Pharmacology and toxicology Flashcards

1
Q

pathophysiology amiodarone induced hypothyroidism

A

The pathophysiology of amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect, an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide

Amiodarone may be continued if this is desirable

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2
Q

Amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis type 1

A

Excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis
present goitre
Mx
Carbimazole or potassium perchlorate

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3
Q

Amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis type 2

A

Amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis
no goitre
corticosteoids Mx

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4
Q

common causes of drug induced peripheral neuropathy

A

I AM Very Numbed

Isoniazid
Amiodarone
Metronidazole
Vinicristine
Nitrofurantoin
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5
Q

p450 inducers

A

PC BRAS- phenytoin,carbamazepine,barbiturates,rifampicin,alcohol (chronic),sulfonylurea

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6
Q

p450 inhibitors

A
SICKFACES.COM
Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol...binge drinking
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulphonamides
(.)
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole
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7
Q

heparin mechanism of action

A

Activates antithrombin III. Forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, Xia and XIIa

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8
Q

low molecular weight heparin mechanism of action

A

Activates antithrombin III. Forms a complex that inhibits factor Xa

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9
Q

heparin monitoring

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

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10
Q

LMWH monitoring

A

Anti-Factor Xa (although routine monitoring is not required)

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11
Q

pathophysiology HIT

A

immune mediated - antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin
these antibodies bind to the PF4-heparin complexes on the platelet surface and induce platelet activation by cross-linking FcγIIA receptors
usually does not develop until after 5-10 days of treatment
despite being associated with low platelets HIT is actually a prothrombotic condition
features include a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis and skin allergy
address need for ongoing anticoagulation:
direct thrombin inhibitor e.g. argatroban
danaparoid

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12
Q

heparin reversal

A

protamine sulphate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

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13
Q

pathophysiology paracetamol overdose

A

The liver normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. During an overdose the conjugation system becomes saturated leading to oxidation by P450 mixed function oxidases*. This produces a toxic metabolite (N-acetyl-B-benzoquinone imine)

Normally glutathione acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. If glutathione stores run-out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death. This occurs not only in hepatocytes but also in the renal tubules

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14
Q

why is NAC used in paracetamol overdose

A

N-acetyl cysteine is used in the management of paracetamol overdose as it is a precursor of glutathione and hence can increase hepatic glutathione production

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15
Q

ciclosporin side effects

A
(note how everything is increased - fluid, BP, K+, hair, gums, glucose)
nephrotoxicity
hepatotoxicity
fluid retention
hypertension
hyperkalaemia
hypertrichosis
gingival hyperplasia
tremor
impaired glucose tolerance
hyperlipidaemia
increased susceptibility to severe infection
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16
Q

what should be checked before starting allopurinol

A

The most significant adverse effects are dermatological and patients should be warned to stop allopurinol immediately if they develop a rash:
severe cutaneous adverse reaction (SCAR)
drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)
Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Certain ethnic groups such as the Chinese, Korean and Thai people seem to be at an increased risk of these dermatological reactions.

Patients at a high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele.

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17
Q

allopurinol interactions

A

Azathioprine
metabolised to active compound 6-mercaptopurine
xanthine oxidase is responsible for the oxidation of 6-mercaptopurine to 6-thiouric acid
allopurinol can therefore lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine
a much reduced dose (e.g. 25%) must therefore be used if the combination cannot be avoided

Cyclophosphamide
allopurinol reduces renal clearance, therefore may cause marrow toxicity

Theophylline
allopurinol causes an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline by inhibiting its breakdown

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18
Q

avoid ciprofloxacin in whcih genetic disorder

A

G6PD

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19
Q

MDMA use features

A

neurological: agitation, anxiety, confusion, ataxia
cardiovascular: tachycardia, hypertension
hyponatraemia
hyperthermia
rhabdomyolysis

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20
Q

MDMA management

A

supportive

dantrolene may be used for hyperthermia if simple measures fail

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21
Q

aspirin overdose management

A

urinary alkalinization with IV bicarbonate

haemodialysis

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22
Q

benzodiazipine overdose management

A

Flumazenil
The majority of overdoses are managed with supportive care only due to the risk of seizures with flumazenil. It is generally only used with severe or iatrogenic overdoses.

