Infectious diseases and STIs Flashcards

1
Q

Live attenuated vaccines

A
BCG
measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
influenza (intranasal)
oral rotavirus
oral polio
yellow fever
oral typhoid
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2
Q

inactivated vaccines

A

rabies
hepatitis A
influenza (intramuscular)

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3
Q

Toxoid vaccines

A

tetanus
diphtheria
pertussis

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4
Q

subunit and conjugate vaccines

A
ins to make them more immunogenic
pneumococcus (conjugate)
haemophilus (conjugate)
meningococcus (conjugate)
hepatitis B
human papillomavirus
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5
Q

HIV count for live vaccines

A

CD4 >200

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6
Q

viral meningitis with low CSF glucose

A

mumps

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7
Q

BV cause and gram stain

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

Gram positive coccobacilli

raised pH due to outcompeting lactobacilli. clue cells.

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8
Q

BV treatment

A

oral metronidazole 5-7days

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9
Q

migrating rash on buttocks and feet

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

Larvae penetrate the skin and are carried via the blood to the lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed. Adult worms reproduce in the GI tract (causing symptoms of bloating, discomfort and diarrhoea) and larvae are passed in the stool. Auto-infection can occur through the GI tract or peri-anal skin. Larva currens is the characteristic skin eruption of Strongyloides stercoralis. It causes an urticarial band that typically starts in the peri-anal area. The rash rapidly migrates, more quickly than the rash of cutaneous larva migrans.

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10
Q

Strongyloides stercoralis treatment

A

ivermectin and albendazole are used

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11
Q

infective bloody diarrhoea cause

A

Campylobacter
E.coli 0157
shigella

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12
Q

Campylobacter presentation

A

prodrome: headache malaise
diarrhoea: often bloody
abdominal pain: may mimic appendicitis
incubation period 1-6 days

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13
Q

campylobacter gram stain

A

gram negative bacillus

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14
Q

campylobacter management

A

usually self-limiting
the BNF advises treatment if severe or the patient is immunocompromised. Clinical Knowledge summaries also recommend antibiotics if severe symptoms (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) or symptoms have last more than one week
the first-line antibiotic is clarithromycin
ciprofloxacin is an alternative although the BNF states that ‘Strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin isolated frequently’

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15
Q

campylobacter complications

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome may follow Campylobacter jejuni infections
Reiter’s syndrome
septicaemia, endocarditis, arthritis

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16
Q

leprosy cause

A

Mycobacterium leprae

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17
Q

Mycobacterium leprae features

A

patches of hypopigmented skin typically affecting the buttocks, face, and extensor surfaces of limbs
sensory loss

The degree of cell mediated immunity determines the type of leprosy a patient will develop.

Low degree of cell mediated immunity → lepromatous leprosy (‘multibacillary’)
extensive skin involvement
symmetrical nerve involvement

High degree of cell mediated immunity → tuberculoid leprosy (‘paucibacillary’)
limited skin disease
asymmetric nerve involvement → hypesthesia
hair loss

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18
Q

leprosy management

A

rifampicin, dapsone and clofazimine

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19
Q

genital warts cause

A

HPV, especially types 6 & 11. It is now well established that HPV (primarily types 16,18 & 33) predisposes to cervical cancer.

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20
Q

genital warts management

A
  1. topical podophyllum / cryotherapy

2. Imiquimod

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21
Q

ribavarin machanism

A

Guanosine analog which inhibits inosine monophosphate (IMP) dehydrogenase, interferes with the capping of viral mRNA

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22
Q

ribavarin indications

A

Chronic hepatitis C, RSV

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23
Q

ribavarin adverse effects

A

Haemolytic anaemia

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24
Q

Aciclovir mechanism

A

Guanosine analog, phosphorylated by thymidine kinase which in turn inhibits the viral DNA polymerase

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25
Q

aciclovir indications

A

HSV, VZV

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26
Q

aciclovir adverse efects

A

Crystalline nephropathy

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27
Q

gancyclovir mechanism

A

Guanosine analog, phosphorylated by thymidine kinase which in turn inhibits the viral DNA polymerase

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28
Q

gancyclovir adverse effects

A

Myelosuppression/agranulocytosis

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29
Q

amantadine mechanism

A

Inhibits uncoating (M2 protein) of virus in cell. Also releases dopamine from nerve endings

