Pharmacology of Analgesic Agents: Opioids Flashcards

1
Q

Nociceptor

A

sensory receptor of the peripheral somatosensory nervous system that is capable of transducing and encoding noxious stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Nociception

A
  • The neural process of encoding noxious stimuli
  • Physiologic process that underlies the conscious perception of pain. Does not require consciousness
  • How that differs from pain? Our patients can have nociception, but NOT pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hyperalgesia

A

increased pain from a stimulus that normally provokes pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Allodynia

A

pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Analgesia/hypoalgesia

A

absence (analgesia) or reduction of pain (hypoalgesia) in response to stimulation which would normally be painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pre-emptive analgesia

A

the admin of analgesic drugs PRIOR to the occurrence of tissue damage to achieve better, longer lasting pain control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Multi-modal analgesia

A
  • Provision of analgesia using drugs from different classes w/ complementary analgesic activities, whilst simultaneously minimising overall side effects
  • This is b/c pain pathway can be interrupted at more than one site, & the more sites that are targeted, the better will be the overall analgesia provision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Neuropathic Pain

A

type of pain that occurs as a result of a pathology in the CNS. It may be thru mechanical injury nerves such as that seen in diabetic neuropathy, amputation, spinal cord injury, neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Central sensitisation

A
  • Condition of the NS assoc’d w/ dvlpmt & maintenance of chronic pain
  • When it occurs, the NS goes thru a process where it becomes reset in a state of high reactivity, which lowers the threshold for which pain is perceived.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Anaesthesia without analgesia only acts on what part of the pain processing & pathway?

A

Perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the cause, duration, and txt of acute pain?

A

Cause: usually known
Duration: short, well-characterised
Txt: resolution of underlying cause, self-limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the cause, duration, and treatment of chronic pain?

A

Cause: often unknown
duration: persists after expected healing, >3 mos
Txt: underlying cause & pain disorder, outcome is pain control, NOT cure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What medication classes are used for pain?

A

opioids, NSAIDs, local, NMDA antagonists, A-2 agonists, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When does toxicity of opioids occur?

A

High doses
* iatrogenic
* ingestion of patches
* police dogs
* human abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are clinical signs of opioid toxicity?

A
  • severe resp depression, cyanosis possible
  • bradycardia, hypotension
  • altered mental state/sedate (non-responsive)
  • hypothermia
  • miosis (small pupil)
  • death if untreated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What schedule of drug are opioids?

A

Schedule 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Explain the mechanism of action for opioids

A
  • Presynaptically decreased Ca2+ influx leads to reduction of NTs leading to inhibition of nociceptive input
  • Post-synaptically K+ enhanced efflux leads to neuronal hyperpolarisation & inhibition of ascending pathway leading to inhibition of nociceptive input
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The strongest opioids act on… others act on… receptors.

A

Mu, kappa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What route of administration is used with opioids?

A

IV, IM, SQ, PO, Epidural, IA, Transdermal, Transmucosal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Supraspinal sites of action of opioids include?

A

brain, chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Absorption, onset, & offset times of opioids are…

A

drug & species dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Spinal sites of action of opioids include…

A

dorsal horn, peripheral terminals of nociceptive afferent neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Opioids impact what other systems?

A

GIT, urinary, uterus, synovium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Transdermal use of opioids can aid in…

A

long-term pain mgmt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the main CNS effects of opioids?

A
  • Analgesia (Gold Std)
  • Sedation
  • Euphoria – esp in cats
  • Dysphoria – esp in dogs, vocalising confused w/ pain, must differentiate btw pain vs dysphoria
  • Reduction of anaesthetic requirements – reduces side effects of anaesthesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What main effects do opioids have on the cardiovascular system?

A
  • Minimal effects on cardiac output, contractility & BP
  • Bradycardia (except pethidine –> tachycardia)
  • Reduction in BP may occur, b/c anaesthetic requirements are reduced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the main respiratory effects of opioids?

A
  • Respiratory depression – conscious or unconscious, alters responsiveness of CO2 so cannot respond to breathing b/c body will not notice
  • Inhibition of cough reflex (antitussive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the main digestive effects of opioids?

A
  • Emesis (morphine, hydromorphone mostly)
  • Constipation
  • Reduced Colon motility
  • Pethidine: spasmolytic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the main urinary effects of opioids?

A
  • Urinary retention – esp if given as an epidural
  • Decreased urinary production (conflicting data)
  • κ agonists: increase urinary production (↓ release of vasopressin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Explain opioid activity

A
  • full mu agonist - elicits max response at the receptor
  • Partial agonist - weakly stimulates mu receptor, elicits partial response at the receptor, but a strong affinity so difficult to displace once IN the receptor
  • Antagonist - no intrinsic activity, blocks the receptor
  • Agonist-antagonist - mixed activities int he receptor, effect on kappa possible w/ non on mu, poor analgesia than mu agonists
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Morphine has what kind of opioid activity?

A

Full mu agonist, mild kappa affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is morphine used for?

A
  • premedication & analgesia
  • in horses
  • epidural
  • acute & chronic pain indications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where is morphine metabolised? What are the main metabolites?

A
  • hepatic & extra-hepatic metabolisation sites
  • Inactive metabolite: mrophine-3-glucuronide
  • active metabolite: morphine-6-glucoride
  • Cats: sulfate conjugation –> morphine-6-glucoride
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Morphine has poor… which causes

A

Poor lipid solubility
causes GI effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the different routes of administration of morphine?

A

IV, IM, SQ, oral, epidural, intrathecal, intra-articular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the onset of action of morphine?

A
  • 15-30 mins after IM injection
  • Faster IV but caution of side effects (histamine release) so give slow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the duration of action of morphine?

A
  • 4-6 hrs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the main CNS effects of morphine?

