phycolgy 2 Flashcards
1
Q
- Which theory explains why sickle-cell anemia remains relatively common among people of African descent despite its negative evolutionary effects?
A) The gene for sickle-cell anemia provides immunity to all carriers
B) The gene for sickle-cell anemia provides malaria resistance to heterozygous carriers
C) People with sickle-cell anemia have higher reproduction rates
D) The mutation for sickle-cell anemia occurs spontaneously in each generation
A
B) The gene for sickle-cell anemia provides malaria resistance to heterozygous carriers
2
Q
- What is the primary difference between evolutionary psychology and behavioral genetics?
A) Evolutionary psychology focuses on present individual differences while behavioral genetics studies universal patterns evolved over millions of years
B) Evolutionary psychology studies universal patterns evolved over millions of years while behavioral genetics focuses on how individual differences arise through gene-environment interactions
C) Evolutionary psychology examines human behavior while behavioral genetics examines animal behavior exclusively
D) Evolutionary psychology employs twin studies while behavioral genetics uses adoption studies exclusively
A
B) Evolutionary psychology studies universal patterns evolved over millions of years while behavioral genetics focuses on how individual differences arise through gene-environment interactions
3
Q
- The concept of phenotype refers to:
A) The observable physical characteristics that result from both genetic and environmental influences
B) The specific genetic material that an individual inherits from their parents
C) The combination of alleles that an individual possesses for a particular gene
D) The process by which genetic information is passed through family lines
A
A) The observable physical characteristics that result from both genetic and environmental influences
4
Q
- In the context of genetics, what are alleles?
A) Sections of DNA that do not code for proteins
B) Specific versions of a gene
C) Proteins that regulate gene expression
D) Single nucleotide base pairs
A
B) Specific versions of a gene
5
Q
. When discussing dominant and recessive traits in genetics, which statement is true?
A) Recessive traits are more common in the population than dominant traits
B) A recessive trait will only be expressed if an individual inherits two recessive alleles
C) A dominant trait will always skip a generation
D) Environmental factors have no influence on whether dominant traits are expressed
A
B) A recessive trait will only be expressed if an individual inherits two recessive alleles
6
Q
- In the case of PKU (phenylketonuria), what must be true about the parents of a child with this condition?
A) Both parents must have PKU
B) Only one parent needs to have PKU
C) Both parents must carry at least one copy of the recessive allele
D) Both parents must be homozygous dominant for PKU
A
C) Both parents must carry at least one copy of the recessive allele
7
Q
- The gene-environment concept of “range of reaction” suggests that:
A) Genes determine behavior regardless of environmental influences
B) Environment determines behavior regardless of genetic factors
C) Genes set the boundaries within which environment determines where an individual will fall
A
C) Genes set the boundaries within which environment determines where an individual will fall
8
Q
- The study by Tienari and colleagues on adoptees whose biological mothers had schizophrenia provides evidence for which view of gene-environment interactions?
A) Environment has little influence on genetic predispositions
B) Genes alone determine the development of schizophrenia
C) Both genetic vulnerability and environmental stress are necessary for schizophrenia to develop
A
C) Both genetic vulnerability and environmental stress are necessary for schizophrenia to develop
9
Q
- What is the primary function of glial cells in the nervous system?
A) Transmitting electrical signals between brain regions
B) Producing hormones that regulate metabolism
C) Supporting neurons physically and metabolically
D) Generating action potentials that facilitate movement
A
C) Supporting neurons physically and metabolically
10
Q
- Which structure allows communication between the left and right hemispheres of the brain?
A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Corpus callosum
D) Reticular formation
A
C) Corpus callosum
11
Q
- The ion concentration differences that establish the resting potential in a neuron include:
A) Higher potassium inside the cell and higher sodium outside the cell
B) Higher sodium inside the cell and higher potassium outside the cell
C) Equal concentrations of sodium and potassium on both sides of the membrane
D) Higher concentrations of both sodium and potassium outside the cell
A
A) Higher potassium inside the cell and higher sodium outside the cell
12
Q
- During an action potential, which process occurs immediately after the membrane reaches threshold?
A) Potassium channels open, allowing K+ to flow out of the cell
B) Sodium channels open, allowing Na+ to flow into the cell
C) Both sodium and potassium channels close simultaneously
D) The sodium-potassium pump stops functioning
A
B) Sodium channels open, allowing Na+ to flow into the cell
13
Q
- Which part of a neuron receives signals from other neurons?
A) Axon
B) Terminal buttons
C) Myelin sheath
D) Dendrites
A
D) Dendrites
14
Q
- What would be the most likely effect of damage to the myelin sheath surrounding axons?