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23
Q

TCA overdose management

A

IV bicarbonate may reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias in severe toxicity
arrhythmias: class 1a (e.g. Quinidine) and class Ic antiarrhythmics (e.g. Flecainide) are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs such as amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Response to lignocaine is variable and it should be emphasized that correction of acidosis is the first line in management of tricyclic induced arrhythmias
dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics

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24
Q

Lithium overdose management

A

mild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline
haemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicity
sodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion

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25
Q

beta blocker overdose management

A

if bradycardic then atropine

in resistant cases glucagon may be used

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26
Q

ethylene glycol overdose management

A

ethanol has been used for many years
works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase
this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. Glycoaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the haemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning
fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol
haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases

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27
Q

methanol poisoning management

A

fomepizole (competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase) or ethanol
haemodialysis

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28
Q

organophosphate management

A

atropine

the role of pralidoxime is still unclear - meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit

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29
Q

digoxin overdose management

A

Digoxin-specific antibody fragments

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30
Q

iron poisoning Mx

A

Desferrioxamine, a chelating agent

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31
Q

lead poisonin Mx

A

Dimercaprol, calcium edetate

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32
Q

cyanide Mx

A

Hydroxocobalamin; also combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate

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33
Q

DRESS syndrome

A

extensive skin rash, high fever, and organ involvement

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34
Q

sulfonylureas side effects

A

Hypoglycaemic episodes
Increased appetite and weight gain
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
Liver dysfunction (cholestatic)

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35
Q

drugs contraindicated in pregnancy

A
Antibiotics
tetracyclines
aminoglycosides
sulphonamides and trimethoprim
quinolones: the BNF advises to avoid due to arthropathy in some animal studies
Other drugs
ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists
statins
warfarin
sulfonylureas
retinoids (including topical)
cytotoxic agents
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36
Q

MoA abciximab

A

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist such as abciximab used in primary angioplasty has shown a tendency towards reducing the incidence of adverse coronary events (e.g. death or myocardial infarction) within the first 30 days.

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37
Q

lithium toxicity precipitated by

A

dehydration
renal failure
drugs: diuretics (especially thiazides), ACE inhibitors/angiotensin II receptor blockers, NSAIDs and metronidazole.

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38
Q

lithium toxicity features

A
coarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)
hyperreflexia
acute confusion
polyuria
seizure
coma
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39
Q

why does alcohol make you pee

A

Ethanol reduces the calcium-dependent secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) by blocking channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal.

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40
Q

how does mathanol cause vision changes?

A

formic acid. The actual pathophysiology of methanol-associated visual loss is not fully understood but it is thought to be caused by a form of optic neuropathy

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41
Q

causes of hypomagnesimia

A

drugs: diuretics, proton pump inhibitors
total parenteral nutrition
diarrhoea
alcohol
hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia
conditions causing diarrhoea: Crohn’s, ulcerative colitis
metabolic disorders: Gitleman’s and Bartter’s

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42
Q

features of hypomagnesaemia

A
paraesthesia
tetany
seizures
arrhythmias
decreased PTH secretion → hypocalcaemia
ECG features similar to those of hypokalaemia
exacerbates digoxin toxicity
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43
Q

cocaine mechanism

A

cocaine blocks the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline and serotonin

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44
Q

cocaine side effects

A
Cardiovascular effects
myocardial infarction
both tachycardia and bradycardia may occur
hypertension
QRS widening and QT prolongation
aortic dissection
Neurological effects
seizures
mydriasis
hypertonia
hyperreflexia

Psychiatric effects
agitation
psychosis
hallucinations

Others
ischaemic colitis is recognised in patients following cocaine ingestion. This should be considered if patients complain of abdominal pain or rectal bleeding
hyperthermia
metabolic acidosis
rhabdomyolysis
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45
Q

cocaine toxicity management

A

in general, benzodiazepines are generally first-line for most cocaine-related problems
chest pain: benzodiazepines + glyceryl trinitrate. If myocardial infarction develops then primary percutaneous coronary intervention
hypertension: benzodiazepines + sodium nitroprusside
the use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is a controversial issue. The American Heart Association issued a statement in 2008 warning against the use of beta-blockers (due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm) but many cardiologists since have questioned whether this is valid. If a reasonable alternative is given in an exam it is probably wise to choose it

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46
Q

how does cyanide work

A

Cyanide inhibits the enzyme cytochrome c oxidase, resulting in cessation of the mitochondrial electron transfer chain.

