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Physical Agents > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Normal Wound Healing requires ___ calories/kg of body weight per day

A

30-35

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2
Q

Patients with an open wound healing requires ____ mL of fluid per kilogram of BW/day

A

30-35 mL

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3
Q

Normal serum albumin

A

2.5-5.5 g/dL

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4
Q

normal serum prealbumin:

A

16-40 mg/dL

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5
Q

Normal Total Lymphocyte Count (TLC):

A

Normal ≥ 2000 cells/mm^3

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6
Q

Normal Blood Glucose/A1c

A

BG= 70-115 mg/dL
A1c < 6.0%

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7
Q

normal Creatinine

A

.1-1.2 mg/dL

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8
Q

known diabetics should have their A1c lower than

A

7

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9
Q

Wound Size Direct Measure

A

Length x Width x Depth

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10
Q

Tunneling

A

narrow passages created by separation/ destruction of tissues along facial planes

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11
Q

undermining

A

occurs when tissue edges erode leaving a large wound with a small opening

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12
Q

Sinus Tract

A

elongated cavity allowing purulent material from an abscess to drain to body surface

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13
Q

clock method head/proximal

A

is at 12 oclock

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14
Q

clock method feet/distal

A

6:00 oclock

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15
Q

fissures

A

described by clefts/openings on each side

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16
Q

granulation tissue

A

viable, bubbly bright beefy red tissue
good oxygen supply

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17
Q

pink or dusty granulation tissue

A

ischemia or infection and is documented as “clean non-granular pink tissue”

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18
Q

Necrotic tissue

A

non-viable tissue
breeding ground for bacteria, document by color, consistency and adherence

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19
Q

slough

A

tan, yellow, green
stringy or mucinous
ease that is pulls away from wound base - non adherent, loosely adherent (some white) or firmly adherent

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20
Q

when is eschar removed

A

when it covers some of the wound but if it is full eschar we won’t touch it, hoping that it falls off

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21
Q

viable adipose tissue

A

yellow, globular, slippery

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22
Q

non viable adipose tissue

A

grayish. hard/crunchy

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23
Q

viable fascia

A

shiny, white, thick/thin sheath like

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24
Q

non-viable fascia:

A

grayish, slimy, disintegrating

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25
Q

viable bone tissue

A

white and solid

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26
Q

non-viable bone

A

yellow, brown, soft

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27
Q

if the wound is down the level of the bone …

A

possible osteomyelitis and must be referred to a doctor

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28
Q

viable tendon

A

shiny, white, fibrous, cord like with straight collagen fibers

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29
Q

non-viable tendons

A

dull white/yellow/gray

30
Q

viable ligaments

A

fibrous flat, yellow/white

31
Q

non-viable ligaments

A

dull yellow/gray

32
Q

viable muscle tissue

A

dull red, pink, striated, may contract when touched

33
Q

non-viable muscle

A

grayish, loose fibers

34
Q

how do you distinguish nerves from tendons

A

nerves don’t move during muscle contractions

35
Q

tissue perimeter is the _____

A

periwound

36
Q

sudamonous odor:

A

foul, sweet, pungent

37
Q

painful wounds have _______ blood flow

A

decreased

38
Q

Stage I pressure ulcer

A

nonblachable erythema
skin intact
blue/purple appearance
change in local tissue temperature, tissue consistency and sensation, boggy skin

39
Q

Stage II pressure ulcer

A

superficial ulcer
BLISTER

40
Q

stage III pressure ulcer

A

deep ulcer
crater
may have undermining
NECROSIS

41
Q

if there is necrosis in a pressure ulcer what stage does it automatically go to

A

stage III

42
Q

Stage IV pressure ulcer

A

Deep ulcer
extensive necrosis
undermining/tunneling/sinus tracts
got a little extra something something

43
Q

Unstageable ulcer

A

eschar or slough obscures it

44
Q

severe pain at rest =

A

arterial insufficiency

45
Q

Arterial insufficiency ABI

A

<0.90; if it is less than 0.5 refer

46
Q

periwound condition in AI

A

ischemic, shiny, taut, thin, dry, alopecia, trophic changes (thick toe nails)

47
Q

when do you refer to microvascular surgeon (ABI < ___)

A

0.5

48
Q

Venous insufficiency periwound

A

white wound edges due to maceration; hemosiderin staining/lipodermatosclerosis; significant edema

49
Q

ABI with venous insufficiency

A

1.0 or less; normal capillary refill with poor venous fill

50
Q

Braden Scale risk for pressure sores

A

18 or less

51
Q

Norton Risk Assessment score for pressure sore

A

16 or less

52
Q

cardinal signs of infection

A

rubor, calor, pain, tumor, odor, system signs (fever, chills, sudden glucose shifts)

53
Q

Advantages for Enzymatic Debridement

A

fast
fairly selective
many products

54
Q

Disadvantages for Enzymatic Debridement

A

expensive
MD orders
possible adverse rxns
many products

55
Q

Advantages for Mechanical Debridement

A

easy, low cost

56
Q

Disadvantages for Mechanical Debridement

A

not everything is as superficial as it seems

57
Q

Disadvantages for Sharps Debridement

A

MD orders
possible pain and bleedings
special training and equipment

58
Q

Advantages for sharps debridement and surgical debridement

A

very selective, fast and very effect

59
Q

Advantages for autolysis

A

selective, safe, painless, effective

60
Q

disadvantages of autolysis

A

slow process with potential for infection

61
Q

what level of the lymphatics is responsible for transport of fluid to the collectors

A

pre-collectors

62
Q

what is the function of the collectors in lymphatics

A

transport lymph to the lymph nodes and lymphatic trunks

63
Q

which lymphatic system component is made of contractile muscle

A

collectors

64
Q

what is the functional unit of the collectors

A

lymphangion

65
Q

disadvantages for surgical debridement

A

costly
decreased functional status
may not return to therapy immediately

66
Q

what is the major determinant of fluid movement in normal circulation

A

blood capillary pressure

67
Q

what pressure favors absorption

A

plasma collodial osmotic pressure (COPp)

68
Q

where does absorption happen

A

at the venous end of the capillary

69
Q

which pressure favors filtration and where does it occur

A

blood capillary pressure (BCP) in the arterial side of the capillary

70
Q

______ increases with lymphedema resulting in decreased ____

A

COPi, absorption

71
Q

normal circulation results in net _____

A

filtration

72
Q

what type of muscle do the precollectors contain

A

smooth

Physical Agents (3 decks)

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