Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

what temperature needs to be applied to get a temperature rise in the skin

A

100 F and 40 C

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2
Q

the more area covered the ______ systemic effect

A

more

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3
Q

for each 10 degrees C there is a 2-3x _____ in metabolic reactions

A

increase

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4
Q

why does tissue burn occur?

A

metabolic activity required to repair the tissue isn’t capable of matching protein denaturation

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5
Q

oxygen uptake ____ with heat and promotes _____

A

increases, tissue healing

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6
Q

what causes vasodilation with heat
?

A

histamine, prostaglandin and cutaneous thermoreceptors

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7
Q

when heat is applied what happens to the sympathetic adrenergic activation?

A

it decreases and sends the info to SC dorsal root ganglion

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8
Q

which reflex decreases the SNA adrenergics to blood vessel smooth mm?

A

the Spinal Cord reflex

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9
Q

which reflex causes afferents from the cutaneous receptors to release vasoactive mediators for local vasodilation?

A

axonal reflex

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10
Q

role of killikren

A

acts on globulin and kininogen to release bradykinin and NO

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11
Q

chemical mediators cause

A

vasodilation and increase capillary pressure and permeability

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12
Q

an increase in capillary pressure and permeability leads to

A

outward fluid filtration from the vascular to the extravascular space

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13
Q

why don’t we want to overheat w/inflammatory conditions

A

overheating will cause blood shunting to the periphery, so if there is inflammation in the periphery already this is bad

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14
Q

NM effects of heat

A

increase the pain threshold
alter nerve conduction velocity
change the muscle spindle firing rates

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15
Q

firing of the alpha motor neuron and extrafusal fiber activity ____ with heat

A

decrease

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16
Q

heat ____ the firing of the muscle spindle

A

decreases

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17
Q

DOMS are worse with ____ contractions

A

eccentric

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18
Q

what type of heat is best for DOMS

A

moist heat
> heat wraps > chemical wraps

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19
Q

why do we stretch after the heat application?

A

water properties become dominant in the extracellular matrix and the tissue can be stretched more with less load

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20
Q

which tissues are more likely the tissues affected by superficial heat?

A

superficial tendons and scar tissue

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21
Q

how soon do you need to stretch after removing heat

A

between 5 and 6 minutes

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22
Q

conduction

A

heat gain or loss through direct contract b/w materials

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23
Q

convection

A

heat transfer by movement of air or liquid around the object to be heated

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24
Q

whirlpool is a form of ______ heat therapy

A

convective

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25
Q

radiation

A

conversion of heat energy to electromagnetic radiation

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26
Q

conversion example

A

ultrasound

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27
Q

conductive heating agents

A

heat packs and paraffin wax

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28
Q

Heat packs are stored in water that is ______ degrees

A

158-167 degrees f, 70-75 C

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29
Q

the greatest tissue temperature increase is seen after _______ minutes

A

8-10

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30
Q

why doesn’t superficial heat get to muscle

A

subcutaneous fat

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31
Q

paraffin wax to oil ratio

A

5-7: 1

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32
Q

why is there oil in the paraffin

A

it decreases the melting point of the wax

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33
Q

which type of paraffin is the most aggressive

A

dip re-immersion

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34
Q

adv of paraffin

A

home treatment
can apply at high temperature without burning
increase skin moisture
contours the body

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35
Q

disadv of paraffin

A

only can be used on distal extremities
no temperature control
some wax is not reusable

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36
Q

convective therapy examples

A

fluido
hydrotherapy

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37
Q

no modalities can be used if ABI is < ____

A

0.6

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38
Q

ADV of superficial heat

A

decrease pain, decrease stiffness and increase tissue extensibility

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39
Q

ADV of cold

A

prevent further swelling and decrease pain

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40
Q

DISADV of cold

A

increase stiffness and decrease tissue extensibility
good for ligaments

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41
Q

DISADV of superficial heat

A

may cause increase swelling: don’t do over hemorrhage

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42
Q

which thermal agent is preferred in the acute stages of inflammation?

A

cold

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43
Q

if the goal is to decrease joint stiffness and increase CT extensibility then use _____

A

heat

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44
Q

cold typically used to address

A

pain and edema

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45
Q

hemodynamic effect of cold

A

vasoconstriction

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46
Q

direct effect of cold

A

increase blood viscosity
cause blood vessel smooth mm contraction
decrease production of vasodilators

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47
Q

when does cold induced vasodilation occur

A

after 30 min of prolonged cold < 10 degrees C
primarily occurs in the distal extremities
it is a normal hunting response in the arterioles (protective)

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48
Q

NM effects of cold

A

decrease nerve conduction velocity
greater effect in myelinated/small fibers (motor and sensory)
brief increase in isometric strength < 5 minutes but 20+ minutes of cold will decrease isometric strength
decrease spasticity (decrease gamma mn activity, decrease afferent muscle spindle and GTO activity)

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49
Q

why does cold increase the pain threshold?