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47
Q

cyanide presentation

A

‘classical’ features: brick-red skin, smell of bitter almonds

acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion
chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitis

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48
Q

lowers seizure threshold

A

ciprofloxacin

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49
Q

pilocarpine MoA

A

muscarinic agonist

It can be used to treat acute closed-angle glaucoma as it causes miosis, or to treat dry mouth following head and neck radiotherapy (or in sjogren’s disease).

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50
Q

drugs which impair glucose tolerance

A

TASTINg (SUGAR)

Thiazide
Antipschotics
Steroids
T cell (tacrolimus/ciclosporin)
Interferon Alpha
Nicotinic Acid
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51
Q

metformin mechanism

A

acts by activation of the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)
increases insulin sensitivity
decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis
may also reduce gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates

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52
Q

metformin adverse effects

A

gastrointestinal upsets are common (nausea, anorexia, diarrhoea), intolerable in 20%
reduced vitamin B12 absorption - rarely a clinical problem
lactic acidosis* with severe liver disease or renal failure

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53
Q

starting metformin

A

metformin should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects
if patients develop unacceptable side-effects then modified-release metformin should be considered

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54
Q

aspirin mechanism

A

Aspirin, non-reversible cyclooxygenase (COX) 1 and 2 inhibitor so decreases the formation of thromboxane A2 resulting in decreased platelet aggregation

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55
Q

ciclosporin monitoring

A

trough

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56
Q

digoxin monitoring

A

atleast 6-hrs post dose

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57
Q

phenytoin monitoring

A

Phenytoin levels do not need to be monitored routinely but trough levels, immediately before dose should be checked if:
adjustment of phenytoin dose
suspected toxicity
detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication

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58
Q

phase 1 reaction

A

phase I reactions: oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis. Mainly performed by the P450 enzymes but some drugs are metabolised by specific enzymes, for example alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. Products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic

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59
Q

phase 2 reaction

A

phase II reactions: conjugation. Products are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. Glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate and other groups are typically involved

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60
Q

first pass metabolism

A
This is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. As a consequence much larger doses are need orally than if given by other routes. This effect is seen in many drugs, including:
aspirin
isosorbide dinitrate
glyceryl trinitrate
lignocaine
propranolol
verapamil
isoprenaline
testosterone
hydrocortisone
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61
Q

zero order kinetics

A

Zero-order kinetics describes metabolism which is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. This explains why people may fail a breathalyser test in the morning if they have been drinking the night before

Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics
phenytoin
salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin)
heparin
ethanol
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62
Q

WTF is an acetylator status?

A

50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase

Drugs affected by acetylator status
isoniazid
procainamide
hydralazine
dapsone
sulfasalazine
63
Q

flecanide mechanism

A

Vaughan Williams class 1c antiarrhythmic. It slows conduction of the action potential by acting as a potent sodium channel blocker (specifically the Nav1.5 sodium channels). This may be reflected by widening of the QRS complex and prolongation of the PR interval.

64
Q

tamoxifen adverse effects

A

menstrual disturbance: vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea
hot flushes - 3% of patients stop taking tamoxifen due to climacteric side-effects
venous thromboembolism
endometrial cancer

65
Q

oligogyric crisis features

A

restlessness, agitation

involuntary upward deviation of the eyes

66
Q

oligogyric crisis management

A

intravenous antimuscarinic: benztropine or procyclidine

67
Q

prasugrel mechanism

A

ADP receptor antagonists such as clopidogrel and prasugrel antagonize the P2Y12 platelet receptors and prevent the binding of ADP to it. This leads to a decrease in platelet aggregation and prevents clot formation.

