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Pathology MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

1- Septicemia is defined as:

a. Organismal toxins in circulation.
b. Circulation of low doses of bacteria.
c. Circulation of septic emboli.
d. Circulation of large numbers of bacteria releasing their toxins.

A

d. Circulation of large numbers of bacteria releasing their toxins.

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2
Q

2- Tabes mesenterica; this term refers to:

a) Enlarged caseous lymph nodes in primary pulmonary complex.
b) Enlarged caseous lymph nodes in secondary intestinal TB.
c) Enlarged caseous lymph nodes in tonsillar complex.
d) Enlarged caseous lymph nodes in primary intestinal TB.

A

d) Enlarged caseous lymph nodes in primary intestinal TB.

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3
Q

3- Which of the following Is NOT true about bilharzial cystitis:

a) Bilharzial polyps are the most common lesions.
b) It may be complicated by squamous cell carcinoma.
c) Hydronephrosis and renal failure may complicate the disease.
d) It may be accompanied by bladder stone formation.

A

a) Bilharzial polyps are the most common lesions.

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4
Q

4- Condyloma lata are:

a) Painless macules & papules all over the body.
b) Bulky skin papules at areas of moist skin.
c) Painless macules & papules on mucus membrane.
d) Scaly desquamation of palms & soles.

A

b) Bulky skin papules at areas of moist skin.

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5
Q

5- In pyaemia causative factor is:

a) Septic emboli from septic thrombophlebitis.
b) Septic emboli from septic phlebothrombosis.
c) Septic emboli from aseptic thrombophlebitis.
d) Disseminated intravascular coagulation.

A

a) Septic emboli from septic thrombophlebitis.

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6
Q

6- Which of the following cytokines have role in pathogenesis of tuberculosis:

a) IFN-Y
5) CSFs.
c) IL-6.
d) IL-23.

A

a) IFN-Y

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7
Q

7- Which Is NOT true about actinomycosis:

a) It is aerobic gram +ve bacteria.
b) Commonest in the face and neck.
c)Bacterial colonies appear grossly as sulpher granules.
d) Actinomycotic abscess can occur in lung and intestine.

A

a) It is aerobic gram +ve bacteria.

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8
Q

12- Coating the microbes and targeting them for phagocytic cells is called:

a) Opsonization.
b) Chemotaxis.
c) Phagocytosis.
d) Margination.

A

a) Opsonization.

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9
Q

13- TNF is responsible for:

a) Redness and hotness.
b) Leukocytosis.
c) Pain and fever.
d) Fever and leukocyte activation.

A

d) Fever and leukocyte activation.

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10
Q

14- Fibrinous inflammation is characterized by:

a) Prominent increase in vascular permeability
b) A cavity containing pus.
c) Localized aggregate of activated macrophages.
d) Thin water like exudate.

A

a) Prominent increase in vascular permeability

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11
Q

15- Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) in inflammation is due to increased level of:

a) Prostaglandins.
b) Serum amyloid A.
c) TNF.
d) Fibrinogen.

A

d) Fibrinogen.

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12
Q

16- Which of the following is true about cellular changes in acute inflammation:

a) Pavementing is the adhesion of neutrophils to vascular endothelium.
b) Integrin play a role in margination>
c) Neutrophils oftenly emigrate passively.
d) Emigration of leucocytes is followed by leucopenia.

A

a) Pavementing is the adhesion of neutrophils to vascular endothelium.

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13
Q

17- Which is true about hepatic bilharziasis:

a) The portal tracts may show dilated vascular channels.
b) At a late stage of the disease the liver appears markedly enlarged.
c) The hepatic frame work is markedly disturbed.
d) The Kupffer cells engulf bile pigment due to jaundice.

A

a) The portal tracts may show dilated vascular channels.

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14
Q

19- Lesions of vitamin D deficiency include the following EXCEPT:

a) Lymphoid tissue hyperplasia.
b) Weak tendons and muscles.
c) Underweight.
d) Splenomegaly.

A

c) Underweight.

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15
Q

20- Which of the following is true about abscess:

a) It is most commonly caused by streptococcal infection.
b) Wall of abscess is characterized by numerous lymphocytes, plasma cells and giant cells.
c) Gangrene may occur.
d) Spontaneous evacuation never occurs.

A

c) Gangrene may occur.

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16
Q

21- Which of the following is true about chronic inflammation:

a) Giant cells are always present.
b) It always occurs in the form of granulomas.
c) Lymphocytes are common chronic inflammatory cells.
d) Necrosis is a constant finding.

A

c) Lymphocytes are common chronic inflammatory cells.

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17
Q

22- Mycetoma includes:

a) Eumycetoma caused by filamentous bacteria.
b) Actinomycetoma caused by fungal infection.
c) Eumycetoma caused by fungal infection.
d) Actinomycosis.

A

c) Eumycetoma caused by fungal infection.

