Pharmacology of Anemia/growth factors Flashcards

1
Q

If iron deficiency anemia is severe, what do you treat it with?

A

RBC transfusion

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2
Q

What is iron regulated by?

How can this be bypassed?

A

1) Hepcidin

2) Iron infusion

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3
Q

Microcytic anemia due to reduced heme synthesis is caused by?

Due to reduced globin production is caused by?

A

1) Lead poisoning

2) Thalassemic disorders

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4
Q

How much oral iron should be taking in a day?

What should you take it with and why?

A

1) 200-400 mg divided into 2-3 doses a day

2) With liquids because food inhibits absorption

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5
Q

What are examples of oral iron and ideally what features do you want it to not have so that you can avoid poor absorption?

A

1) Ferrous sulfate/gluconate/fumarate

2) Not enteric-coated and not sustained-release

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6
Q

Parenteral iron therapy such as iron dextran, sodium ferric gluconate complex and iron-sucrose complex all have?

A

An iron oxyhydroxide core surrounded by carbohydrate

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7
Q

What is a new nanoparticle-based iron preparation that can be administered quickly (time increased from 15 sec to 5 min) and is tolerated much better than iron dextran?

A

Ferumoxytol

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8
Q

No matter the form of iron therapy we can expect what results?

A

Reticulocytosis in a few days and an increase in Hb in 2 wks

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9
Q

Acute iron toxicity is seen almost exclusively in young children who accidentally ingest iron tablets, how many is considered to be lethal?

A

10 tablets

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10
Q

Urgent treatment for acute iron toxicity includes?

A

1) Whole bowel irrigation

2) Parenteral deferoxamine

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11
Q

With chronic iron toxicity (hemochromatosis), iron deposits in what organs leading to their failure?

When do we see this?

A

1) The heart, liver, pancreas

2) With hereditary hemochromatosis and patients who receive many red cell transfusions over a long period of time

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12
Q

How much vitamin B12 do we need a day?

How much does the body store and where is most stored?

A

1) 2 µg/day

2) 2 – 5 mg which about half is in liver

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13
Q

Why does it take years to develop vitamin B12 deficiency after normal absorption ceases?

A

Because the normal body stores greatly exceed the daily requirement

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14
Q

What effect does nitrous oxide have on vit B12 when inhaled for analgesia during surgery?

A

Inactivates cyanocobalamin (common form of vitamin B12)

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15
Q

What happens if vit B12 body stores are depleted?

A

Rapid onset neurological dysfunction (e.g., paresthesias, weakness, spasticity) that may not fully reverse

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16
Q

What does cobalamin form a complex with so that it can bind to the cubulin receptor in the ileum in order to be absorbed?

A

Intrinsic factor (IF)

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17
Q

What is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Pernicious anemia

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18
Q

Pernicious anemia can cause what two autoantibody formations that blocks what?

A

1) IF-Cbl interaction

2) IF-Cbl receptors in ileum

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19
Q

Chronic atrophic gastritis from vitamin B12 deficiency is due to autoantibodies directed against?

A

H-K-ATPase of the parietal cells

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20
Q

How is vitamin B12 deficiency treated if no neurological symptoms are present?

A

Oral supplementation of 500X the daily need

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21
Q

How is vitamin B12 deficiency treated if neurological symptoms are present?

A

Parenteral therapy

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22
Q

Why do you want to give twice the daily allowance of folate for pregnant and lactating women compared to normal adults (400 µg/day compared to 800)?

A

Prevent spina bifida/cleft palate

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23
Q

Folate is absorbed in the jejunum, enters plasma, rapidly cleared by hepatocytes and other cells where it is trapped by?

A

Polyglutamation

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24
Q

What are the usual causes of folate deficiency?

