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Redew 208 > Pharmacology MCQs > Flashcards

Pharmacology MCQs Flashcards

1
Q

Regarding the factors affecting dosages of the drugs, which if the following is INCORRECT

a. Females need smaller doses than males
b. Irritant drugs must be given after meals
c. Renal glomerular filtration rate is decreased in geriatrics
d. Pediatrics have less body water and less permeable BBB than adults

A

d. Pediatrics have less body water and less permeable BBB than adults

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2
Q

Which of the following explains the wide use of neostigmine in reversing the action of competitive neuromuscular blockers used insurgical operation

a. A better return of memory after operation
b. its anticholinesterase enzyme activity
c. Its good CNS penetration leading to better recovery
d. Anti-muscarinic actions leading to decreased secretions

A

b. its anticholinesterase enzyme activity

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3
Q

A decrease in intracellular c-AMP results from stimulation of the following receptors?

Beta2 receptors
Alpha1 receptors
M2 receptors
Nn receptors

A

M2 receptors

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4
Q

Which of the following describes a therapeutic use of the cholinomimetic, alkaloid, pilocarpine

Sialagogue in dryness of mouth
A mydriatic in cases of glaucoma
Inhibtion of hair growth
As an add on therapy for cases of parkinsonism

A

Sialagogue in dryness of mouth

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5
Q

Which of the following explains the use of pralidoxime in the treatment of organophosphorus poisoning?

Its sedative effect
Its antimuscarinic effect
Its anticonvulsant effect
It reactivates cholinesterase enzyme

A

It reactivates cholinesterase enzyme

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6
Q

Contraindications of atropine include which of the following

Heart block
Glaucoma
Organophosphorus poisoning
Diarrhea

A

Glaucoma

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7
Q

Which of the following is expected when using parasympathetic depressants as eye drops?

Pupillary constriction
Decreased IOP
Loss of accommodation
Bronchospasm

A

Decreased IOP

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8
Q

Compared to atropine, hyoscine is more likely to

Induced vomiting
Precipitate tachycardia
Produce convulsions at toxic doses
Cause CNS depressant effect

A

Cause CNS depressant effect

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9
Q

Which of the following is an anticholinesterase used in treatment of Alzheimer’s disease

Pyridostigmine
Rivastigmine
Tropicamide
Echothiophate

A

Rivastigmine

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10
Q

An old male patient known to have benign prostatic hypertrophy complained recently from recurrent intestinal colic. A certain drug was prescribed but unfortunately this led to acute urine retention. Which of the following drugs could be the prescribed drug?

Atropine
Neostigmine
Propranolol
Carbachol

A

Atropine

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11
Q

In a patient suffering from organophosphorus poising, which of the following pharmacological effects could you except after he is being treated with atropine?

Bradycardia and bronchodilation
Tachycardia and bronchodilation
Hypotension and bronchoconstriction
Bradycardia and hypotension

A

Tachycardia and bronchodilation

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12
Q

Which of the following can cause reversal of a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker by forming with it a complex that diffuses away from the neuromuscular junction into circulation and is excreted in the urine?

Edrophonium
Neostigmine
Pyridostigmine
Sugammadex

A

Sugammadex

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13
Q

Which of the following is considered a pharmacological action of phenylephrine?

Blocking muscarinic receptors
Increasing the blood pressure
Blocking B-adrenergic receptors
Increasing the heart rate

A

Increasing the blood pressure

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14
Q

Which of the following conditions is considered a therapeutic indication for using dobutamine?

Hypertension
Cardiogenic shock
Glaucoma
Arrhythmia

A

Cardiogenic shock

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15
Q

Dopamine used in low infusion rate (3-3 microgram/kg/min) to

Decreased heart rate
Elevated blood pressure
Increase cardiac output
Increase renal blood flow

A

Increase renal blood flow

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16
Q

Which if the following is a selective B1 adrenoreceptors blocker?

Propranolol
Timolol
Atenolol
Nadolol

A

Atenolol

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17
Q

The following B-blocker has vasodilator properties and can be used in patients with heart failure:

Carvedilol
Propranolol
Clonidine
Sotalol

A

Carvedilol

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18
Q

Which of the following drugs may mask the hypoglycemia in treated diabetic patients?