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18
Q

24- Tobacco smoking Does NOT predispose to:

a) Coronary at the atherosclerosis.
b) Bronchial carcinoma.
c)Fatty change in liver.
d) Ischemic heart disease.

A

c)Fatty change in liver.

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19
Q

26- In liver healing by fibrosis (liver cirrhosis) occurs if:

a) Injury affects parenchymal cells only.
b) Injury affects portal tracts only.
c) Injury affects the peritoneal covering
d) Injury affects liver cells & the frame work.

A

d) Injury affects liver cells & the frame work.

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20
Q

27- In aortic stenosis left ventricle undergoes adaptation by:

a) Hyperplasia.
b) Atrophy.
c) Hypertrophy.
d) Metaplasia.

A

c) Hypertrophy.

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21
Q

28- Which is INCORRECT regarding AIDS:

a) The virus mainly affects CD4+ helper T cells.
b) Caused by Human papilloma virus.
c) Sexually transmitted.
d) Opportunistic infection is the main cause of death

A

b) Caused by Human papilloma virus.

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22
Q

29- Leukoplakia is defined as:

a) Transformation of columnar epithelium into squamous,
b) Squamous epithelium keratinization.
c) Carcinoma in situ of squamous epithelium.
d) Benign epithelial tumor.

A

b) Squamous epithelium keratinization.

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23
Q

30- Histologic differentiation of tumors means:

a) Extent to which tumor cells resemble comparable normal cells.
b) Degree of resemblance of structural pattern of the tumor to that of the normal tissue.
c) Cells develop distinct specialized function.
d) Abnormal behavior of tumor cells.

A

b) Degree of resemblance of structural pattern of the tumor to that of
the normal tissue.

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24
Q

31- Patient diagnosed as squamous cell carcinoma in lung.
Immunohistochemical studies of the biopsy specimen would most likely show strong expression of which of the following tumor markers:

a) Vimentin.
b) Cytokeratin.
c) Alpha feto-protein.
d) Calcitonin.

A

b) Cytokeratin.

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25
Q

32- Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding causes of edema:

a) Hydrostatic pressure increase.
b) Plasma osmotic pressure increase.
c) Lymphatic obstruction.
d) Sodium retention.

A

b) Plasma osmotic pressure increase.

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26
Q

33- Which is true regarding Epstein-Barr virus:

a) Forming genital wart.
b) Causing cancer cervix.
c) Sexually transmitted.
d) Causing Burkitt’s lymphoma.

A

d) Causing Burkitt’s lymphoma.

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27
Q

34- Infarcts of arterial occlusion in solid organs such as the kidneys and heart are:

a) Black.
b) Caseous.
c) Pale.
d) Red.

A

c) Pale.

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28
Q

35- Type of embolism occurs in fracture of long bone:

a) Air embolism.
b) Amniotic fluid embolism.
c) Fat Embolism.
d) Thromboembolism.

A

c) Fat Embolism.

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29
Q

36- Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the dry gangrene?

a) Putrefaction is slow.
b) Spread is slow.
c) Toxaemia is severe
d) Line of demarcation is well developed

A

c) Toxaemia is severe

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30
Q

37- Anasarca means:

a) Severe generalized edema.
b) Mild generalized edema.
c) Severe localized edema.
d) Impaired venous outflow.

A

a) Severe generalized edema.

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31
Q

38- During a routine checkup, a 50-year-old man is found to have blood in his urine. He is otherwise in excellent health. An abdominal CT scan reveals a 2-cm right renal mass. You inform the patient that staging of this tumor is key to selecting treatment and evaluating prognosis. Which of the following is the most important staging factor for this patient:

a) Histologic grade of the tumor.
b) Metastases to regional lymph nodes.
c) Proliferative capacity of the tumor cells.
d) Mutations in the p53 tumor suppressor gene.

A

b) Metastases to regional lymph nodes.

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32
Q

39- Diabetic gangrene is an example of:

a) Moist gangrene.
b) Dry gangrene.
c) Infective gangrene.
d) Gas gangrene.

A

a) Moist gangrene.

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33
Q

40- Nodular leprosy is showing the following:

a) Maculo-anesthetic patch.
b) Symmetric thickening of peripheral nerves.
c) Asymmetric thickening of peripheral nerves.
d) Good T cell response.

A

b) Symmetric thickening of peripheral nerves.

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34
Q

41- Primary pulmonary tuberculosis affects:

a) Base of upper lobe & upper part of lower lobe.
b) Upper part of upper lobe & Base of lower lobe.
c) Base of upper lobe & base of lower lobe.
d) Upper part of the upper lobe & upper part of the lower lobe.

A

a) Base of upper lobe & upper part of lower lobe.

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35
Q

42- Which of the following inflammatory disease is characterized by pseudo membrane formation:

a) Lobar pneumonia.
b) Bronchial asthma.
c) Bacillary dysentery.
d) Cellulitis.