A

counterirritant effect via the gate-control theory

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50
Q

Cold therapies will not improve ____ _______

A

tissue healing

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51
Q

to address edema, cold should be used alongside

A

compression and elevation

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52
Q

after ___ min you can see a decrease in clonus and resistance to passive stretch

A

10-30 min

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53
Q

Cold can be used in MS to

A

reduce tremors and fatigue

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54
Q

compression phase of ultrasound

A

molecules compress while crystal expands

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55
Q

rarefaction phase

A

molecules expand/spread out while crystal compresses

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56
Q

shear wave

A

molecule movement is at a right angle or perpendicular to the source

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57
Q

attenuation

A

reduction of sound as it travels through a medium

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58
Q

scattering

A

deflection of soundwaves from its path by reflection at interfaces

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59
Q

reflection

A

redirection of beam at an equal and opposite angle

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60
Q

refraction

A

redirection of a wave at interface at a different angle than angle of incidence

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61
Q

velocity _____ as material density increases

A

increases

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62
Q

when can you apply ultrasound to bone

A

under water or to fibular fractures within 2 weeks to facilitate tissue healing

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63
Q

dangerous effect where bubbles collapse on themselves causing more tissue heating

A

unstable cavitation

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64
Q

what can accentuate microstreaming

A

stable cavitation

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65
Q

effect of acoustical streaming

A

increase cell membrane permeability and vascular wall permeability
changes in ion fluxes
movement of fluids

66
Q

microstreaming causes

A

eddy current

67
Q

what is targeted in phonephoresis

A

the non-thermal mechanical/micromassage effect
movement of fluid in the interstitial space

68
Q

4 types of coupling agents

A

aquasonic gel, glycerol, distilled water, air

69
Q

common parameters for phonophoresis

A

3 MHz, 20% duty cycle, 0.5-0.75 w/cm2, for 5-10 minutes

70
Q

why does phonophoresis work?

A

increases the permeability of the stratum corneum so the medication can be collected by the capillary network of the dermis

71
Q

local effects of phonophoresis detected in

A

2 hours

72
Q

systemic effects of phonophoresis detected in ______ hours

A

12-24 hours

73
Q

electric and magnetic fields are ___ to each other

A

perpendicular

74
Q

velocity of light (300,000,000)

A

frequency x wavelength

75
Q

is ionizing or non-ionizing EMR used

A

non-ionizing: can’t break molecular bonds

76
Q

what is diathermy used for

A

generate heat and other physiological changes w/in tissues

77
Q

shortwave diathermy (f and wavelength)

A

decreased frequency and increased wavelength

78
Q

microwave diathermy (f and wavelength)

A

increased frequency and decreased wavelength

79
Q

common frequency of SWD

A

27.12 MHz

80
Q

most diathermy applications are ____

A

pulsed

81
Q

common wavelength used in SWD

A

11 nm

82
Q

inductive SWD

A

patient placed within the EM field, for muscle and fat, (deeper)

83
Q

capacitive SWD

A

patient is a part of the electrical current, targets more superficial tissues

84
Q

in SWD what causes increase tissue temperature

A

oscillations of charged particles

85
Q

what power is non-thermal effect of SWD

A

38 W

86
Q

diathermy conditions

A

contractures, contusions, pain control, before stretching, ligament/mm strain, tendonitis/synovitis, bursitis, myofascial trigger points, OA

87
Q

Laser components (Principle)

A

monochromatic
coherent and collimated

88
Q

two popular lasers

A

HeNe, GaAs

89
Q

which laser has increased wavelength

A

GaAs

90
Q

which laser is more superficial

A

HeNE

91
Q

what is HILT used for

A

cauterize or make incisions during surgery Power >300 W

92
Q

LLLT can be used to

A

facilitate healing
doesn’t use heat and has energy density of less than 35 J/cm2

93
Q

LLLT is class ____

A

3B

94
Q

HILT is class_____

A

4

95
Q

Power Density =

A

Power/Area of Irradiation

96
Q

how to get energy density

A

multiply power density x time

97
Q

what does MIRE stimulate

A

release of NO from hemoglobin for vasodilation and increased microcirculation

98
Q

what can MIRE be used for

A

neuropathic wounds, decrease pain and increase circulation

99
Q

does UV light produce heat

A

no

100
Q

UVA

A

longest wavelength (320-440)
associated with tanning booths and CA

101
Q

UVB

A

narrow band 311-313
associated with sunburn and premature aging of skin

102
Q

UVC

A

shortest wavelength
kills bacteria and viruses
provides least amount of pigment change

103
Q

common conditions for UVR

A

psoriasis, vitiligo, acne and infectious wounds/conditions

104
Q

What is the MED

A

smallest does producing erythema within 8 hours after exposure that disappears within 24 hours