A) Increased speed of neural transmission
B) Disruption of the electrical signal and slowed neural transmission
C) Enhanced ability of neurons to form new connections
D) Increased production of neurotransmitters
A
B) Disruption of the electrical signal and slowed neural transmission
15
Q
- An SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) antidepressant works by:
A) Blocking receptors for serotonin
B) Preventing the reuptake of serotonin, allowing it to remain active in the synapse longer
C) Increasing the production of serotonin in neurons
D) Mimicking the effects of serotonin at receptor sites
A
B) Preventing the reuptake of serotonin, allowing it to remain active in the synapse longer
16
Q
- The autonomic nervous system can be divided into which two complementary divisions?
A) Central and peripheral
B) Somatic and peripheral
C) Sympathetic and parasympathetic
D) Voluntary and sensory
A
C) Sympathetic and parasympathetic
17
Q
- Which of the following physical responses is NOT typically associated with the sympathetic nervous system’s “fight or flight” response?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Pupil dilation
C) Increased digestion
D) Increased blood glucose levels
A
C) Increased digestion
18
Q
- The somatic nervous system differs from the autonomic nervous system primarily in that:
A) The somatic nervous system controls internal organs while the autonomic controls skeletal muscles
B) The somatic nervous system is associated with conscious or voluntary activities while the autonomic is generally involuntary
C) The somatic nervous system uses only excitatory neurotransmitters while the autonomic uses only inhibitory neurotransmitters
D) The somatic nervous system is part of the central nervous system while the autonomic is part of the peripheral nervous system
A
B) The somatic nervous system is associated with conscious or voluntary activities while the autonomic is generally involuntary
19
Q
- A patient who has suffered damage to Broca’s area would most likely experience:
A) Difficulty understanding language
B) Difficulty producing language
C) Loss of long-term memory
D) Impaired visual processing
A
B) Difficulty producing language
20
Q
- The case of Phineas Gage is significant in the history of neuroscience because it demonstrated:
A) The brain’s remarkable ability to regenerate damaged tissue
B) The connection between specific brain areas and particular cognitive functions
C) The importance of the occipital lobe in personality
D) The dominant role of the right hemisphere in emotional processing
A
B) The connection between specific brain areas and particular cognitive functions
21
Q
- Which brain structure plays a critical role in the formation of new explicit memories?
A) Amygdala
B) Hypothalamus
C) Hippocampus
D) Cerebellum
A
C) Hippocampus
22
Q
- If a person suffered damage to their primary visual cortex, which lobe of the brain would be affected?
A) Frontal lobe
B) Temporal lobe
C) Parietal lobe
D) Occipital lobe
A
D) Occipital lobe
23
Q
- The reticular formation is associated with which of the following functions?
A) Language processing
B) Regulating the sleep/wake cycle and arousal
C) Coordinating fine motor movements
D) Processing visual information
A
B) Regulating the sleep/wake cycle and arousal
24
Q
- Based on the brain imaging techniques discussed in the chapter, which method would be most appropriate for studying the precise timing of overall brain activities with millisecond accuracy?
A) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
B) Positron emission tomography (PET)
C) Electroencephalography (EEG)
D) Computerized tomography (CT)
A
C) Electroencephalography (EEG)
25
25. In split-brain patients, what happens when a picture is shown only to the right hemisphere?
A) The patient can name the picture but cannot draw it
B) The patient can draw the picture but cannot name it
C) The patient can both name and draw the picture
D) The patient can neither name nor draw the picture
B) The patient can draw the picture but cannot name it
26
The case of H.M. (Henry Molaison) demonstrated that:
A) The brain has remarkable capacities for recovery after surgery
B) Different memory systems are processed by different parts of the brain
C) All memory functions are controlled by the frontal lobe
D) Emotional and cognitive functions cannot be separated
B) Different memory systems are processed by different parts of the brain
26
A key difference between the effects of neurotransmitters and hormones is:
A) Neurotransmitters act more slowly than hormones
B) Hormones are more localized in their effects than neurotransmitters
C) Neurotransmitters are released in close proximity to their target cells while hormones travel through the bloodstream
D) Hormones do not require receptors to exert their effects
C) Neurotransmitters are released in close proximity to their target cells while hormones travel through the bloodstream
27
In the endocrine system, which pair of hormones works together to regulate blood sugar levels?
A) Estrogen and progesterone
B) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
C) Insulin and glucagon
D) Thyroxine and triiodothyronine
C) Insulin and glucagon
27
Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus?
A) Processing sensory information from all body parts
B) Coordinating motor movements
C) Regulating homeostatic processes like body temperature and appetite
D) Primary processing of visual information
C) Regulating homeostatic processes like body temperature and appetite
27
The endocrine gland often referred to as the "master gland" because it controls other glands is the:
A) Thyroid gland
B) Pituitary gland
C) Adrenal gland
D) Pancreas
B) Pituitary gland