A

c) Bacillary dysentery.

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36
Q

43- Which of the following injuries can heal by regeneration:

a) Peripheral nerve injury.
b) Bone fracture.
c) Epidermal injury.
d) All of the above.

A

d) All of the above.

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37
Q

45- Propagation can occur in thrombosis of:

a) Renal artery.
b) Aorta.
c) Leg veins.
d) Vegetations.

A

c) Leg veins.

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38
Q

46- Gangrene where natural amputation can occur:

a) Dry gangrene.
b) Moist gangrene.
c) Diabetic gangrene.
d) Intestinal gangrene.

A

a) Dry gangrene.

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39
Q

47- Mural thrombus is thrombus of

a) Portal vein.
b) Capillaries.
c) Cardiac chambers.
d) Cardiac valves.

A

c) Cardiac chambers.

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40
Q

48- Choristoma is:

a) Normal tissue in abnormal site.
b) Normal tissue in normal site.
c) Abnormal tissue in any site.
d) None of the above.

A

a) Normal tissue in abnormal site.

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41
Q

49- Person working in vinyl chloride industries are prone to:

a) Squamous cell carcinoma.
b) Mesothelioma
c) Hepatic angiosarcoma.
d) Transitional cell carcinoma

A

c) Hepatic angiosarcoma.

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42
Q

50- Which of the following Is NOT true about malignant cachexia:

a) Marked decrease of body fat and lean body mass
b) Cachexia results due to nutritional demands of the tumor.
c) There is some correlation between the size and extent of tumor spread and cachexia,
d) Cachexia results from action of cytokines produced by tumor and host macrophages.

A

b) Cachexia results due to nutritional demands of the tumor.

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43
Q

51- Normal cellular genes that encodes proteins that drive cell
proliferation:

a) Proto-oncogenes.
b) Oncogenes.
c) Tumor suppressor genes.
d) Apoptotic genes.

A

a) Proto-oncogenes

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44
Q

52- A 17 year old male with cast for a leg fracture after car accident, after removing the cast the affected leg muscles were decreased in size. Which of the following is true about this condition:

a) It is due to vascular atrophy.
b) It is due to pressure atrophy.
c) It is due to Neuropathic atrophy.
d) It is due to disuse atrophy.

A

d) It is due to disuse atrophy.

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45
Q

53- Which of the following is FALSE as regarding Krukenberg tumors:

a) They are accompanied by hemorrhagic ascites.
b) They are considered to represent a transcoelomic spread.
c) They may be due to retrograde lymphatic or blood spread.
d) They are primary bilateral ovarian tumors.

A

d) They are primary bilateral ovarian tumors.

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46
Q

54- Which of the following genes is the guardian of our genome:

a) The Retinoblastoma gene (RB gene).
b) The erbB2 gene.
c) The Bcl2 gene.
d) The TP53 gene.

A

d) The TP53 gene.

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47
Q

55- Which of the following tumors related to viral infection:

a) Breast carcinoma.
b) Hepatocellular carcinoma.
c) Colonic adenocarcinoma.
d) Signet ring cell carcinoma.

A

b) Hepatocellular carcinoma.

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48
Q

56- Which of the following serum marker elevated with ovarian cancer?

a) CA -125.
b) Human chorionic gonadotrophin.
c) Prostatic specific antigens.
d) Alpha-fetoprotein.

A

a) CA -125.

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49
Q

57- Which is INCORRECT regarding Radiation injury:

a) Labile cells are radioresistant.
b) Carcinogenesis.
c) Bone marrow aplasia.
d) Acute respiratory distress syndrome.

A

a) Labile cells are radioresistant.

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50
Q

58- Heroin addiction may result in the following EXCEPT:

a. Disseminated angiitis.
b. Meningitis and brain infections.
c. Transmitted infections.
d. Increases synthesis of norepinephrines and dopamine.

A

d. Increases synthesis of norepinephrines and dopamine.

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51
Q

59- Alcohol abuse predisposes to:

a. Coronary atherosclerosis and ischemic heart diseases.
b. Chronic obstructive lung diseases.
c. Fatty change in the liver, alcoholic hepatitis and cirrhosis.
d. Fetal hypoxia and premature deaths.

A

c. Fatty change in the liver, alcoholic hepatitis and cirrhosis.

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52
Q

60- Which of the following is late effect of total body irradiation:

a. Malignancy such as leukemia.
b. Radiation sickness.
c. Haemopoietic syndrome.
d. Gastrointestinal syndrome.

A

a. Malignancy such as leukemia.

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53
Q

61- Niacin deficiency (pellagra) produce the following:

a. Weak tendons and muscles.
b. Dermatitis, diarrhea & dementia.
c. Decreased bone density.
d. Splenomegaly.

