PharmExam2Needtoknow Flashcards

1
Q

What is the treatment for PCP?

A

Bactrim (2 DS TID x 21 days) or if allergic, then pentamadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the treatment for MRSA?

A

Vanco, bactrim, ceftaroline, tetracyclines if on skin, mupiricin in the nose, daptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What drugs are active against pseudomonas?

A

Piper, ticer, ceftazidime, imipenem, flouroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What drug is associated with disulfuriam reaction?

A

flagyl! cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What drugs do you need to measure trough?

A

vanco, aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the chance that someone with a PCN allergy will have a cephalosporin allergy?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Red man’s disease caused by?

A

Vanco (hypotension and erythematous rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what drug can cause thrombophlebitis?

A

IV erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tetracycline ADRs?

A

Staining teeth
Nephrotoxicity/hepatotoxicity
Photosensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Macrolide ADRs?

A

Stomatitis
Clarithromycin causes metallic taste
Erythromycin initiates peristalsis and can be used for gastroparesis
Tinnitus or impaired hearing
IV Erythromycin can cause thrombophlebitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What drug most likely cause pseudomembranous colitis?

A

clindamycin. oh clinda you suck!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drug can treat gastroperisis?

A

erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Erythromycin and clarithromycin ____________ (inhibit/induce) CYT P450

A

inhibit!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What drug is contraindicated in myasthenia gravis patients?

A

telithromycin (QT prolong too)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drug can cause either reversible dose dependent anemia or aplastic anemia?

A

chloramphenicol (useful in meningitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What drug causes gray baby?

A

chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ADRs of sulfonamides?

A
Skin rashes that can progress to SJS
Crystalluria
GI distress
Hepatitis
Hematopoietic toxicity
In G6PD deficiency they can cause hemolytic anemia
photosensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Should you base bactrim off the trimethoprim or sulfamethoxizole?

A

trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ADRs of bactrim?

A

Megaloblastic anemia with low intake of folic acid
Rash
photosensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What drug can cause tendon rupture?

A

fluoroquinolones (QT prolong too)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drug cause pulmonary fibrosis with long term use?

A

nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

First line drugs of TB?

A

Isoniazid (INH), ethambutol, Pyrazinamide (PZA) and rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Isoniazid ADRs

A

hepatitis and peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ethambutol ADRs

A

optic neuritis
impaired red-green color discrimination
hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pyrazinamide ADRs

A

hepatitis, hyperuricemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Rifampin ADRs

A

Red!

CYP450 inducer!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Drug of choice for TB with HIV

A

rifabutin

28
Q

Similar to sulfonamides, this drug can cause hemolytic anemia in leprosy pts with G6PD

A

dapsone

29
Q

What leprosy tx prevents erythema nodosum

A

clofazamine

30
Q

DOC for systemic mycoses

A

amphotericin B

31
Q

amphotericin B ADRs

A

nephrotoxicity, infusion reactions, hypokalemia and bone marrow suppression

32
Q

azoles _____________ (inhibit/induce) CYP450

A

inhibit

33
Q

What drug causes cardiosuppression as a negative inotrope?

A

azoles (needs gastric acid to work - tetracyclines do too)

34
Q

what drug binds to surfactant?

A

daptomycin

35
Q

pseudomonas pt with renal failure?

A

aztreonam

36
Q

What drug can potentiate the effects of amphoterrible so you can give a lower dose?

A

flucytosine

37
Q

what is the drug of choice for invasive aspergillosis?

A

voriconazole

38
Q

What drug lowers sex hormones?

A

ketoconazole

39
Q

What oral anti fungal is used for topical infections?

A

griseofulvin

40
Q

causes crystaluria in presence of dehydration?

A

acyclovir and sulfonamides

41
Q

what drug causes retinal detachment?

A

gangicyclovir

42
Q

What drug must be refrigerated?

A

trifluridine

43
Q

Heart failures, arrhythmias, seizures, pancreatitis ADR

A

foscarnet

44
Q

typical HART therapy

A

2 NRTIs plus NNRTI or PI

45
Q

Most common ADR in NNRTI

A

rash which can progress to SJS

46
Q

what drugs cause neuropsychogenic reactions?

A

efavirenz (preferred initial NNRTI) and pegylated interferon, mefloquine

47
Q

What is ritonavir used for?

A

to increase or boost protease inhibitors

48
Q

What drug causes insulin resistance?

A

Protease inhibitor

49
Q

approved to treat severe RSV and HCV

A

Ribavirn

50
Q

what drugs aerosol can cause apnea, pneumothorax and cardiac arrest?

A

ribaviron

51
Q

Used for chronic active hepatitis, genital warts, hairy cell leukemia, CML, Kaposi’s sarcoma, renal carcinoma, malignant melanoma and multiple myeloma

A

Interferon

52
Q

Active vs protozoa as well as H.pylori, B. fragilis and C. Difficile as well as anaerobic bugs

A

Metronidazole

53
Q

Why are G6PDers sad?

A

Thy can’t take sulfonamides (bactrim), Antimalarials (primaquine), or Dapsone

54
Q

What drug causes high doses can cause retinal damage

A

chloroquine

55
Q

What drugs cause severe neuropsychiatric syndrome associated with hallucinations, anxiety, confusion and seizures

A

mefloquine

56
Q

DOC for toxo in HIV patients?

A

pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and Leucovorin

57
Q

What drug lowers seizure threshold?

A

imipenim

58
Q

Drug of choice for river blindness?

A

ivermectin

59
Q

What helminth drug causes NVD, delirium, hallucinations

A

albendazole

60
Q

DOC for scabies?

A

permethrin

61
Q

No need to comb out and remove nits in what drug

A

spinosad

62
Q

A malaria drug that’s used in HIV wasting syndrome by stimulating appetite

A

Atovaquone

63
Q

What 4 drugs induce hepatic enzymes /CYTP450?

A

Griseofulvin, rifampin, isoniazid, carbamazepine

64
Q

What is linezolid active against?

A

VRE and MRSA

65
Q

SJS causers

A

sulfonamides + dilantin + flucnazole