natural daylight and incandescent lighting have a maximum color rendition index (CRI) value of 100. The closer a lamp’s CRI rating is to 100, the better its ability to show true colors to the human eye.

156
Q

Which of these considerations do you think would be most important in ensuring security forces can clearly see the identification of visitors at checkpoints in the evening hours?

A

Vertical illuminance

Feedback: Vertical illuminance is usually more important than horizontal illuminance. It is especially important to have vertical illuminance on people’s faces for identification at security checkpoints.

157
Q

Which type of light fixture should be used to light an airplane apron?

A

Floodlight or projector, full cut-off

Feedback: Floodlight or projector, full cut-off, light fixtures are used to light airport aprons and areas adjacent to residential neighborhoods.

158
Q

Which type of light fixture should be used to light large areas such as railroad yards and large parking lots?

A

High-mast lighting

Feedback: High-mast lighting is used to light large areas such as railroad yards, large parking lots, industrial yards, and highway interchanges.

159
Q

Which type of light fixture should be used to light pedestrian walkways?

A

Post-top

Feedback: Post-top light fixtures are used to light pedestrian walkways and pole heights range from 4 to 10 feet.

160
Q

Which type of lamps can be used in exterior locations and are more energy efficient than HID lamps?

A

Solid state lighting (SSL)

Feedback: Solid state lighting, also referred to as LED lights, can be used in exterior locations and are more energy efficient than HID lamps.

161
Q

What kind of lamps are metal halide and mercury vapor lamps?

A

High-intensity discharge (HID)

Feedback: Metal halide and mercury vapor are both HID lamps. Metal halide lamps can be used in both exterior and interior locations where color recognition and human appearance are important, such as with CCTV systems. Mercury vapor lamps should never be used.

162
Q

Which lamp has an average rated life of over 100,000 hours, which is by far the highest?

A

Induction

Feedback: The average rated life for induction lighting is over 100,000 hours.

163
Q

In order to be effective, an electronic security systems (ESS) should be able to detect an intrusion and allow for a quick response to it, to prevent any potential compromise. This is referred to as the:

A

Detect, Delay, Respond Principle.

164
Q

T or F: An ESS is a component of an overall physical protection system.

A

True

Feedback: An ESS is a component of the physical security equipment component of an overall physical protection system.

165
Q

T or F: An effective ESS must ensure that the time between detection of an intrusion and response by security forces is less than the time it takes for damage or compromise of assets to occur.

A

True

Feedback: An effective ESS should operate on the Detect, Delay, Respond principle, which ensures that the time between detection of an intrusion and response by security forces is less than the time it takes for damage or compromise of assets to occur.

166
Q

You are tasked with planning an ESS for a DoD facility. What regulatory guidance document(s) should be your primary reference?

A

UFC, 4-021-02, Electronic Security Systems

Feedback: The primary guidance for ESS is UFC, 4-021-02, Electronic Security Systems. You can find additional guidance in regulations governing specific types of areas, as well as in Component-specific guidance.

167
Q

T or F: You must consider operational and maintenance costs of an ESS when comparing the value of an asset to be protected versus the cost of the ESS to protect an asset.

A

True

Feedback: Operational and maintenance costs of an ESS must also be considered when comparing the value of an asset to be protected versus the cost of the ESS to protect an asset.

168
Q

______ is an automated system that interfaces with locking mechanisms to momentarily permit access to a controlled area. It does this by unlocking doors, gates, or turnstiles after verifying entry credentials, such as a user’s identification card.

A

Automated Access Control Systems (AACS)

169
Q

With _____ devices, you must enter a recognized code or PIN on a keypad to access a controlled area

A

coded devices

Note: Keypad devices are reliable, compact, user-friendly, and easy to maintain, repair, or replace. They are also much less expensive than other types of AACS.

170
Q

_____ devices allow an individual to access a controlled area after swiping a recognized credential in or near the device.

A

Credential devices

171
Q

There are four types of credentials that are currently in use.

A
  • smart card or microchip card
  • magnetic stripe card
  • the proximity card
  • Weigand, or embedded wire, card.
172
Q

T or F: One advantage of credential devices is that cards and card readers are reliable.

A

True

173
Q

Among the four types of credential devices, which are more convenient than card readers because they require only that a card be placed near the device rather than swiped against or inserted into it.

A

Proximity or Contactless readers

For example, you could leave the card in your purse and just wave your purse near the device.

174
Q

_____ devices allow individuals access to a controlled area after they display a specific biological characteristic into the device, which compares it to a stored characteristic

A

Biometric Devices

A variety of biological characteristics are used to identify individuals for authorized access to controlled areas. These include: hand geometry, fingerprint, facial recognition, iris pattern, voice verification, and retinal scanning.

175
Q

Which AACS feature would you implement to mitigate the risk of someone giving his or her credentials to another person to access a controlled area?

A

Anti- passback

Feedback: Implementing anti-passback will mitigate the risk of someone giving his or her credentials to another person to access a controlled area.

176
Q

Which AACS feature would you implement to prevent individual cardholders from entering a selected empty controlled area unaccompanied?

A

Two person rule

Feedback: The two-person rule prevents individual cardholders from entering a selected empty controlled area unless accompanied by at least one other person.

177
Q

Which AACS feature would you implement to prevent a person from following another person closely in order to gain ingress through the same portal when the authorized person’s credential grants access?

A

Anti-tailgating

Feedback: Anti-tailgating aims to prevent a person from following another closely to enter through the same portal when the authorized person’s credential grants access.

178
Q

Which AACS feature would you implement to facilitate egress from a controlled area?