A

analgesia, sedation

39
Q

What are the main CVS effects of morphine?

A

bradycardia
histamine release if given IV

40
Q

What respiratory system effects occur from morphine?

A

hypoventilation, bronchospasm so avoid in asthmatics

41
Q

What are the main GIT effects of morphine?

A
  • nausea, V
  • constipation
  • contracts sphincter of Oddi
42
Q

What type of activity is present in methadone?

A

Synthetic, pure mu agonist

43
Q

What are the main uses of methadone?

A
  • Some NMDA antagonism effect
  • used for premed & analgesia
44
Q

Methadone is more lipid soluble than…

A

morphine

45
Q

What are the main routes of administration of methadone?

A

IV, IM, SQ

46
Q

What is the onset of action of methadone?

A

10-20 mins IM

47
Q

What is the duration of action of methadone?

A

approx 4 hrs, maybe 6 depending on dose

48
Q

What are the main CNS effects of methadone?

A
  • analgesia (chronic & refractory pain)
  • less sedation than morphine
49
Q

What are the main cardiovascular effects of methadone?

A
  • bradycardia
  • no histamine release (safe IV)
  • more seen when under GA
50
Q

What are the main resp system effects of methadone?

A
  • resp depression
  • panting
51
Q

What are the main GIT signs of methadone?

A
  • no V due to liposolubility
  • little effect on biliary tract
52
Q

Pethidine is also known as…

A

Meperidine

53
Q

What is the main activity of Pethidine/Meperidine?

A

Pure mu agonist

54
Q

What is the main use of Pethidine/meperidine?

A

Premed & sedative effects

55
Q

What is the main route of administration of Pethidine/meperidine?

A

IM ONLY
(IV causes strong histamine release)

56
Q

What is the onset of action of pethidine/meperidine?

A

15-20 mins

57
Q

What is the duration of action of pethidine/meperidine?

A

lasts up to 90 mins (avg 30-60 mins)

58
Q

What are the main CNS effects of pethidine/meperidine?

A
  • mydriasis (dilated pupils)
  • sedation
59
Q

What are the main CV effects of pethidine/meperidine?

A
  • increase HR
  • severe hypotension if histamine release occurs
  • neg inotropic effects
60
Q

What GIT effects occur with Pethidine/meperidine?

A
  • No V
  • spasmolytic on GIT smooth muscle
  • no bile duct spasm
61
Q

What are the main urinary tract effects of pethidine/meperidine?

A

spasmolytic effect

62
Q

What other effects occur with pethidine/meperidine?

A
  • decreased salivary & respiratory secretions
  • reduces shivering, esp post-op
63
Q

Fentanyl has what type of opioid activity?

A

Synthetic pure mu agonist

64
Q

What is the main use of fentanyl?

A
  • Useful for rescue analgesia intraoperatively
  • as a CRI
65
Q

What are the main routes of admin of fentanyl?

A

IV, IM, SQ, transdermal
(IM/SQ rarely used b/c short-acting)

66
Q

What is the onset of action of fentanyl?

A

<2 mins after IV bolus

67
Q

What is the duration of action of fentanyl?

A

<20 mins after bolus

68
Q

Where does metabolisation of fentanyl occur?

A

Liver & lungs

69
Q

What are the main CNS effects of fentanyl?

A
  • analgesia
  • sedation
  • excitement in cats
70
Q

What are the main CVS effects of fentanyl?

A

bradycardia

71
Q

What are the main resp system effects of fentanyl?

A

Hypoventilation

72
Q

What type of opioid activity is present in buprenorphine?

A

partial mu receptor agonist

73
Q

What are main uses of buprenorphine?

A

Analgesic & premed

74
Q

What are the main routes of admin of buprenorphine?

A

IM, IV, SQ, OTM

75
Q

What is the onset of action of buprenorphine?

A

20 mins IV, 40 mins IM

76
Q

What is the druation of action of buprenorphine?

A

6-8 hours

77
Q

Where is buprenorphine metabolised?

A

liver

78
Q

What opioid activity is present in butorphanol?

A

Mixed agonist/antagonist

79
Q

What are the main uses of butorphanol?

A

sedative, analgesic, anti-tussive effects

80
Q

What are the main routes of admin of butorphanol?

A

IM, IV

81
Q

What is the duration of action of butorphanol?

A

1.5-2 hours

82
Q

Butorphanol is metabolised in the…

A

liver

82
Q
A
83
Q

Butorphanol is excreted…

A

90% renally, 10% bile

84
Q

What are the CNS effects of butorphanol?

A

good sedation, potentiates action of acepromazine & alpha-2 agonists

85
Q

What are some analgesic effects of butorphanol?

A
  • visceral pain in horses?
  • unsuitable for painful procedures
86
Q

What are some GIT effects of butorphanol?

A

reduction in smooth muscle activity

87
Q

What opioid activity is present in Tramadol?

A

Atypical centrally-acting opioid

88
Q

What does Tramadol in the body?

A

inhibits serotonin & noradrenalin reuptake

89
Q

What are the routes of admin of Tramadol?

A

IV, IM, epidural, PO

90
Q

What is the half life of tramadol in dogs? cats?

A

dogs: 4-6 hrs
cats: longer (slower clearance)

91
Q

What are side effects of Tramadol?

A
  • sedation
  • nausea
  • excitement/dysphoria/euphoria (cats)
  • tremor/trmbling/ataxia/muscle fasciculations (IV in horse)
  • may reduce seizure threshold (pediatric P)
  • resp depression at high doses in cats
92
Q

What are some ultra-potent opioids used in zoo/wild animals?

A
  • Etorphine
  • Carfentanil
93
Q

What are the main opioid reversal agents?

A

Naloxone, Naltrexone, Diprenorphine