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30
Q

amantadine adverse effects

A

Confusion, ataxia, slurred speech

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31
Q

oseltamivir mechanism

A

Inhibits neuraminidase

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32
Q

foscarnet mechanism

A

Pyrophosphate analog which inhibits viiral DNA polymerase

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33
Q

foscarnet adverse effects

A

Nephrotoxicity, hypocalcaemia, hypomagnasaemia, seizures

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34
Q

interferon-a mechanism

A

Human glycoproteins which inhibit synthesis of mRNA

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35
Q

interpheron-a side effects

A

Flu-like symptoms, anorexia, myelosuppression

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36
Q

cidofovir mechanism

A

Acyclic nucleoside phosphonate, and is therefore independent of phosphorylation by viral enzymes (compare and contrast with aciclovir/ganciclovir)

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37
Q

cidofovir adverse effects

A

Nephrotoxicity

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38
Q

prodrome: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever
Koplik spots (before rash): white spots (‘grain of salt’) on buccal mucosa
rash: starts behind ears then to whole body, discrete maculopapular rash becoming blotchy & confluent
diarrhoea occurs in around 10% of patients

A

measles

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39
Q

measels type of virus and spread

A

RNA paramyxovirus
spread by droplets
infective from prodrome until 4 days after rash starts
incubation period = 10-14 days

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40
Q

Measels management

A
  • notifiable disease
  • supportive
  • if a child not immunized against measles comes into contact with measles then MMR should be offered (vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection)
    this should be given within 72 hours
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41
Q

measels complications

A

otitis media: the most common complication
pneumonia: the most common cause of death
encephalitis: typically occurs 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness)
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis: very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness
febrile convulsions
keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration
diarrhoea
increased incidence of appendicitis
myocarditis

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42
Q

black lump cause

A

Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, a Gram positive rod

Bacillus anthracis produces a tripartite protein toxin
protective antigen
oedema factor: a bacterial adenylate cyclase which increases cAMP
lethal factor: toxic to macrophages

from infected carcasses

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43
Q

anthrax management

A

ciprofloxacin

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44
Q

lyme cause

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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45
Q

lyme investigations

A

NICE recommend that Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically if erythema migrans is present
erythema migrans is therefore an indication to start antibiotics
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi are the first-line test
if negative and Lyme disease is still suspected in people tested within 4 weeks from symptom onset, repeat the ELISA 4-6 weeks after the first ELISA test. If still suspected in people who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more then an immunoblot test should be done
if positive or equivocal then an immunoblot test for Lyme disease should be done

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46
Q

lyme management

A

doxycycline if early disease. Amoxicillin is an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated (e.g. pregnancy)
people with erythema migrans should be commenced on antibiotic without the need for further tests
ceftriaxone if disseminated disease
Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is sometimes seen after initiating therapy: fever, rash, tachycardia after first dose of antibiotic (more commonly seen in syphilis, another spirochaetal disease)

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47
Q

gram positive colour

A

purple

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48
Q

gram positive rods

A
Actinomyces
Bacillus antracis
Clostridium
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Listeria monocytogenes
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49
Q

gram positive cocci

A

makes catalase: Staphylococci

does not make catalase: Streptococci

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50
Q

staphylococci that make coagulase

A

makes coagulase: S. aureus

does not make coagulase: S. epidermidis (novobiocin sensitive), S. saprophyticus (novobiocin resistant)

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51
Q

streptococci that causes haemolysis

A

partial haemolysis (green colour on blood agar): α-haemolytic

  • s.pneumoniae
  • strep viridans

complete haemolysis (clear): β-haemolytic

  • Group A (bacitracin sensitive) S.pyogenes
  • Group B (bactiracin resistant) strep agalactiae

no haemolysis: γ-haemolytic
Enterococcus

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52
Q

dengue fever bloots

A

low platelet count and raised transaminase level

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53
Q

dengue fever spread

A

transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito

incubation period of 7 days

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54
Q

varicella zoster in pregnancy management

A

if there is any doubt about the mother previously having chickenpox maternal blood should be urgently checked for varicella antibodies
if the pregnant woman <= 20 weeks gestation is not immune to varicella she should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible
RCOG and Greenbook guidelines suggest VZIG is effective up to 10 days post exposure
if the pregnant woman > 20 weeks gestation is not immune to varicella then either VZIG or antivirals (aciclovir or valaciclovir) should be given days 7 to 14 after exposure