68
Q

Dabigatran MoA

A

Direct thrombin inhibitors (DTIs) such as dabigatran prevent clotting by directly inhibiting the enzyme thrombin (factor IIa). Novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) such as dabigatran are not routinely used in the management of acute coronary syndrome (ACS).

69
Q

drugs that cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

amiodarone
cytotoxic agents: busulphan, bleomycin
anti-rheumatoid drugs: methotrexate, sulfasalazine
nitrofurantoin
ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline, pergolide)

70
Q

sildenafil mechanism

A

phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor

PDE5 inhibitors cause vasodilation through an increase in cGMP leading to smooth muscle relaxation in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum.

71
Q

contraindications sildenafil

A

patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil
hypotension
recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)

72
Q

sildenafil side-effects

A
visual disturbances e.g. blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy
nasal congestion
flushing
gastrointestinal side-effects
headache
73
Q

dopamine agonist effects

A

nausea/vomiting
postural hypotension
hallucinations
daytime somnolence

74
Q

sarin mechanism

A

Sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. This results in high levels of acetylcholine (ACh).

75
Q

sarin effects

A
DUMBELLS:
Diarrhoea
Urination
Miosis/muscle weakness
Bronchorrhea/Bradycardia
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation/sweating
76
Q

sarin is a

A

organophosphate

77
Q

sarin management

A

atropine

the role of pralidoxime is still unclear - meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit

78
Q

motion sickness Mx

A

hyoscine > cyclizine > promethazine

79
Q

TCA overdose presentation

A

arrhythmias
seizures
metabolic acidosis
coma

80
Q

ECG TCA overdose

A

sinus tachycardia
widening of QRS
prolongation of QT interval

Widening of QRS > 100ms is associated with an increased risk of seizures whilst QRS > 160ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias

81
Q

how is unfractionated heparin metabolised

A

clearance of UFH occurs mainly via the reticuloendothelial system (with secondary clearance via the kidneys), as such is safer to use in renal impairment, however, may still need dose reduction.

82
Q

What is trastuzumab

A

Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is a monoclonal antibody directed against the HER2/neu receptor. It is used mainly in metastatic breast cancer although some patients with early disease are now also given trastuzumab.

Adverse effects
flu-like symptoms and diarrhoea are common
cardiotoxicity: more common when anthracyclines have also been used. An echo is usually performed before starting treatment

83
Q

carbon monoxide pathophysiology

A

in carbon monoxide poisoning the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin decreases leading to an early plateau in the oxygen dissociation curve

84
Q

CO features

A
headache: 90% of cases
nausea and vomiting: 50%
vertigo: 50%
confusion: 30%
subjective weakness: 20%
severe toxicity: 'pink' skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, death
85
Q

CO investigations

A

pulse oximetry may be falsely high due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin
therefore a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken
typical carboxyhaemoglobin levels
< 3% non-smokers
< 10% smokers
10 - 30% symptomatic: headache, vomiting
> 30% severe toxicity
an ECG is a useful supplementary investgation to look for cardiac ischaemia

86
Q

CO Management

A

patients with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning should be assessed in the emergency department
100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask
from a physiological perspective, this decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin (COHb)
should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours
target oxygen saturations are 100%
treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved, rather than monitoring CO levels
hyperbaric oxygen
due to the small number of cases the evidence base is limited, but there is some evidence that long-term outcomes may be better than standard oxygen therapy for more severe cases
therefore, discussion with a specialist should be considered for more severe cases (e.g. levels > 25%)
in 2008, the Department of Health publication ‘Recognising Carbon Monoxide Poisoning’ also listed loss of consciousness at any point, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia and pregnancy as indications for hyperbaric oxygen

87
Q

alpha antagonists

A

alpha-1: doxazosin
alpha-1a: tamsulosin - acts mainly on urogenital tract
alpha-2: yohimbine
non-selective: phenoxybenzamine (previously used in peripheral arterial disease)