B-agonist
B-blockers
a-agonists
a-Blockers

A

B-blockers

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19
Q

A patient was prescribed the alpha blocker prazosin. Which of the following adverse effects would be most likely to occur during the first days of therapy?

Impaired micturition
Pale and cold skin
Bronchoconstriction
Postural hypotension

A

Postural hypotension

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20
Q

A 40 year old patient is about to undergo cancer chemotherapy with a drug combination that produced severe nausea and vomiting. The antiemetic drug most likely to be included in her regimen is:

Bromocriptine
Cetirizine
Cimetidine
Ondansetron

A

Ondansetron

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21
Q

A 20 year old woman is taking diphenhydramine for severe hay fever. Which of the following adverse effects is she most likely to report?

Miosis
Sedation
Bradycardia
Increase salivary secretion

A

Sedation

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22
Q

All of the following are actions of angiotensin II EXCEPT:

Powerful vasoconstriction
Inducing cardiac hypertrophy and remodeling
Increasing biosynthesis and secretion of aldosterone
Decreasing the release of noradrenaline

A

Decreasing the release of noradrenaline

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23
Q

The site of action thiazide diuretics is

The proximal convoluted tubules
The distal convoluted tubules
The thick ascending loop of Henle
The collecting tubules

A

The distal convoluted tubules

24
Q

Which of the following diuretics would be most useful to lower intracranial pressure in a comatose patient with brain injury and cerebral edema?

Amiloride
Ethacrynic acid
Furosemide
Mannitol

A

Mannitol

25
Q

Which of the following diuretics decrease calcium excretion and thus could be used in the treatment of idiopathic hypercalciuric and renal calcium stones

Furosemide
Spironolactone
Hydrochlorothiazide
Mannitol

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

26
Q

Which of the following is a potential side effect of thiazide diuretics?

Deafness
Diarrhea
Cystitis
Hyperuricemia

A

Hyperuricemia

27
Q

Although both spironolactone and triamterene are potassium sparring diuretics, triamterene differs in that

it has a greater natriuretic action
it induces powerful anti-androgenic effects
Its K+ retaining action is not dependent on the presence of aldosterone
It acts from the luminal membrane side of the proximal tubular cells

A

Its K+ retaining action is not dependent on the presence of aldosterone

28
Q

Which of the following diuretics has ototoxic effect and could results in deafness?

Furosemide
Amiloride
Hydrochlorothiazide
Acetazolamide

A

Furosemide

29
Q

Which of the following medications is the most likely to increase the cardiac output in a heart failure patient without having inotropic action?

Captopril
Digoxin
Isoproterenol
Theophylline

A

Captopril

30
Q

In treatment of angina pectoris, which of the following acts by inhibition of the cardiac pacemaker If current to control the heart rate?

Ranolazine
Trimetazidine
Ivabradine
Verapamil

A

Ivabradine

31
Q

It is contraindicated to prescribe Propranolol for a patient suffering from angina pectoris who is already receiving

Nifedipine
Amlodipine
Verapamil
Isosorbide mononitrate

A

Verapamil

32
Q

A 53 year-old man diagnosed with exertional angina was prescribed oral isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following molecular actions most likely mediate the therapeutic efficacy of this drug in the patients disease?

Decreased synthesis guanylyl cyclase
Phosphorylation of the myosin light chain kinase
Increased intracellular Ca+2 concentration
Nitric oxide release and stimulated formation of cGMP

A

Nitric oxide release and stimulated formation of cGMP

33
Q

Select from the following the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as a nitric oxide donor:

Diazoxide
Sodium nitroprusside
Hydralazine
Nicorandil

A

Nicorandil

34
Q

A 65 year old man had intermittent angina when he exercise in cold weather. His primary care physician places him on sublingual nitroglycerine to be taken at the onset of symptoms. The patient must be warned of which if the following side effects?

Erectile dysfunction
Headache
Hypertension
Bradycardia

A

Headache

35
Q

Which of the following is an antianginal drug that consistently decrease the heart rate and is used in prophylaxis of vasospastic (variant) angina ?

Isosorbide nitrate
Nitroglycerin
Verapamil
Propranolol

A

Verapamil

36
Q

Which of the following is an adverse effect of nifedipine?

Bronchospasm
Bradycardia
Ankle edema
Peripheral neuropathy

A

Ankle edema

37
Q

Which of the following combinations of drugs reduce both preload and afterload?