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55
Q

Fetal varicella syndrome features

A

risk of FVS following maternal varicella exposure is around 1% if occurs before 20 weeks gestation
studies have shown a very small number of cases occurring between 20-28 weeks gestation and none following 28 weeks
features of FVS include skin scarring, eye defects (microphthalmia), limb hypoplasia, microcephaly and learning disabilities

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56
Q

bacteria found in soil

A

Clostridium tetani

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57
Q

why do you cramp in tetanus

A

Tetanospasmin prevents release of GABA

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58
Q

management of tetanus

A

supportive therapy including ventilatory support and muscle relaxants
intramuscular human tetanus immunoglobulin for high-risk wounds (e.g. compound fractures, delayed surgical intervention, significant degree of devitalised tissue)
metronidazole is now preferred to benzylpenicillin as the antibiotic of choice

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59
Q

most common organism animal bites

A

Pasteurella multocida.

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60
Q

management animal bites

A

cleanse wound. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless cosmesis is at risk
current BNF recommendation is co-amoxiclav
if penicillin-allergic then doxycycline + metronidazole is recommended

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61
Q

bacteria in human bites

A
Common organisms include:
Streptococci spp.
Staphylococcus aureus
Eikenella
Fusobacterium
Prevotella
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62
Q

canned food IVDU, ascending flacid paralysis

A

Clostridium botulinum

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63
Q

Clostridium botulinum gram stain

A

gram positive anaerobic bacillus

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64
Q

how does botulism cause paralysis?

A

produces botulinum toxin, a neurotoxin which irreversibly blocks the release of acetylcholine

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65
Q

botulism management

A

botulism antitoxin and supportive care

antitoxin is only effective if given early - once toxin has bound its actions cannot be reversed

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66
Q

gram negative cocci

A

Neisseria meningitidis + Neisseria gonorrhoeae, also Moraxella catarrhalis

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67
Q

gram positive rods

A
ABCD L
Actinomyces
Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
Clostridium
Diphtheria: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Listeria monocytogenes
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68
Q

gram negative rods

A
Escherichia coli
Haemophilus influenzae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Salmonella sp.
Shigella sp.
Campylobacter jejuni
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69
Q

basic makeup of ART

A

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) involves a combination of at least three drugs, typically two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). This combination both decreases viral replication but also reduces the risk of viral resistance emerging

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70
Q

Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) examples, side effects

A

examples: zidovudine (AZT), abacavir, emtricitabine, didanosine, lamivudine, stavudine, zalcitabine, tenofovir
general NRTI side-effects: peripheral neuropathy
tenofovir: used in BHIVAs two recommended regime NRTI. Adverse effects include renal impairment and ostesoporosis
zidovudine: anaemia, myopathy, black nails
didanosine: pancreatitis

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71
Q

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) examples and side effects

A

examples: nevirapine, efavirenz

side-effects: P450 enzyme interaction (nevirapine induces), rashes

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72
Q

Protease inhibitors (PI) examples and side effects

A

examples: indinavir, nelfinavir, ritonavir, saquinavir
side-effects: diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, buffalo hump, central obesity, P450 enzyme inhibition
indinavir: renal stones, asymptomatic hyperbilirubinaemia
ritonavir: a potent inhibitor of the P450 system

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73
Q

PCP cause

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

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74
Q

Pneumocystis jiroveci type

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci is an unicellular eukaryote, generally classified as a fungus but some authorities consider it a protozoa

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75
Q

CD4 count for prophylaxis in HIV

A

all patients with a CD4 count < 200/mm³ should receive PCP prophylaxis with co-trimoxazole

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76
Q

PCP management

A

co-trimoxazole
IV pentamidine in severe cases
aerosolized pentamidine is an alternative treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia but is less effective with a risk of pneumothorax
steroids if hypoxic (if pO2 < 9.3kPa then steroids reduce risk of respiratory failure by 50% and death by a third)