A

Inadequate dietary intake or alcoholism

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25
How is folate deficiency treated?
Oral administration of folate
26
Nausea, constipation, heartburn, vomiting, diarrhea and dark stools are side effects of?
Oral iron administration
27
Necrotizing gastroenteritis with vomiting, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea leading to shock, lethargy, and dyspnea are the initial symptoms for? A period of improvement is often seen but only to be followed by?
1) Acute iron toxicity | 2) Severe metabolic acidosis, coma, and death
28
Hyperpigmentation, glossitis, macrocytic anemia and neuro issues involving gait, cognition, paresthesia are some symptoms of?
Vitamin B12 deficiency
29
Neural tube defect in fetus, macrocytic anemia, and mouth ulcers are some symptoms of?
Folate deficiency
30
What is a 165-amino acid erythropoiesis stimulating glycoprotein?
epoetin alfa
31
What are the effects of epoetin alfa?
1) Stimulates erythropoiesis 2) Increases the reticulocyte count 3) Increases RBC count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit
32
What are the clinical applications for epoetin alfa?
Anemia due to chronic kidney disease and cancer chemotherapy
33
Why must Hct be kept in the 30-35 range when administering epoetin alfa?
It increases diastolic blood pressure
34
What is the only disease modifying therapy approved for sickle cell disease?
Hydroxyurea
35
What is the MOA for hydroxyurea?
Boosts the levels of fetal hemoglobin which lowers the concentration of HbS
36
How is epoetin alfa administered? How is hydroxyurea administered?
1) IV or subcutaneously | 2) Orally
37
Increased risk of death, myocardial infarction, stroke, and venous thromboembolism are potential toxicities of what drug?
Epoetin alfa
38
Neutropenia, anemia, oral ulcers, hyperpigmentation, rash, and nail changes are potential toxicities of what drug?
Hydroxyurea
39
What drug is a monoclonal antibody that specifically binds to the complement protein C5 with high affinity?
eculizumab
40
What is the MOA for eculizumab?
It inhibits cleavage of C5 to prevent generation of C5b-9 complex
41
What are the clinical applications of eculizumab?
1) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria | 2) Atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome
42
Viral infections, life-threatening meningococcal infections, upper respiratory tract infections, musculoskeletal pain, anemia, and hypertension are all potential toxicities of what drug?
eculizumab
43
Low-grade fever, sore mouth, odynophagia, gingival pain and swelling, pneumonia, recurrent sinusitis and otitis are all symptoms of?
Neutropenia
44
Damage to what tissue can cause neutropenia?
Bone marrow
45
What is the drug filgrastim?
Human granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF)
46
What is the function of G-CSF?
Regulates the production of neutrophils within the bone marrow
47
Why is filgrastim indicated for patients receiving myelosuppressive anticancer drugs or in those receiving a bone marrow transplant?
To decrease the incidence of infection‚ as manifested by febrile neutropenia
48
What is a longer lasting version of filgrastim due to conjugation with monomethoxy polyethylene glycol?
Pegfilgrastim
49
What is the drug sargramostim?
Granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF) made in yeast
50
Sargramostim acts in the bone marrow to?
Increase production of neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes/macrophages
51
When is sargramostim used in order to accelerate recovery of neutrophils?
1) Bone marrow transplants | 2) Following chemotherapy in patients with AML
52
How is sargramostim and filgrastim administered? How long should you wait to administer filgrastim for patients on chemo?
1) IV or SubQ | 2) Wait 24 hours after chemo
53
Which drug is the better option to treat neutropenic fever from cancer chemotherapy? Why?
Filgrastim because it has fewer adverse effects
54
What drug is a partial agonist of the CXCR4 receptor?
Plerixafor
55
What is the MOA of plerixafor?
Mobilizes hematopoietic stem cells from the bone marrow to the plasma
56
Plerixafor is used in the 15- 20% of patients who do not mobilize sufficient stem cells for autologous transplant with just?
G-CSF
57
Plerixafor is approved for patients with?
1) Lymphoma | 2) Multiple myeloma
58
Edema, dyspnea, exacerbate pre-existing renal and hepatic dysfunctions, and fatal “gasping syndrome” in premature infants are potential toxicities of?
Sargramostim
59
Allergic reactions and moderate bone pain are potential toxicities of?
Filgrastim
60
Hypersensitivity reactions, the potential to mobilize leukemia cells, and contaminate apheresis product are potential toxicities of?
plerixafor
61
Both thrombopoietin and its PEG derivatized variant were withdrawn from the market due to autoantibodies that caused? Why was stem cell factor (aka c-Kit) also not used clinically?
1) Severe thrombocytopenia | 2) Found on mast cells and causes severe allergic reactions
62
Oprelvekin is the recombinant form of?
IL-11
63
What is the MOA of Oprelvekin?
Increases platelet levels by promoting megakaryocytes
64
What can oprelvekin be used to treat in patients undergoing myelosuppressive chemotherapy for non-myeloid cancers?
Thrombocytopenia
65
What is the route of administration for Oprelvekin?
SubQ injection
66
What is the route of administration for plerixafor?
SubQ injection
67
What can also increase platelet levels like IL-11, but are too toxic to use?
IL-3 and IL-6
68
What drug is a peptibody composed of two disulfide bonded human IgG1 kappa heavy chain constant regions that bind to the TPO receptor?
romiplostim
69
What is the clinical application for romiplostim?
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
70
What is the route of administration for romiplostim ?
Subcutaneous
71
Edema, cardiac dysrhythmias, severe allergic reactions, and “bloodshot” eyes are all potential toxicities of?
Oprelvekin
72
What drug is a potent, orally available non-peptide TPO receptor agonist?
Eltrombopag
73
What is the MOA for both eltrombopag and romiplostim ?
Increase the platelet count
74
What is the clinical application for eltrombopag?
1) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura | 2) Cirrhosis due to hepatitis C
75
What is the route of administration for eltrombopag?
Oral
76
What drug is generally well tolerated with the most serious concern is allergic reactions?
Romiplostim
77
What drug may may cause hepatotoxicity when used in | combination with interferon and ribavirin in patients with chronic hepatitis C?
Eltrombopag
78
Romiplostim and eltrombopag are the 2nd/3rd line agents for ITP used if?
Glucocorticoids, immune globulin, rituximab and splenectomy did not work
79
Cephalosporins such as ceftriaxone and cefotetan along with penicillin and its derivatives such as piperacillin are all drugs that cause?
Hemolytic Anemia
80
Immune drugs such as heparin and non immune drugs such as quinidine and quinine are all drugs that cause?
Thrombocytopenia
81
Cancer chemotherapeutics, chloramphenicol, and benzene are all drugs that cause?
Aplastic Anemia