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Physical Agents > Physical Agents II Exam 1 > Flashcards

Physical Agents II Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

net gain of electrons =

A

negative charge

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2
Q

net loss of electrons =

A

positive charge

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3
Q

an anode is net

A

positive

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4
Q

a cathode is net

A

negative

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5
Q

an anode attracts

A

anions: negative charge

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6
Q

a cathode attracts

A

cations: postive charge

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7
Q

what is voltage?

A

potential difference in distribution of ions

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8
Q

if there is increased voltage what happens to the ions

A

they are pushed faster

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9
Q

what is current flow

A

the flow of charged particles (ions or electrons)

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10
Q

current flow is measured as

A

the number of electrons or ions that pass a certain point in a specified period of time

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11
Q

current flow is ______ to electron flow

A

opposite

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12
Q

current flow moves from

A

anode to cathode

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13
Q

electron flows from

A

cathode to anode

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14
Q

Current (I)=

A

voltage/resistance

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15
Q

what type of relationship exists between resistance and current

A

an inverse relationship, as resistance increases, current decreases

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16
Q

a longer pathway = ______ resistance

A

increased

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17
Q

direct current =

A

unidirectional current flow that lasts for at least 1 second

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18
Q

in DC which electrode is good for scar tissue

A

cathode

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19
Q

DC cathode

A

alkaline effect
attracts hydrogen
breaks collagen bonds by liquifying proteins
promotes fibroblast migration
depolarizes excitable cells

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20
Q

DC anode

A

acid affect
attracts oxygen
hyperpolarizes excitable cells
kills bacteria- attracts neutrophils and macrophages
coagulates proteins

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21
Q

DC anode

A

acid affect
attracts oxygen
hyperpolarizes excitable cells
kills bacteria- attracts neutrophils and macrophages
coagulates proteins

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22
Q

which electrode in DC is good for infectious wounds

A

anode

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23
Q

what is alternating current?

A

continuous current flow alternating direction (+/-) at least once per second
the number of electrons that pass in each direction is normally equal

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24
Q

what is AC used for

A

stimulation of nervous and muscular tissue
in other countries used for denervated tissue

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25
Q

what is pulsed current?

A

unidirectional or bidirectional current flow with periodic interruptions
lasts for only ms or less

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26
Q

what is the most common form of therapeutic e-stim

A

pulsed current

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27
Q

what treatment wouldn’t be appropriate to use pulsed current for?

A

iontophoresis

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28
Q

if you have an unbalanced asymmetrical current

A

you have more time in +/- than the other

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29
Q

constant current=

A

current stays fixed even if resistance or impedance changes: voltage varies

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30
Q

constant voltage=

A

voltage will remain constant and current will change in proportion to resistance or impedance changes

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31
Q

elapsed time from onset of stimulus to peak amplitude

A

rise time

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32
Q

elapsed time from peak amplitude to termination of stimulus

A

decay time

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33
Q

total current =

A

sum of peak amperage, pulse frequency and pulse duration

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34
Q

low frequency Hz

A

0-1000 Hz`

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35
Q

medium frequency Hz

A

1000-10000Hz
russian falls in this category

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36
Q

russian frequency =

A

2500-5000 Hz

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37
Q

the higher the frequency the more _____ in muscle is seen

A

fatigue

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38
Q

frequency and recruitment of Type I fibers

A

10-20 Hz

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39
Q

frequency and recruitment of Type II fibers

A

30-60 Hz

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40
Q

in a voluntary contraction which motor units are recruited first

A

the small, slow, and deep motor units

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41
Q

in electrical stimulation which motor units are recruited first

A

large and fast motor units

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42
Q

contraindications to ESTIM

A

severe cardiac conditions
demand type pacemaker
active osteomyelitis
active bleeding or risk of hemorrhage
carotid bodies/laryngeal/pharyngeal mm
phrenic nerve, eyes, gonads
when AROM is contraindicated
pregnancy (over lumbopelvic region, uterine area or if they have had multiple miscarriages

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43
Q

precautions to ESTIM

A

sensory loss
areas of scarring
thick adipose tissue
severe edema that is water based
over malignancy/neoplasm
open wounds
severe depression
mild disoriented patients
superficial metal

44
Q

transdermal drug delivery using low voltage DC to move ions across a dermal barrier

A

Iontophoresis

45
Q

how does iontophoresis work to drive ions through the skin

A

increases the permeability of the stratum corneum

46
Q

how deep down iontophoresis penetrate

A

3-20 mm

47
Q

what type of current is used for iontophoresis

A

Direct Current

48
Q

increase in porosity of epidermis in response to E-stim=

A

electroporation

49
Q

what happens to the skin porosity after E-stim application

A

temporary increase in porosity

50
Q

what is electromigration and what is it based on

A

movement of ions through tissue
volume flow not just diffusion

51
Q

human skin has a net ______ charge

A

negative

52
Q

what is the driving force behind iontophroesis?