A

b. Dermatitis, diarrhea & dementia.

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54
Q

62- Which of the following IS NOT a pathological feature of rickets:

a. Pigeon breast chest. mole he weird scent th
b. The bone density and cortical thickness are decreased due to improper osteoid mineralization during bone remodeling.
c. Delayed closure of fontanelles.
d. Lumbar lordosis.

A

b. The bone density and cortical thickness are decreased due to
improper osteoid mineralization during bone remodeling.

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55
Q

63- What is FALSE about minerals disorders:

a. Decreased levels of zinc is responsible for delayed wound healing.
b. Decreased levels of iodine is responsible for goiter.
c. Decreased levels of iron is responsible for anemia.
d. Lead toxicity is responsible for impaired tissue oxygenation.

A

d. Lead toxicity is responsible for impaired tissue oxygenation.

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56
Q

64- The following is a cause of Vitamin D deficiency:

a. Lack of vegetables intake.
b. Methotrexate intake.
c. Corn eating societies.
d. Fat malabsorption or inborn errors of metabolism.

A

d. Fat malabsorption or inborn errors of metabolism.

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57
Q

65- Haemopoietic & lymphopoietic effects of radiation DON’T include:

a. Bone marrow depression.
b. Leukemia.
c. Lymph node hyperplasia.
d. Lymphoma.

A

c. Lymph node hyperplasia.

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58
Q

66- What is true about filarial Lymphangitis and Lymphadenitis:

a. Axillary nodes are the most commonly affected nodes.
b. Inflammation is mainly caused by dead worms.
c. It includes types III hypersensitivity reactions.
d. It is granulomatous inflammation.

A

b. Inflammation is mainly caused by dead worms.

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59
Q

67- The following Diseases are caused by Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) EXCEPT:

a. Infectious mononucleosis.
b. Burkitt’s lymphoma:
c. Opportunistic infections
d. Nasopharyngeal cancer.

A

c. Opportunistic infections

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60
Q

68- Tuberculoid leprosy characterized by:

a. The tissue reaction consists of caseating granulomas.
b. The granulomas surround the nerve fibers in the dermis.
c. Visceral lesions.
d. Nasal nodules and ulcers.

A

b. The granulomas surround the nerve fibers in the dermis.

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61
Q

69- Serum tumor markers that can be used in diagnosis of neoplasia include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. PSA.
b. Alpha feto protein.
c. Carcinoembryonic antigen.
d. Estrogen receptors.

A

d. Estrogen receptors.

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62
Q

70- The following is an oncogenic virus:

a. Herpes zoster virus.
b. human papilloma virus.
c. Hepatitis A virus.
d. Herpes simplex virus.

A

b. human papilloma virus.

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63
Q

71- The following are groups of oncogenes EXCEPT:

a. Genes which produce growth factors.
b. Genes which produce the growth factor receptors.
c. Genes which encode signal transduction.
d. Genes which encode products stop cell proliferation.

A

d. Genes which encode products stop cell proliferation.

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64
Q

72- What is FALSE about carcinogenesis:

a. Cancer is a genetic disorder caused by DNA mutations.
b. The genetic mutations are passed to daughter cells upon cell division.
c. Most tumors are polyclonal.
d. It is thought that these mutations allow the cells to dominate the population (Darwinian selection).

A

c. Most tumors are polyclonal.

65
Q

73- Which of the following growth factors is fibro genic and growth inhibitory factor:

a. Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-B).
b. Epidermal growth factor (EGF).
c. Transforming growth factor alpha (TGFa).
d. Fibroblast growth factor (FGF).

A

a. Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-B).

66
Q

74- The key cell in chronic inflammation is:

a. Lymphocytes.
b. Macrophages.
c. Plasma cells.
d. Giant cells.

A

b. Macrophages.

67
Q

75- Which of the following is characteristic for pseudomembranous inflammation:

a- Is a sever type of suppurative inflammation.
b- It is accompanied by excessive mucus production
c- The toxins of causative bacteria cause necrosis of surface epithelium
d- There is excessive fibrin and RBC’s

A

c- The toxins of causative bacteria cause necrosis of surface epithelium

68
Q

76- Which of the following statement is true about dysplasia:

a- It shows specific gross appearance
b- High grade dysplasia is considered as invasive cancer
c- Low grade dysplasia is commonly reversible
d- Low grade dysplasia affects upper two thirds up to the whole thickness of epithelium

A

c- Low grade dysplasia is commonly reversible

69
Q

77- Which is true for locally malignant tumors:

a- They give distant metastasis
b- They have rapid growth
c- They have better prognosis than malignant tumors
d- They lack the microscopic picture of malignancy