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77
Q

PCP investigations

A

CXR: typically shows bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates but can present with other x-ray findings e.g. lobar consolidation. May be normal
exercise-induced desaturation
sputum often fails to show PCP, bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) often needed to demonstrate PCP (silver stain shows characteristic cysts)

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78
Q

herpes investigation

A

nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) is the investigation of choice in genital herpes and are now considered superior to viral culture
HSV serology may be useful in certain situations such as recurrent genital ulceration of unknown cause

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79
Q

herpes management

A

general measures include:
saline bathing
analgesia
topical anaesthetic agents e.g. lidocaine
oral aciclovir
some patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir

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80
Q

herpes in pregnancy

A

elective caesarean section at term is advised if a primary attack of herpes occurs during pregnancy at greater than 28 weeks gestation
women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and be advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low
Suppressive treatment is often considered from 36 weeks to reduce asymptomatic shedding and risk of transmission during delivery.

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81
Q

hepatitis b complications

A
chronic hepatitis (5-10%). 'Ground-glass' hepatocytes may be seen on light microscopy
fulminant liver failure (1%)
hepatocellular carcinoma
glomerulonephritis
polyarteritis nodosa
cryoglobulinaemia
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82
Q

hep b management

A

pegylated interferon-alpha used to be the only treatment available. It reduces viral replication in up to 30% of chronic carriers. A better response is predicted by being female, < 50 years old, low HBV DNA levels, non-Asian, HIV negative, high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy
whilst NICE still advocate the use of pegylated interferon firstl-line other antiviral medications are increasingly used with an aim to suppress viral replication (not in a dissimilar way to treating HIV patients)
examples include tenofovir, entecavir and telbivudine (a synthetic thymidine nucleoside analogue)

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83
Q

diarrhoea by incubation period

A

1-6 hrs: Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus*
12-48 hrs: Salmonella, Escherichia coli
48-72 hrs: Shigella, Campylobacter
> 7 days: Giardiasis, Amoebiasis

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84
Q

most common cause of travellers diarhoea

A

E.coli

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85
Q

infected rice

A

Bacillus cereus

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86
Q

hep A PEP

A

Human Normal Immunoglobulin (HNIG) or hepatitis A vaccine may be used depending on the clinical situation

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87
Q

hep B PEP

A

HBsAg positive source: if the person exposed is a known responder to HBV vaccine then a booster dose should be given. If they are in the process of being vaccinated or are a non-responder they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and the vaccine
unknown source: for known responders the green book advises considering a booster dose of HBV vaccine. For known non-responders HBIG + vaccine should be given whilst those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of HBV vaccine

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88
Q

hep C PEP

A

monthly PCR - if seroconversion then interferon +/- ribavirin

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89
Q

HIV PEP

A

the risk of HIV transmission depends heavily on the incident (e.g. needle stick, type of sexual intercourse, human bite etc) and the current viral load of the patient
please see the BHIVA link for charts which outline the risk depending on the incident. Generally, low-risk incidents such as human bites don’t require post-exposure prophylaxis
a combination of oral antiretrovirals (e.g. Tenofovir, emtricitabine, lopinavir and ritonavir) as soon as possible (i.e. Within 1-2 hours, but may be started up to 72 hours following exposure) for 4 weeks
serological testing at 12 weeks following completion of post-exposure prophylaxis
reduces risk of transmission by 80%

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90
Q

needlestick transmission rates Hep B, C and HIV

A

B- 20-30%
C- 0.5-2%
HIV- 0.3%

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91
Q

virus associated with nasopharyngeal malignancy

A

EBV

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92
Q

malignancies associated with EBV

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma*
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
HIV-associated central nervous system lymphomas

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93
Q

GP management meningococcal meningitis

A

intramuscular benzylpenicillin

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94
Q

meningococcal meningitis management

A

Intravenous benzylpenicillin or cefotaxime

chloramphenicol if anaphylaxis to penicillin

(pretty much all meningitis chloramphenicol is the right answer)

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95
Q

meningococcal meningitis prophylaxis in contacts

A

close contact within the 7 days before onset

oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin or may be used

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96
Q

why do people get gonorrhoea multiple times?