A

Request-to-exit

Feedback: Request-to-exit devices ensure that individuals can exit controlled areas.

179
Q

_____ is an automated system that detects an intrusion of a specified site, facility, or perimeter and triggers an alarm. An IDS consists of interior or exterior sensors and a premise control unit (PCU).

A

Intrusion Detection Systems

180
Q

IDS Sensor Considerations

There are many things you must consider when thinking about what type of sensor to use for an IDS. You should ask yourself these questions.

A

What is the probability that this sensor will detect an intrusion, and which types of intrusions?

Can the sensor be activated by nuisances and weather? How can nuisance and environmental alarms be reduced?

How much does a particular sensor cost, and how does that compare to the asset being protected?

What protection is available to protect IDS monitoring equipment, such as equipment racks and electrical equipment rooms?

Can the sensor be tested remotely to verify sensor operation?

Is there anything obstructing the sensor from activating?

181
Q

Once an IDS has been installed, you must conduct what type of test to physically verify that the system is working properly?

A

Acceptance Test

182
Q

Also known as an IDS local processor or intrusion panel, is an electronic device that continuously monitors the alarm status of local IDS and duress devices and transmits alarm conditions to a remote monitoring station.

A

Premise Control Unit

183
Q

Exterior IDS sensors come in three general types.

A

Fence-associated sensors detect when an intruder cuts, climbs, or lifts a fence.

Buried line sensors are buried underground to detect intruder-induced ground motion.

Open terrain, or line-of-sight, sensors detect intruders that cross the sensors’ path in open areas.

184
Q

An IDS can also have interior sensors. There are two general types:

A

Interior point sensors, which monitor the inside of buildings, generally at entry points such as doors and windows.

Interior volumetric sensors, which monitor interior building spaces such as rooms and hallways to detect intruders.

185
Q

Which of the following should you conduct to test the placement of IDS sensors?

A

Acceptance test

Feedback: You should conduct an acceptance test to test the placement of IDS sensors to ensure they are in the proper place and that there are no dead zones.

186
Q

Which of the following can be caused by an animal activating an IDS sensor?

A

Nuisance alarm

Feedback: When an animal activates an IDS, it can trigger a nuisance alarm. Similarly, certain weather events can trigger an environmental alarm on an IDS.

187
Q

Which of the following is part of an acceptance test?

A

PCU test

Feedback: In an acceptance test, you should test the functioning of the PCU and all switches, sensors, and alarms.

188
Q

Which type of exterior IDS sensor is good for detecting intrusion by digging and tunneling?

A

Buried line sensor

Feedback: The fiber optic cable sensor is a buried line sensor that is effective in detecting digging and tunneling.

189
Q

Which exterior IDS sensor is NOT vulnerable to bridging?

A

Open terrain sensor

Feedback: Buried line and fence-associated sensors are both vulnerable to bridging. Open terrain sensors are not.

190
Q

Which exterior IDS sensor is usually the least expensive?

A

Fenced associated sensor

Feedback: Fence-associated sensors are generally the least expensive types of exterior sensors.

191
Q

Which exterior IDS sensor is also known as a line-of-sight sensor?

A

Open terrain sensor

Feedback: Open terrain sensors are also called line-of-sight sensors.

192
Q

Which type of sensor would be most effective in protecting a permanently secured window?

A

Glass break sensor

Feedback: A glass break sensor would be the most effective sensor for a permanently secured window because the intruder would most likely have to physically break the window to enter.

193
Q

Which sensor detects heat signatures of intruders and is the most common interior volumetric sensor?

A

Passive infrared sensor

Feedback: Passive infrared sensors detect heat signatures of intruders. They are the most common interior volumetric sensor.

194
Q

Which sensor is used on doors, roof hatches, and windows?

A

Balanced magnetic switch (BMS) / High security switch (HSS)

Feedback: Balanced magnetic switches (BMS) or high security switches (HSS) are used on doors, roof hatches, and windows.

195
Q

CCTV systems have four primary capabilities.

A

First, they can help assess the validity of alarms.

Second, they can help with access control.

Third, CCTV systems perform a surveillance function.

Finally, CCTV systems can archive information for use as evidence.

196
Q

(CCTV) Monitoring a military exchange

A

Surveillance

Feedback: CCTV systems enable security personnel to conduct surveillance of multiple locations from a centralized remote viewing area.

197
Q

Viewing a CCTV monitor to determine security force response to an alarm

A

Alarm assessment

Feedback: Connecting a CCTV system to an IDS alarm allows security personnel to visually assess a situation to determine what type of response may be required.

198
Q

Viewing individuals on a CCTV camera to grant or deny access to a facility

A

Access control

Feedback: Connecting a CCTV system to an AACS allows security personnel to visually identify persons and vehicles requesting entry before they release a controlled portal, such as a door, turnstile, gate, or vehicle barrier.

199
Q

A facility owns and operates the dispatch center and security forces.

A

Proprietary Station

Feedback: In proprietary station monitoring, a facility owns and operates the dispatch center and security forces.

200
Q

The local police agency monitors a facility’s alarms.

A

Police Connection

Feedback: In police connection monitoring, the local police agency monitors a facility’s alarms, and police personnel respond to alarms.

201
Q

Owned by a commercial firm and not usually located on the facility being monitored.

A

Central Station

Feedback: In central station monitoring, a commercial firm owns and operates the central station, which is not usually located on the facility being monitored.

202
Q

Requires roving security forces.

A

Local Alarm

Feedback: Local alarm monitoring requires roving security forces to hear or see and respond to audible or visual alarms.