A

c- They have better prognosis than malignant tumors

70
Q

78- Which of the following is serum marker of hepatocellular
carcinoma:

a- Carcino-embryonic antigen
b- Calcitonin
c- CA-125
d- Alpha feto-protein

A

d- Alpha feto-protein

71
Q

79- Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a causative agent of the following EXCEPT:

a- Cancer cervix
b- Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c- Infection mononucleosis
d- Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

a- Cancer cervix

72
Q

80- Which of the following factors does NOT lead to odema:

a- Increase plasma colloid osmotic pressure
b- Increase tissue osmotic pressure
c- Increase capillary permeability
d- Malignant permeation of lymphatics

A

a- Increase plasma colloid osmotic pressure

73
Q

81- Tobacco smoking predispose to all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Fetal hypoxi2a
b- Bronchial carcinoma
c- Coronary atherosclerosis
d- Thyrotoxicosis

A

d- Thyrotoxicosis

74
Q

87- All of the following are chemotactic factors EXCEPT

a- Bacterial products
b- Leukotriene
c- Complement
d- Integrins

A

d- Integrins

75
Q

88- Anasarca is due to:

a- Liver dysfunction
b- Left side heart failure
c- Acute suppurative inflammation
d- Elephantiasis

A

a- Liver dysfunction

76
Q

89- All of the following are complications of defective repair EXCEPT:

a- Sinus
b- Ulcer
c- Fistula
d- Keloid

A

d- Keloid

77
Q

90- Lobar pneumonia is an example for:

a- Allergic inflammation
b- Localized suppurative inflammation
c- Serous inflammation
d- Fibrinous inflammation

A

d- Fibrinous inflammation

78
Q

91- Which of the following chemical mediator is responsible for flare phenomena:

a- Histamine
b- Glutathione
c- Cathepsin
d- IL 6

A

a- Histamine

79
Q

92- All of the following are not true about C5a EXCEPT:

a- Present in plasma in active form
b- Can kill some bacteria
c- Act as opsonin
d- Has chemotactic effect

A

d- Has chemotactic effect

80
Q

93- Paracrine signals:

a- Are growth factors secreted by nearby cells
b- Are inhibitory factors block cell division
c- Are growth factors secreted by distant sites
d- Are growth factors secreted by cells themselves

A

a- Are growth factors secreted by nearby cells

81
Q

94- Total body irradiation results in all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Hematopoietic syndrome
b- Vascular syndrome
c- Cerebral syndrome
d- Gastrointestinal syndrome

A

b- Vascular syndrome

82
Q

95- Tobacco smoking predispose to:

a-Fetal hypoxia and premature death
b- Heat stroke
c- Rickets
d- Pellagra

A

a-Fetal hypoxia and premature death

83
Q

97- Acute non suppurative inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Catarrhal inflammation
b- Allergic inflammation
c- Carbuncle
d- Serous inflammation

A

c- Carbuncle

84
Q

98- Pain in acute inflammation is caused by:

a- IL 1, TNF
b- Leukotriene
c- Chemokines
d- Prostaglandin and bradykinine

A

d- Prostaglandin and bradykinine

85
Q

99- Staphylococcal pus is characterized by the following EXCEPT:

a- Thick in consistency
b-Clot (coagulate) when standing
c- Presence of bacteria
d- Alkaline reaction

A

b-Clot (coagulate) when standing

86
Q

100- Sinus is:

a- Local defect within the surface
b- Blind ended tract
c- Tract communicating between two surfaces.
d- Over done repair

A

b- Blind ended tract

87
Q

101- Infectious granuloma include all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Tuberculosis
b- Bilharziasis
c- Silicosis
d- Leprosy

A

c- Silicosis

88
Q

102- The liver has excellent regeneration capacity however there is damage to tissue architecture it is repaired by fibrous tissue. What type of cells is the liver:

a- Stable
b- Non dividing
c- Labile
d-Permanent

A

a- Stable

89
Q

103- Factors that retard healing of the wounds include all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Infection
b- UVs
c- Diabetes mellitus
d- Exogenous glucocorticoids

A

b- UVs

90
Q

104- The following is true about adenoma EXCEPT:

a- Benign mesenchymal tumor
b-Is capsulated
c- May secrete hormones
d- May turn malignant

A

a- Benign mesenchymal tumor

91
Q

105- A tumor of three germ cell layers foreign to the organ from which they arise is called:

a- Teratoma
b- Hamartoma
c- Choristoma
d- Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

a- Teratoma

92
Q

106- Disordered proliferation of cells is known as:

a- Metaplasia
b- Hyperplesia
c- Dysplasia
d- Atrophy

A

c- Dysplasia

93
Q

107- Bilharziasis of rectum can lead to all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Hemorrhage
b- Bilharziasis of liver
c- Dysentery
d- Cancer colon

A

d- Cancer colon

94
Q

108- The most common bilharzial lesion on colon:

a- Sandy patches
b- Ulcers
c- Leukoplakia
d- Polyps

A

d- Polyps

95
Q

109- For bilharziasis of the liver one of the following is NOT correct:

a- It is caused by schistosoma hematobium
b- Ova are carried as emboli from the colon
c- The liver is first enlarged then shrunken
d- With excessive fibrosis the portal tract become widening and appear grossly as white thick bands