A

due to antigen variation of type IV pili (proteins which adhere to surfaces) and Opa proteins (surface proteins which bind to receptors on immune cells)

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97
Q

gonorrhoea management

A

a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g (i.e. no longer add azithromycin). If sensitivities are known (and the organism is sensitive to ciprofloxacin) then a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg should be given
if ceftriaxone is refused (e.g. needle-phobic) then oral cefixime 400mg (single dose) + oral azithromycin 2g (single dose) should be used

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98
Q

parvovirus exposure in pregnancy

A

If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks) she should seek prompt advice from whoever is giving her antenatal care as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked.

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99
Q

cerebral toxoplasmosis v lymphoma

A

Toxoplasmosis
Multiple lesions
Ring or nodular enhancement
Thallium SPECT negative

Lymphoma
Single lesion
Solid (homogenous) enhancement
Thallium SPECT positive

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100
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

A

widespread demyelination
due to infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus (a polyoma DNA virus)
symptoms, subacute onset : behavioural changes, speech, motor, visual impairment
CT: single or multiple lesions, no mass effect, don’t usually enhance. MRI is better - high-signal demyelinating white matter lesions are seen

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101
Q

Eron cellulitis criteria

A

I There are no signs of systemic toxicity and the person has no uncontrolled co-morbidities
II The person is either systemically unwell or systemically well but with a co-morbidity (for example peripheral arterial disease, chronic venous insufficiency, or morbid obesity) which may complicate or delay resolution of infection
III The person has significant systemic upset such as acute confusion, tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypotension, or unstable co-morbidities that may interfere with a response to treatment, or a limb-threatening infection due to vascular compromize
IV The person has sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection such as necrotizing fasciitis

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102
Q

criteria for cellulitis IV abx

A

Has Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis.
Has severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis (for example extensive areas of skin).
Is very young (under 1 year of age) or frail.
Is immunocompromized.
Has significant lymphoedema.
Has facial cellulitis (unless very mild) or periorbital cellulitis.

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103
Q

cellulitis antibiotics

A

flucloxacillin as first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis. Clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy) or doxycyline is recommended in patients allergic to penicillin.

NICE recommend that patients severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin or ceftriaxone.

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104
Q

5 types of schistosomiasis

A

S. mansoni, S. japonicum and S. haematobium are the most common.
S. intercalatum and mekongi (intestinal schistosomiasis)

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105
Q

S. Haematobium features

A

These worms deposit egg clusters (pseudopapillomas) in the bladder, causing inflammation. The calcification seen on x-ray is actually calcification of the egg clusters, not the bladder itself.

Depending on the site of these pseudopapillomas in the bladder, they can cause an obstructive uropathy and kidney damage.

This typically presents as a ‘swimmer’s itch’ in patients who have recently returned from Africa. Schistosoma haematobium is a risk factor for squamous cell bladder cancer.

Features
frequency
haematuria
bladder calcification

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106
Q

schistosomiasis treatment

A

single oral dose of praziquantel

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107
Q

complications of S. mansoni adn japonicum

A

These worms mature in the liver and then travel through the portal system to inhabit the distal colon. Their presence in the portal system can lead to progressive hepatomegaly and splenomegaly due to portal vein congestion.

These species can also lead to complications of liver cirrhosis, variceal disease and cor pulmonale.

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108
Q

diptheria organism

A

Gram positive bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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109
Q

diptheria pathophysiology

A

releases an exotoxin encoded by a β-prophage

exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2

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110
Q

diptheria presentations

A

Diphtheria toxin commonly causes a ‘diphtheric membrane’ on tonsils caused by necrotic mucosal cells. Systemic distribution may produce necrosis of myocardial, neural and renal tissue

Possible presentations
recent visitors to Eastern Europe/Russia/Asia
sore throat with a ‘diphtheric membrane’ - grey, pseudomembrane on the posterior pharyngeal wall
bulky cervical lymphadenopathy
may result in a ‘bull neck’ appearanace
neuritis e.g. cranial nerves
heart block

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111
Q

diptheria investigations

A

culture of throat swab: uses tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media

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112
Q

diptheria management

A

intramuscular penicillin

diphtheria antitoxin

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113
Q

list the 5 stages in the HIV life cycle that can be targeted.