Nitroglycerine and isosorbide dinitrate
Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate
Amlodipine and minoxidil
Hydralazine and diazoxide

A

Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate

38
Q

Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most likely to occur with which of the following drugs?

Prazosin
Lisinopril
Clonidine
Hydrochlorothiazide

A

Clonidine

39
Q

All of the following are adverse effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) EXCEPT:

Hypokalemia
Dry irritant cough
Teratogenic effects
First dose hypotension

A

Hypokalemia

40
Q

Which of the following is the drug of choice in the treatment of hypertension in toxemia of pregnancy?

Captopril
Labetalol
Frusemide
Valsartan

A

Labetalol

41
Q

One of the following is direct arteriolar vasodilator that may produce lupus erythematosus -like syndrome as an adverse effect

Sodium nitroprusside
Diazoxide
Minoxidil
Hydralazine

A

Hydralazine

42
Q

Which one of the following is a very powerful mixed balanced vasodilator?

Minoxidil
Diazoxide
Hydralazine
Sodium nitroprusside

A

Sodium nitroprusside

43
Q

Tachycardia is one of the adverse effects of which of the following antihypertensive drugs?

Verapamil
Nadolol
Captopril
Nifedipine

A

Nifedipine

44
Q

Which of the following angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) could be used in patient with renal impairment as it is excreted in bile only?

Lisinopril
Fosinopril
Enalapril
Captopril

A

Fosinopril

45
Q

What cellular action of digoxin accounts for its inotropic effect in the treatment of heart failure?

Inhibition of cyclic adenosine 5’-monophosphate (cAMP) synthesis
Inhibition of mitochondrial calcium (Ca+2) release
Inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase enzyme
Inhibition of B-adrenergic simulation

A

Inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase enzyme

46
Q

Which if the following could increase digitalis toxicity?

Use of spironolactone
Hypocalcemia
Hypokalemia
Anti-acids

A

Hypokalemia

47
Q

Digitalis is used in cases of atrial fibrillation because

It restores atrial rhythm
It decreased A-V conduction
It decreased atrial excitability
It decreases automaticity

A

It decreased A-V conduction

48
Q

Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting neprilysin enzyme and is used in the treatment of heart failure.

Dobutamine
Milrinone
Digoxin
Sacubitril

A

Sacubitril

49
Q

Which of the following inotropic drugs act by increasing the sensitivity of ionotropic C fibers to ionic calcium improving myocardial contractility?

Levosimendan
Amrinone
Milrinone
Isoproterenol

A

Levosimendan

50
Q

Which one of the following drugs is used in the treatment of ventricular arrhythmia WITHOUT heart block

Lidocaine
Phenytoin
Propranolol
Bisoprolol

A

Lidocaine

51
Q

Which of the following drugs can treat severe and refractory supraventricular ?

Lidocaine
Minoxidil
Amiodarone
Captopril

A

Amiodarone

52
Q

A 72 year old female is being treated for hyperlipidemia with pravastatin for the past 6 months. Her physician wished to add for her an additional agent to block the absorption of exogenous cholesterol. Which of the following choices would serve this function?

Niacin
Probucol
Gemfibrozil
Ezetimibe

A

Ezetimibe

53
Q

A patient comes into the ER with gallstones, after further investigations, you find out that he is on drugs to treat his hyperlipidemia. Which of the following drugs could have caused his gall stones?

Simvastatin
Fenofibrate
Ezetimibe
Colestipol

A

Fenofibrate

54
Q

A patient develops sever thrombocytopenia in response to treatment with unfractionated heparin and the case is diagnosed as heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which of the following drugs is suitable as a parenteral anticoagulant in this condition?

Alteplase
Argatroban
Rivaroxaban
Dabigatran

A

Argatroban

55
Q

Which if the following is a fibrin-specific plasminogen activator?

Altepase
Aminocaproic acid
Streptokinase
Tranexamic acid

A

Altepase

56
Q

The antiplatelet drug that inhibits reversibly the binding of ADP to P2Y12 receptors on platelets is

Clopidogrel
Prasugrel
Ticagrelor
Tirofiban

A

Ticagrelor

57
Q

Which of the following is an oral anticoagulant that acts as a factor X inhibitor?

Dapigatran
Enoxaparin
Fondaparinux
Rivaroxban

A

Rivaroxban

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