A

repulsion of like charges

53
Q

most common mA minutes for iontophoresis

A

40mA minutes - 80 mA minutes

54
Q

most units in iontophoresis don’t exceed ____ mA for intensity

A

4 mA

55
Q

the more mA the patient can tolerate the ______ the treatment will be

A

shorter

56
Q

skin reaction with cathode in iontophoresis

A

alkaline reaction from sodium hydroxide under the cathode
caustic

57
Q

skin reaction with anode in iontophoresis

A

acidic reaction from hydrochloric acid under the anode
more comfortable than cathode reaction

58
Q

current density shouldn’t exceed ___ for the cathode (-)

A

0.5mA/cm2

59
Q

current density shouldn’t exceed ___ for the anode (+)

A

1.0mA/cm2

60
Q

how are the electrodes set up for iontophoresis

A

in a monopolar set up

61
Q

the active electrode is ____

A

smaller

62
Q

the dispersive electrode is of ______ charge and _____

A

opposite charge and it is larger than the active electrode

63
Q

which medication is used for inflammation iontophoresis

A

dexamethasone
negative polarity

64
Q

which medication is used for calcium deposits iontophoresis

A

acetic acid (acetate)
negative polarity

65
Q

which medication is used for anesthetic iontophoresis

A

lidocaine
+ polarity

66
Q

which medication is used for scars and iontophoresis

A

iodine
negative polarity

67
Q

when in the treatment session is iontophoresis typically done

A

at the end of the session

68
Q

what reaction from iontophoresis should be examined by a physician

A

a blister

69
Q

when strengthening during E-Stim the MVIC has to be ≥

A

60%

70
Q

frequency when strengthening

A

35+ pps

71
Q

phase duration for strengthening

A

200-300 ms

72
Q

cycle time for strengthening

A

1:5 ratio of on:off

73
Q

treatment time/dosage for strengthening in E-stim

A

want 10-20 strong contractions

74
Q

frequency for Russian strengthening

A

2500 Hz with 50 bps

75
Q

phase duration for Russian strengthening

A

20O us (determined by bps)

76
Q

cycle time for Russian strengthening

A

1:5 ratio

77
Q

treatment time for Russian strengthening

A

want 10-20 good contractions

78
Q

what is a typical progression for E-stim and strengthening/russian strengthening

A

increasing the amplitude

79
Q

frequency for endurance

A

<50 pps, we don’t want them to fatigue so we want a submax tetanic contraction

80
Q

endurance cycle time should be closer to

A

1:1
don’t need rest time

81
Q

what cycle time should you use if the patient is pretty strong already and you’re working on endurance

A

a 1:3

82
Q

progression for endurance E-stim

A

cycle time less and less, increase the # of contractions in a time frame, increase sessions/day

83
Q

what don’t you need when the purpose for E-Stim is motor control cutaneous

A

a muscle contraction

84
Q

phase duration for motor control (cutaneous)

A

< 200 microseconds

85
Q

amplitude for motor control (cutaneous)

A

sub-motor

86
Q

what muscles should be stimulated for a shoulder subluxation

A

anterior deltoid and supraspinatus
some say to do posterior delt and supraspinatus

87
Q

what nerve is targeted with E-stim and orthotics (AFOs)

A

the fibular n

88
Q

how do we reduce spasm with E-stim

A

reciprocal inhibition through fatigue
do not use motor point if cutaneous usage

89
Q

cycle time to reduce edema:

A

1:1, activate the muscle pump

90
Q

what are we preventing when using E-stim to stimulate denervated muscle

A

keep out fatty infiltrates and atrophy

91
Q

which current type is commonly used for denervated muscle

A

DC
sometimes AC with a long enough phase duration

92
Q

symmetrical biphasic is good for what:

A

strengthening, endurance and motor control

93
Q

symmetrical biphasic is not acceptable for ______

A

wound healing

94
Q

frequency for muscle spasm

A

50+

95
Q

frequency of 50 should be used when the goal is:

A

strengthening or edema

96
Q

amplitude should provide tetanic contraction: submaximal when the goal is

A

endurance, edema and muscle spasm

97
Q

cycle time ratio for edema control and muscle spasm

A

1:3 to 1:1

98
Q

Russian stimulation is best for ____ and can be good for _______

A

strengthening, endurance

99
Q

Russian should not be used for

A

muscle spasm or wound healing

100
Q

amplitude with motor control should always be

A

activity dependent: enough to cause a contraction after all voluntary movement has occurred

101
Q

High-Volt E-stim is great for

A

wound healing and muscle spasms, good for edema

102
Q

what is lower when you use High-Volt E-stim

A

the phase duration
100-200

103
Q

polarity for High-Volt E-stim when used for wound healing

A

will be wound dependent

104
Q

Electrode Configuration for High-Volt E-stim for wound healing

A

monopolar

105
Q

Electrode Configuration for High-Volt E-stim for muscle spasm

A

bipolar

106
Q

Electrode Configuration for High-Volt E-stim for edema when using sub-motor versus a tetanic

A

monopolar for submotor and bipolar for tetanic contraction

107
Q

DC electrode configuration for wound healing

A

monopolar

Physical Agents (3 decks)

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