88
Q

beta antagonists

A

beta-1: atenolol

non-selective: propranolol

89
Q

mixed alpha and beta agonists

A

Carvedilol and labetalol

90
Q

ciclosporin mechanism

A

Ciclosporin + tacrolimus: inhibit calcineurin thus decreasing IL-2

91
Q

Amiloride mechanism

A

blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule
weak diuretic, usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation (remember that thiazides and loop diuretics often cause hypokalaemia)

92
Q

aldosetrone agonist mechanism

A
acts in the cortical collecting duct
indications
ascites: patients with cirrhosis develop a secondary hyperaldosteronism. Relatively large doses such as 100 or 200mg are often used
heart failure
nephrotic syndrome
Conn's syndrome
93
Q

criteria for liver transplant in paracetamol OD

A

Arterial pH < 7.3, 24 hours after ingestion

or all of the following:
prothrombin time > 100 seconds
creatinine > 300 µmol/l
grade III or IV encephalopathy

94
Q

serotonin syndrome causes

A
monoamine oxidase inhibitors
SSRIs
St John's Wort, often taken over the counter for depression, can interact with SSRIs to cause serotonin syndrome
ecstasy
amphetaminesFE
95
Q

features of serotonin syndrome

A
neuromuscular excitation (e.g. hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity)
autonomic nervous system excitation (e.g. hyperthermia)
altered mental state
96
Q

serotonin syndrome management

A

supportive including IV fluids
benzodiazepines
more severe cases are managed using serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine

97
Q

Octreotide

A

Overview
long-acting analogue of somatostatin
somatostatin is released from D cells of pancreas and inhibits the release of growth hormone, glucagon and insulin

Uses
acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage
acromegaly
carcinoid syndrome
prevent complications following pancreatic surgery
VIPomas
refractory diarrhoea

Adverse effects
gallstones (secondary to biliary stasis)

98
Q

mercury poisoning features

A
paraesthesia
visual field defects
hearing loss
irritability
renal tubular acidosis
99
Q

drugs causing thrombocytopenia

A

quinine
abciximab
NSAIDs
diuretics: furosemide
antibiotics: penicillins, sulphonamides, rifampicin
anticonvulsants: carbamazepine, valproate
heparin

100
Q

COCP malignancy

A

increased risk of breast and cervical cancer

protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer

101
Q

effects of ingesting caustic substances

A

Types of substance* - vital to obtain bottle/label if possible
Oxidising agents, e.g. hydrogen peroxide, sodium hypochlorite (found in household bleach)
Strong alkali, e.g. sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide (found in dishwasher cleaner, industrial cleaners) -> liquefactive necrosis, more commonly resulting in oesophageal injury
Strong acid, e.g. hydrochloric, nitric acid (found in car batteries, WC cleaner) -> coagulative necrosis, more commonly resulting in gastric injury

102
Q

complications caustic substance ingestion

A
Acute
Upper GI ulceration, perforation
Upper airway injury and compromise
Aspiration pneumonitis
Infection
Electrolyte disturbance (e.g. hypocalcaemia in hydrofluoric acid ingestion)

Chronic
Strictures, fistulae, gastric outlet obstruction
Upper GI carcinoma (estimated 1000-3000 fold increased risk)

103
Q

alpha 1 stimulation results

A

vasoconstriction
relaxation of GI smooth muscle
salivary secretion
hepatic glycogenolysis

104
Q

alpha 2 stimulation results

A

mainly presynaptic: inhibition of transmitter release (inc NA, Ach from autonomic nerves)
inhibits insulin
platelet aggregation

105
Q

beta 1 stimulation results

A

mainly located in the heart

increase heart rate + force

106
Q

beta 2 stimulation causes

A

vasodilation
bronchodilation
relaxation of GI smooth muscle

107
Q

drugs causing photosensitivity

A
thiazides
tetracyclines, sulphonamides, ciprofloxacin
amiodarone
NSAIDs e.g. piroxicam
psoralens
sulphonylureas
108
Q

ethylene glycol poisoning features

A

Stage 1: symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness
Stage 2: metabolic acidosis with high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertension
Stage 3: acute kidney injury

109
Q

features that put patients at risk during paracetamol overdose

A
patients taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs (rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, chronic alcohol excess, St John's Wort)- metabolised to NAPQI faster)
malnourished patients (e.g. anorexia nervosa) or patients who have not eaten for a few days

Interestingly, acute alcohol intake, as opposed to chronic alcohol excess, is not associated with an increased risk of developing hepatotoxicity and may actually be protective.