A

a- It is caused by schistosoma hematobium

96
Q

110- The main cells involved in acute inflammation are:

a- Neutrophils and macrophages
b- Plasma cells and macrophages
c- Lymphocytes and macrophages
d- Lymphocytes and plasma cells

A

a- Neutrophils and macrophages

97
Q

111- Which of the following statements is NOT true about spread of malignant tumors:

a- Lymphatic spread occur early in sarcomas
b- Emboli derived from tumors of GIT reach directly to the liver
c- Bone metastasis are mostly osteolytic
d- Breast carcinoma usually spread by lymahatics

A

a- Lymphatic spread occur early in sarcomas

98
Q

112- The edge of malignant ulcer is:

a- Undermined
b- sharp
c- Everted
d- Slopping

A

c- Everted

99
Q

113- Benign tumors show the following features EXCEPT:

a- Their margins are well defined
b- Abundant mitosis
c- Most of them are capsulated
d- They don’t metastasis

A

b- Abundant mitosis

100
Q

114- Chemical carcinogens include all EXCEPT

a- Aromatic hydrocarbons
b- ß naphthylamine
c- asbestos
d- lead

A

d- lead

101
Q

115- primary intestinal tuberculosis presents mainly by:

a- ulcers with undermined edges
b- tabes mesenterica
c- tuberculous peritonitis
d- intestinal obstruction

A

b- tabes mesenterica

102
Q

116- Actinomycosis:

a- Is a fungal infection.
b- Characterized by presence of epithelioid granuloma
c- Shows multiple sinus formation
d- Is an acute disease

A

c- Shows multiple sinus formation

103
Q

117- Lepromatous leprosy is characterized by:

a- Macrophages with foamy cytoplasm
b- Non caseating granuloma
c- Anesthetic patches
d- High immunity

A

a- Macrophages with foamy cytoplasm

104
Q

118- Most common cause of death in AIDS in infected patients is:

a- Kaposi sarcoma
b- Non Hodgkin lymphoma
c- Opportunistic infection
d- Autoimmune disease secondary to T helper cells dysfunction

A

c- Opportunistic infection

105
Q

119- Cancer cervix is linked to:

a- EPV
b- TB
c- HIV
d- HPV

A

d- HPV

106
Q

120- Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning Madura foot:

a- It is fungal/bacterial disease
b- It is more encountered in agriculture workers
c- It causes membranous inflammation
d- It affects subcutaneous tissue and bones

A

c- It causes membranous inflammation

107
Q

121- One of the following is NOT feature of chancer:

a- It represents primary stage of syphilis
b- It is a painful papule
c- It may occur at genital or extragenital sites
d- It may be accompanied by lymph node enlargement

A

b- It is a painful papule

108
Q

122- The key cell in chronic inflammation is:

a- Eosinophil
b- Macrophage
c- Plasma cells
d- Neutrophil

A

b- Macrophage

109
Q

123- The predominant cell in granulation tissue is:

a- Epitheloid macrophages
b- Mast cells
c- Fibroblast neutrophil

A

c- Fibroblast neutrophil

110
Q

124- Marjolin ulcer is:

a- Acute ulcer due to rupture of an abscess
b- Chronic inflammatory ulcer
c- Carcinoma developing in ulcers related to burns
d- A clean surgical wound

A

c- Carcinoma developing in ulcers related to burns

111
Q

125- The following tissue heal by fibrosis:

a- Bone
b- Bone marrow
c- Peripheral nerve
d- Cardiac muscle

A

d- Cardiac muscle

112
Q

126- Which of the following is true about locally malignant tumors (intermediate tumors):

a- They give distant metastasis
b- They have rapid growth
c- They can recur after surgical removal
d- They lack the microscopic features of malignant tumors

A

c- They can recur after surgical removal

113
Q

127- Which of the following statements is NOT true:

a- Liver cirrhosis is precancerous
b- Cancer may have genetic predisposition
c- Cigarette smoking cause lung cancer
d- The frequency of cancer decrease with age

A

d- The frequency of cancer decrease with age

114
Q

128- In an ultrasonic examination of a patient the left kidney was found enlarged the other kidney was previously removed after an accident. The enlarged kidney at this case. represents:

a- Hyperplesia
b- Hypertrophy
c- Metaplasia
d- Neoplasia

A

b- Hypertrophy

115
Q

129- Which of the following statements is NOT true about bilharzial splenomegaly:

a- It may enlarge up to a few kilograrns
b- Its cut section may show fibrosidrotic nodules
c- Early the white pulp is atrophied
d- Serofibrinous inflammation of splenic capsule may occur