105
Q

E1 is ____x the MED

A

2.5

106
Q

E2 is _____ x the MED

A

5

107
Q

E3 is _____ x the MED

A

10

108
Q

E3 dose will cause

A

erythema with severe blistering, peeling and exudate

109
Q

which UV for psoriasis

A

UVB

110
Q

which UV for infected/chronic wounds

A

UVC

111
Q

dosage for wound healing UVR:

A

use the MED or E1

112
Q

increase dose by ______ % per treatment/day to maintain the MED

A

25-35

113
Q

increase by ____ for E1 dose (every other day)

A

50%

114
Q

increase dose by ____ for E2 and E3 (every 3 to 4 days)

A

75%

115
Q

at what temperature do the water properties become dominant in the extracellular matrix?

A

45 C

116
Q

how many terry layers do we need

A

6-8

117
Q

all objects above -______C emit and absorb radiant energy

A

273

118
Q

wax is molten from _____ to _____ C

A

45-54 (melting point is 54 but the oil brings that down)

119
Q

wax has a low _____

A

specific heat

120
Q

temperature ranges of fluido

A

38-48 degrees C

121
Q

what other forms of heat are involved in hydrotherapy other than convection?

A

radiation and evaporation

122
Q

spasticity can be decreased with _____ therapy

A

cold

123
Q

when might cold increase edema

A

when intense cold left on for long periods of time, can damage the lymphatics

124
Q

cold application for up to ___ min will show decrease in DTR

A

5 minutes

125
Q

contraindications to cold

A

cold HTN
cold intolerance
cryoglobulinemia
hemoglobinuria with cold (men)
raynaud’s

126
Q

which p. nerves commonly are overactive regenerating and cold therapy is a precaution?

A

ulnar n and long thoracic

127
Q

deep heating agents cause tissue temp change at depth ≥

A

2 cm

128
Q

longitudinal wave

A

compressed in the direction the wave travels from the source (ultrasound is typically longitudinal)

129
Q

US beam decreased in _____ the deeper it passes

A

intensity

130
Q

there is low attenuation of sound in ________

A

blood and fat

131
Q

BNR =

A

SPi:SAi

132
Q

in ultasound a ____ BNR is best

A

low

133
Q

SAi is used for

A

dosage

134
Q

in continuous ultrasound the TPi=

A

TAi

135
Q

to alter blood flow: Ultrasound parameters

A

2 W/cm, 1 MHz, 10-20 min

136
Q

continuous mode will ___ velocity in the motor nerve

A

increase

137
Q

pulsed mode will ___ velocity in the motor nerve

A

decrease or no change

138
Q

parameters of ultrasound for fibular fractures

A

1.5 MHz, 0.5 w/cm, 20 % for 20 min

139
Q

monochromatic

A

uses one wavelength

140
Q

coherent

A

all waves are in phase

141
Q

collimated

A

minimal divergence

142
Q

intensity using ultrasound over an open wound

A

pulsed, 0.5-1.0 MHz

143
Q

what produces the eddy current in inductive SWD

A

the magnetic field and coil are perpendicular to eachother

144
Q

eddy currents cause

A

charged particles to oscillate

145
Q

contraindications to PSWD

A

malignancy, pacemaker, metal, pregnancy, testers, growing epiphyses

146
Q

precautions of PSWD

A

cooper IUD, electronic or magnetic equipment in the area, obesity

147
Q

duration and frequency of PSWD chronic

A

20-30 min, less than 1-2 times daily

148
Q

duration/frequency of subacute PSWD for inflammatory conditions

A

10-15 minutes, daily or twice daily

149
Q

HeNE =

A

633 nm and red light

150
Q

GaAs=

A

904 nm closer to infrared

151
Q

what causes accelerated tissue healing for laser therapy

A

increased ATP for cellular reactions, increased RNA synthesis for protein degeneration and cell replication, decreased nociceptor activity

152
Q

what is MIRE

A

process of delivering photo energy directly to the skin via light emitting diodes

153
Q

MIRE augments

A

collagen formation in healing wounds

154
Q

Avg Power density of MIRE pad

A

9 mW/cm2

155
Q

dosage for MIRE

A

43.2 J/cm for 30- 40 minutes, 1-2 x/day for 7 days

156
Q

most UV is absorbed in the first _______ mm of the skin

A

1-2 mm

157
Q

UVR acute inflammatory response occurs in

A

8-12 hours following treatment

158
Q

which laser is pulsed

A

GaAS

159
Q

Which laser is continuous

A

HeNe

160
Q

E1 produces redness in ___ hours and lasts for ____ days

A

6, 1-3

161
Q

E2 produces redness in ___ hours and ______ is likely to occur

A

2 or less, peeling