A
  1. binding, fusion and entry into cell
  2. reverse transcription x2
  3. insetion into host cell DNA
  4. budding off (reproducing)
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114
Q

explain how entry inhibitors work in HIV

A

Entry inhibitors are a class of medication which interfere with the binding, fusion and entry of HIV-1 into host cells . An example of this type of medication includes maraviroc. Maraviroc works by targeting the CCR5 receptor on T-helper cells, reduces the HIV virus’ ability to enter the host CD4 cells. Indeed, some individuals may have a mutation of the CCR5 delta gene which results in natural protection from viral cell entry. Nevertheless, caution should be used when administering maraviroc as a tropism of the HIV virus can allow the HIV virus to target an alternative receptor CXCR4 - bypassing maraviroc’s mechanism of action.

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115
Q

explain how medications interfer with reverse transcription in HIV

A

HIV is an RNA virus and the genetic code be ‘reverse’ transcribed into DNA in order to be incorporated into the human cell. The conversion of RNA to DNA is not done by mammalian cells and is performed by a viral reverse transcriptase enzyme. This makes it an opportune target for drug therapies. Nulceoside reverse-transcriptase inhibitors act as nucleoside analogues which compete with natural deoxynucleotides for incorporation to DNA to prevent reverse transcription . Examples of this class of medications include emtricitabine and tenofovir disoproxil.

Reverse transcription can also be inhibited by non-nucleoside reverse-transcriptase inhibitors. These medications bind to the reverse transcriptase enzyme and inhibit its function (acting as allosteric modulators). Examples of this class of medications include efavirenz and nevirapine.

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116
Q

explain hiw integrase inhibitors work in HIV

A

Integrase inhibitors (of which raltegravir is one) block integrase enzymatic activity which is involved in inserting the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell . Integrase is a viral enzyme and hence is a reliable target.

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117
Q

explain how protease inhibitors work in HIV

A

protease inhibitors block the viral protease enzyme activity necessary to produce mature virions from budding from the membrane . Viral particles produced in the presence of protease inhibitors are mostly non-infectious and defective. Examples of this class of medications include ritonavir and lopinavir.

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118
Q

rabies features

A

prodrome: headache, fever, agitation
hydrophobia: water-provoking muscle spasms
hypersalivation
Negri bodies: cytoplasmic inclusion bodies found in infected neurons

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119
Q

rabies management

A

There is now considered to be ‘no risk’ of developing rabies following an animal bite in the UK and the majority of developed countries. Following an animal bite in at-risk countries:
the wound should be washed
if an individual is already immunised then 2 further doses of vaccine should be given
if not previously immunised then human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) should be given along with a full course of vaccination. If possible, the dose should be administered locally around the wound

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120
Q

doxycycline mechanism

A

Doxycycline is a tetracycline often prescribed for patients allergic to penicillin and with mild pneumonia. Tetracyclines inhibit the 30S subunit of ribosomes, which leads to an inability of bacteria to produce proteins. Tetracyclines are commonly confused with macrolides, which inhibit the 50S subunit of ribosomes.

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121
Q

tetracycline side effects

A

Discolouration of teeth, photosensitivity

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122
Q

aminoglycosides mechanism and adverse effects

A

Binds to 30S subunit causing misreading of mRNA Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity

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123
Q

chloramphenicol mechanism and adverse effects

A

Binds to 50S subunit, inhibiting peptidyl transferase Aplastic anaemia

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124
Q

protein synthesis inhibitors

A

30s

  • aminoglycosides
  • tetracyclines

50s

  • chloramphenicol
  • clindamycin
  • macrolides
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125
Q

clindamycin mechanism and adverse effects

A

Binds to 50S subunit, inhibiting translocation (movement of tRNA from acceptor site to peptidyl site) Common cause of C. difficile diarrhoea

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126
Q

macrolides mechanism and adverse effects

A

Binds to 50S subunit, inhibiting translocation (movement of tRNA from acceptor site to peptidyl site) Nausea (especially erythromycin), P450 inhibitor, prolonged QT interval Commonly used for patients who are allergic to penicillin

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127
Q

criteria for staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome

A

fever: temperature > 38.9ºC
hypotension: systolic blood pressure < 90 mmHg
diffuse erythematous rash
desquamation of rash, especially of the palms and soles
involvement of three or more organ systems: e.g. gastrointestinal (diarrhoea and vomiting), mucous membrane erythema, renal failure, hepatitis, thrombocytopenia, CNS involvement (e.g. confusion)

128
Q

toxic shock syndrome pathophysiology

A

a severe systemic reaction to staphylococcal exotoxins, the TSST-1 superantigen toxin

129
Q

TSS management

A

removal of infection focus (e.g. retained tampon)
IV fluids
IV antibiotics

130
Q

enteric fever causes

A

The Salmonella group contains many members, most of which cause diarrhoeal diseases. They are aerobic, Gram-negative rods which are not normally present as commensals in the gut.