110
Q

finasteride mechanism

A

inhibitor of 5 alpha-reductase, an enzyme which metabolises testosterone into dihydrotestosterone.

111
Q

finasteride indications

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

male-pattern baldness

112
Q

finasteride adverse effects

A

impotence
decrease libido
ejaculation disorders
gynaecomastia and breast tenderness

Finasteride causes decreased levels of serum prostate-specific antigen

113
Q

digoxin mechanism

A

decreases conduction through the atrioventricular node which slows the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation and flutter
increases the force of cardiac muscle contraction due to inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump. Also stimulates vagus nerve
digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index

114
Q

digoxin toxicity features

A

generally unwell, lethargy, nausea & vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision
arrhythmias (e.g. AV block, bradycardia)
gynaecomastia

115
Q

digoxin toxicity precipitating factors

A

classically: hypokalaemia
digoxin normally binds to the ATPase pump on the same site as potassium. Hypokalaemia → digoxin more easily bind to the ATPase pump → increased inhibitory effects
increasing age
renal failure
myocardial ischaemia
hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypernatraemia, acidosis
hypoalbuminaemia
hypothermia
hypothyroidism
drugs: amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, diltiazem, spironolactone (competes for secretion in distal convoluted tubule therefore reduce excretion), ciclosporin. Also drugs which cause hypokalaemia e.g. thiazides and loop diuretics

116
Q

verapamil indications and side-effects

A

Angina, hypertension, arrhythmias

Highly negatively inotropic

Should not be given with beta-blockers as may cause heart block Heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, flushing

117
Q

Diltiazem indaications and side effects

A

Angina, hypertension

Less negatively inotropic than verapamil but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers Hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, ankle swelling

118
Q

dihydropyridines examples

A

Nifedipine, amlodipine, felodipine

119
Q

dihydropyridines side effects and indications

A

Hypertension, angina, Raynaud’s

Affects the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium and therefore do not result in worsening of heart failure but may therefore cause ankle swelling Flushing, headache, ankle swelling

120
Q

drugs causing ocular problems

A

Cataracts
steroids

Corneal opacities
amiodarone
indomethacin

Optic neuritis
ethambutol
amiodarone
metronidazole

Retinopathy
chloroquine, quinine

Sildenafil can cause both blue discolouration and non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy

121
Q

botulinum toxin uses

A
blepharospasm
hemifacial spasm
focal spasticity including cerebral palsy patients, hand and wrist disability associated with stroke
spasmodic torticollis
severe hyperhidrosis of the axillae
achalasia
122
Q

1a antiarrhythmics

A

Quinidine
Procainamide
Disopyramide Block sodium channels

Increases AP duration Quinidine toxicity causes cinchonism (headache, tinnitus, thrombocytopaenia)

Procainamide may cause drug-induced lupus

123
Q

1b antiarrhythmics

A

Lidocaine
Mexiletine
Tocainide Block sodium channels

Decreases AP duration

124
Q

1c antiarrhythmics

A

Flecainide
Encainide
Propafenone Block sodium channels

No effect on AP duration

125
Q

2 antiarrhythmics

A

Propranolol
Atenolol
Bisoprolol
Metoprolol Beta-adrenoceptor antagonists

126
Q

3 antiarrhythmics

A

Amiodarone
Sotalol
Ibutilide
Bretylium Block potassium channels

127
Q

4 antiarrhythmics

A

Verapamil

Diltiazem Calcium channel blockers

128
Q

drugs cleared by haemodialysis

A
BLAST
Barbiturate
Lithium
Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol)
Salicylates
Theophyllines (charcoal haemoperfusion is preferable)
129
Q

drugs not cleared by haemodialysis

A
tricyclics
benzodiazepines
dextropropoxyphene (Co-proxamol)
digoxin
beta-blockers
130
Q

medications that exacerbate heart failure

A

thiazolidinediones
pioglitazone is contraindicated as it causes fluid retention
verapamil
negative inotropic effect
NSAIDs/glucocorticoids
should be used with caution as they cause fluid retention
low-dose aspirin is an exception - many patients will have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin easily outweigh the risks
class I antiarrhythmics
flecainide (negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect)