A

c- Early the white pulp is atrophied

116
Q

130- The following lesion is precancerous in bilharzial cystitis:

a- Brunn’s nest
b- Transtional cellatrophy
c- Leukoplakia
d- Fibrosis

A

c- Leukoplakia

117
Q

134- Chemotactic substances for neutrophils include all of the
following EXCEPT:

a- Leukotrines
b- Bacterial toxins
c- C3a and C5a
d- Histamine

A

d- Histamine

118
Q

135- Cellulitis is:

a- Localized suppuration
b- Necrotizing inflammation
c- Caused by staphylococcus
d- Diffuse suppurative inflammation of loose connective tissue

A

d- Diffuse suppurative inflammation of loose connective tissue

119
Q

136- A collection of activated macrophages with lymphocytes and giant cells is called:

a- Acute inflammation
b- Granulation tissue
c- Granuloma
d- Keloid

A

c- Granuloma

120
Q

137- The circulation and multiplication of large number of virulent bacteria and their toxins in blood is called:

a- Septicemia
b- Toxemia
c- Pyaemia
d- Bacterima

A

a- Septicemia

121
Q

138- Gumma is localized area of syphilitic granulation tissue in:

a- Primary stage
b- Secondary stage
c- Latent stage
d- Tertiary stage

A

d- Tertiary stage

122
Q

139- All of the following are considered features of primary
tuberculosis of the lung EXCEPT
:
a- Infection for the first time
b- Mainly affect children
c- Massive tissue necrosis
d- The bacilli pass to the lymph nodes causing their enlargement

A

c- Massive tissue necrosis

123
Q

140- The following are sites of primary TB EXCEPT:

a- Lung
b- Skin
c- Sigmoid colon
d- Tonsils

A

c- Sigmoid colon

124
Q

143- Grading of squamous cell carcinoma depends on amount of:

a- Acinar formation
b- Papillary formation
c- Cell nest formation
d- Stromal invasion

A

c- Cell nest formation

125
Q

144- Genes responsible for sensing genomic damage are called:

a- Anti apoptic genes
b-Guardian genes
c- Governor genes
d-Amplification genes

A

b-Guardian genes

126
Q

145- A pulmonary cavity lesion in pulmonary tuberculosis patient most likely occurs in:

a- Primary tuberculosis.
b- Miliary tuberculosis
c- Secondary tuberculosis.
d- Exudative tuberculosis

A

c- Secondary tuberculosis.

127
Q

146- Squamous metaplasia occur at all of the following sites EXCEPT:

a- Bronchial epithelium in cigarette smoking patient
b- Gall bladder due to gall bladder stones
c- Lower end of esophagus
d- Urinary bladder epithelium in association with bilharziasis

A

c- Lower end of esophagus

128
Q

147- Carcinogenesis is a multistep process which include all of the following except:

a- Initiation
b- Promotion
c- Neoplastic transformation
d- Apoptosis inhibition

A

d- Apoptosis inhibition

129
Q

148- Which is NOT true about krukenberg tumors:

a- May be associated with hemorrhagic ascites
b-May occur in male patient in cancer prostate
c- Is usually bilateral
d- Can be seen in the patient with cancer stomach

A

b-May occur in male patient in cancer prostate

130
Q

149- The following is true about PSA (prostatic surface antigen):

a- It is a growth factor
b- It provides a definitive diagnosis of cancer
c- It is a serum tumor marker
d- It is an indicator of metastasis

A

c- It is a serum tumor marker

131
Q

150- The following is true regarding HER2 in breast tumors:

a- HER2 postive tumors are responsive to tamoxifen
b- HER2 postive tumors are aggressive tumors.
c- HER2 is a proliferative marker
d- HER2 reflects hormone receptors status of the tumor

A

b- HER2 postive tumors are aggressive tumors.

132
Q

151- Bilharzial liver shows:

a- Regeneration nodules
b- Marked apoptosis
c- Thickened portal tracts
d- Nutmeg liver

A

c- Thickened portal tracts

133
Q

152- Cystitis cystica in the urinary bladder represents:

a- Downward growth of transitional epithelium in the mucosa of bladder
b- Cysts line by intestinal type columnar epithelium
c- Cysts lined by transitional epithelium
d- Cysts lined by gastric type columnar epithelium

A

c- Cysts lined by transitional epithelium

134
Q

153- The following is a manifestation of primary syphilis:

a- Mucous patches
b- Condyloma latum
c- Generalized skin rash
d- Chancer

A

d- Chancer

135
Q

154- Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning Madura foot:

a- It is fungal/ bacterial disease
b- It is more encountered in agriculture workers
c- It causes membranous inflammation
d- It affects the subcutaneous tissue and bone