Typhoid and paratyphoid are caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi (types A, B & C) respectively. They are often termed enteric fevers, producing systemic symptoms such as headache, fever, arthralgia.

131
Q

typhoid transmission

A

typhoid is transmitted via the faecal-oral route (also in contaminated food and water)

132
Q

typhoid features

A

initially systemic upset as above
relative bradycardia
abdominal pain, distension
constipation: although Salmonella is a recognised cause of diarrhoea, constipation is more common in typhoid
rose spots: present on the trunk in 40% of patients, and are more common in paratyphoid

133
Q

typhoid complications

A

osteomyelitis (especially in sickle cell disease where Salmonella is one of the most common pathogens)
GI bleed/perforation
meningitis
cholecystitis
chronic carriage (1%, more likely if adult females)

134
Q

opportunistic infections CD4 count 200-500

A

Oral thrush Secondary to Candida albicans

Shingles Secondary to herpes zoster

Hairy leukoplakia Secondary to EBV

Kaposi sarcoma Secondary to HHV-8

135
Q

opportunistic infections CD4 count 100-200

A

Cryptosporidiosis Whilst patients with a CD4 count of 200-500 may develop cryptosporidiosis the disease is usually self-limiting and similar to that in immunocompetent hosts

Cerebral toxoplasmosis

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy Secondary to the JC virus

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

HIV dementia

136
Q

opportunistic infections CD4 count 50-100

A

Aspergillosis Secondary to Aspergillus fumigatus

Oesophageal candidiasis Secondary to Candida albicans

Cryptococcal meningitis

Primary CNS lymphoma Secondary to EBV

137
Q

opportunistic infections CD4 count <50

A

Cytomegalovirus retinitis Affects around 30-40% of patients with CD4 < 50 cells/mm³

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infection

138
Q

painful genital ulcer with a ragged border associated with unilateral tender inguinal lymphadenopathy points to?

A

Chancroid is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.

139
Q

what family of viruses does EBV belong to?

A

herpes virus

140
Q

types of malaria (5)

A
falciparum (most common)
vivax (second most common)
Ovale
malariae
knowlesi
141
Q

where does vivax and ovale come from?

A

Plasmodium vivax is often found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent whilst Plasmodium ovale typically comes from Africa.

142
Q

features of malaria

A

general features of malaria: fever, headache, splenomegaly
Plasmodium vivax/ovale: cyclical fever every 48 hours. Plasmodium malariae: cyclical fever every 72 hours
Plasmodium malariae: is associated with nephrotic syndrome.

143
Q

why do people relapse with some kinds of malaria?

A

Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage and may therefore relapse following treatment.

144
Q

malaria management

A

in areas which are known to be chloroquine-sensitive then WHO recommend either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine
in areas which are known to be chloroquine-resistant an ACT should be used
ACTs should be avoided in pregnant women
patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse

ACT- artemether-lumefantrine

145
Q

UTI treatment in pregnancy

A
  1. nitrofuranotoin
  2. amoxicillin or cefalexin

AVOID TRIMETHOPRIM

146
Q

UTI not in pregnancy

A

local guidelines but trimethoprim and nitrofurantoin 3 days

147
Q

toxoplasmosis cause

A

Toxoplasma gondii

148
Q

toxoplasmosis pathophysiology

A

obligate intracellular protozoan that infects the body via the gastrointestinal tract, lung or broken skin. It’s oocysts release trophozoites which migrate widely around the body including to the eye, brain and muscle. The usual animal reservoir is the cat, although other animals such as rats carry the disease.