131
Q

indications for ahemodialysis in salicylate overdose

A
serum concentration > 700mg/L
metabolic acidosis resistant to treatment
acute renal failure
pulmonary oedema
seizures
coma
132
Q

statin MoA and side effects

A

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors Myositis, deranged LFTs

133
Q

Ezetimibe MoA and SE

A

Decreases cholesterol absorption in the small intestine Headache

134
Q

Nicotinic acid MoA and SE

A

Decreases hepatic VLDL secretion Flushing, myositis

135
Q

Fibrates MoA and SE

A

Agonist of PPAR-alpha therefore increases lipoprotein lipase expression Myositis, pruritus, cholestasis

136
Q

Cholestyramine MoA and SE

A

Decreases bile acid reabsorption in the small intestine, upregulating the amount of cholesterol that is converted to bile acid GI side-effects

137
Q

common drugs causing agranulocytosis

A

Antithyroid drugs - carbimazole, propylthiouracil
Antipsychotics - atypical antipsychotics (CLOZAPINE)
Antiepileptics - carbamazepine
Antibiotics - penicillin, chloramphenicol, co-trimoxazole
Antidepressant - mirtazapine
Cytotoxic drugs - methotrexate

138
Q

drugs that precipitate acute intermittent porphyria

A
barbiturates
halothane
benzodiazepines
alcohol
oral contraceptive pill
sulphonamides
139
Q

drugs causing urinary retention

A
tricyclic antidepressants e.g. amitriptyline
anticholinergics
opioids
NSAIDs
disopyramide
140
Q

sulfonylurea side effects

A

Hypoglycaemic episodes
Increased appetite and weight gain
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
Liver dysfunction (cholestatic)

141
Q

gliclazones side effects

A

Weight gain
Fluid retention
Liver dysfunction
Fractures

142
Q

gliptin side effects

A

pancreatitis

143
Q

adverse effects gentamycin

A

ototoxicity
due to auditory or vestibular nerve damage
irreversible
nephrotoxicity
accumulates in renal failure
the toxicity is secondary to acute tubular necrosis
concomitant use of furosemide increases the risk
lower doses and more frequent monitoring is required

144
Q

anion gap calculation

A

Anion Gap = Na+ – (Cl- + HCO3-)

145
Q

casues of raised anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

(CATMUDPILES)

CO, CN
Alcoholic ketoacidosis and starvation ketoacidosis
Toluene
Metformin, Methanol
Uremia
DKA
Pyroglutamic acidosis, paracetamol, phenformin, propylene glycol, paraladehyde
Iron, Isoniazid
Lactic acidosis
Ethylene glycol
Salicylates
146
Q

normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

(CAGE)

Chloride excess
Acetazolamide/Addisons
GI causes – diarrhea/vomiting, fistulae (pancreatic, ureters, billary, small bowel, ileostomy)
Extra – RTA

147
Q

how to differentiate between GI and renal normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

urinary anion gap = (Na+ + K+) – Cl-
The remaining significant unmeasured ions are NH4+ and HCO3-
renal causes increased urinary HCO3- excretion thus increased urinary AG
GI causes increased NH4+ excretion thus decreased urinary AG

148
Q

management of adrenaline ischaemia

A

local infiltration of phentolamine

149
Q

medication cause sleep disturbances

A

beta-blocker

150
Q

CCB side effects

A

Headache
Flushing
Ankle oedema

Verapamil also commonly causes constipation

151
Q

beta blockers side effects

A

Bronchospasm (especially in asthmatics)
Fatigue
Cold peripheries
Sleep disturbances

152
Q

nitrates side effects

A

Headache
Postural hypotension
Tachycardia

153
Q

nicorandil side effects

A

Headache
Flushing
Anal ulceration