A

c- It causes membranous inflammation

136
Q

155- Squamous metaplasia occurs in all the following sites EXCEPT:

a- Bronchial epithelium in cigarette smokers
b- Gall bladder due to gall stones
c- Lower end eosophagus
d- Urinary bladder epithelium in association with bilharziasis

A

c- Lower end eosophagus

137
Q

158- All of the following are examples of non suppurative inflammation EXCEPT:

a- Boil
b- Lobar pneumonia
c- Catarrhal rhinitis
d- Bacillary dysentery

A

a- Boil

138
Q

160- Pain in acute inflammation is caused by:

a- IL-land TNF
b- Leukotriene
c- Chemokines
d- Prostaglandins and bradykinin

A

d- Prostaglandins and bradykinin

139
Q

161- Chemical carcinogens include all EXCEPT:

a- Aromatic hydrocarbons
b- ß-naphthalamine
c- asbestos
d- lead

A

d- lead

140
Q

162- which of the following is true for sarcomas:

a- malignant glandular tissue
b- more common than carcinoma
c- forms large bulky fleshy mass
d- distant spread is predominantly by lymphatics

A

c- forms large bulky fleshy mass

141
Q

163- hypertrophy is:

a- disordered atypical non- neoplastic cellular proliferation
b- increase in the size of the cells
c- uncontrolled autonomous cell growth
d- increase in number of the cells

A

b- increase in the size of the cells

142
Q

164- the following id tumor suppressor genes:

a- RAS genes
b- Retinoblastoma gene
c- MYC gene
d- Bcl2 gene

A

b- Retinoblastoma gene

143
Q

165- During spread of malignant tumors, loss of cell cohesion is due to:

a- Increase cathepsin activity
b- Macrophage derived mobility factors
c- Increase expression of laminin
d- Loss of cadherin expression

A

d- Loss of cadherin expression

144
Q

166- Tobacco smoking predispose to all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Ischemic heart disease
b- Thyrotoxicosis
c- Obstructive lung disease
d- Cancer lung (bronchogenic carcinoma)

A

b- Thyrotoxicosis

145
Q

167- The following is suppurative inflammation:

a- Carbuncle
b- Diphtheria
c- Common cold
d- Serofibrinous inflammation of the pleura

A

a- Carbuncle

146
Q

168- The following chemical mediator is derived from plasma;

a- Prostaglandins
b- Ilistamine
c- Nitric oxide
d- Bradykinin

A

d- Bradykinin

147
Q

170- Following phagocytosis organisms are killed by:

a- Lymphokines
b- IgG
c- Lysozymes
d- Nitric oxide

A

c- Lysozymes

148
Q

171- Disordered proliferation of cells is known as:

a- Metaplasia
b- Dysplasia
c- Hyperplesia
d- Anaplesia

A

b- Dysplasia

149
Q

172- The following is a mucin secreting carcinoma:

a- Squamous cell carcinoma
b- Carcinoma simplex
c- Signet ring carcinoma
d- Leukoplakia

A

c- Signet ring carcinoma

150
Q

173- Which of the following is NOT a feature of teratoma:

a. It commonly affects ovaries and testis
b. It is derived from totipotent germ cells
c. It is derived from embryonic cell remnants
d. It can affect sacrococcygeal region

A

c. It is derived from embryonic cell remnants

151
Q

174- Common sites of blood borne metastasis include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Liver
b. Lungs
c. Spleen
d. Bones

A

c. Spleen

152
Q

175- Which is true about papilloma:

A. Squamous cell papilloma is strongly premalignant
B. Duct papilloma can be seen in major ducts of breast and pancreas
C. Transitional cell papilloma arise from columnar epithelium
D. Papilloma has a branching core covered by proliferated highly atypical

A

B. Duct papilloma can be seen in major ducts of breast and pancreas

153
Q

176- Epithelium Neuroblastoma is an embryonic tumor arising from:

a. Kidney
b. Spinal cord
c. Suprarenal
d. Liver

A

c. Suprarenal

154
Q

177- A chancer is:

a. Primary lesion of syphilis
b. Secondary lesion of syphilis
c. Tertiary lesion of syphilis
d. Characteristic lesion of leprosy

A

a. Primary lesion of syphilis

155
Q

178- The following infective agents causes chronic abscess with sulphur granules:

a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Spirochetes
c. Actinomyces Israeli
d. Cytomegalovirus

A

c. Actinomyces Israeli

156
Q

179- Epistein-Barr virus is linked to all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Cancer of uterine cervix
b. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

a. Cancer of uterine cervix

157
Q

180- The following is true about dry gangrene:

a. Caused by clostridia
b. Commonly occurs on the feet of old patients
c. Toxemia is marked
d. Both the artery and the vein are occluded

A

b. Commonly occurs on the feet of old patients

158
Q

181- All the following mediators can cause fever EXCEPT:

a. Prostaglandins
b. Interleukin 1
c. Histamine
d. Tumor necrosis factor

A

c. Histamine

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