149
Q

toxoplasmosis management in immunocompromised

A

Cerebral toxoplasmosis accounts for around 50% of cerebral lesions in patients with HIV
constitutional symptoms, headache, confusion, drowsiness
CT: usually single or multiple ring-enhancing lesions, mass effect may be seen
management: pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine for at least 6 weeks

150
Q

necrotising fasciitis classification

A

type 1 is caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes (often occurs post-surgery in diabetics). This is the most common type
type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

151
Q

necrotising fasciitis risk factors

A

skin factors: recent trauma, burns or soft tissue infections
diabetes mellitus
the most common preexisting medical condition
particularly if the patient is treated with SGLT-2 inhibitors
intravenous drug use
immunosuppression

152
Q

necrotising fasciitis features

A

acute onset
pain, swelling, erythema at the affected site
often presents as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain out of keeping with physical features
extremely tender over infected tissue with hypoaesthesia to light touch
skin necrosis and crepitus/gas gangrene are late signs
fever and tachycardia may be absent or occur late in the presentation

153
Q

necrotising fasciitis management

A

urgent surgical referral debridement

intravenous antibiotics

154
Q

typhus causes

A

rickettsial diseases
transmitted between hosts by arthropods
cause widespread vasculitis

155
Q

typhus features

A

fever, headache
black eschar at site of original inoculation
rash e.g. maculopapular or vasculitis
complications: deranged clotting, renal failure, DIC

156
Q

types of typhus

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever
caused by R rickettsii
initially macular rash or hands and feet then spreads

Tick typhus
caused by R conorii
rash initially in axilla then spreads

157
Q

typhus treatment

A

doxycycline

158
Q

cholera cause

A

Vibro cholerae - Gram negative bacteria

159
Q

cholera features

A

profuse ‘rice water’ diarrhoea
dehydration
hypoglycaemia

160
Q

cholera management

A

oral rehydration therapy

antibiotics: doxycycline, ciprofloxacin

161
Q

Hep B pathogen

A

double-stranded DNA hepadnavirus and is spread through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including vertical transmission from mother to child. The incubation period is 6-20 weeks.

162
Q

Q fever cause

A

Coxiella burnetii, a rickettsia. The source of infection is typically an abattoir, cattle/sheep or it may be inhaled from infected dust

163
Q

Q fever management

A
typically prodrome: fever, malaise
causes pyrexia of unknown origin
transaminitis
atypical pneumonia
endocarditis (culture-negative)
164
Q

Q fever treatment

A

doxycycline

165
Q

why is plasmodium knowlesi infection particularly dangerous

A

has the shortest erythrocytic replication cycle, leading to high parasite counts in short periods of time

166
Q

plasmodium replication cycle

A

have two reproductive cycles; an exo-erythrocytic cycle which occurs in hepatocytes, and an erythrocytic cycle which occurs in the red blood cells. The length of the erythrocytic cycle varies from species to species, with P. knowlesi having the fastest cycle at around 24 hours. The end stage in the cycle involves lysis of the red cells and release of additional parasites, meaning that P. knowlesi is capable of producing very high parasite counts in a short space of time.

For this reason, in Plasmodium knowlesi infection, severe parasitaemia should be defined as >1%, whereas in other species, >2% is a marker of severe parasitaemia.

167
Q

what test to use at 4 weeks post-HIV exposure

A

p24 antigen test
usually positive from about 1 week to 3 - 4 weeks after infection with HIV
sometimes used as an additional screening test in blood banks

168
Q

window period for HIV antibody test

A

most common and accurate test
usually consists of both a screening ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay) test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay
most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks but 99% do by 3 months

169
Q

shigella treatment

A

supportive

severity depends on type: S sonnei (e.g. from UK) may be mild, S. flexneri or S. dysenteriae from abroad may cause severe disease
Shigella infection is usually self-limiting and does not require antibiotic treatment
antibiotics (e.g. ciprofloxacin) are indicated for people with severe disease, who are immunocompromised or with bloody diarrhoea

170
Q

hep C pathophysiology

A

hepatitis C is a RNA flavivirus

incubation period: 6-9 weeks

171
Q

hep C investigations

A

HCV RNA is the investigation of choice to diagnose acute infection
whilst patients will eventually develop anti-HCV antibodies it should be remembered that patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies

172
Q

hep C complications

A

rheumatological problems: arthralgia, arthritis
eye problems: Sjogren’s syndrome
cirrhosis (5-20% of those with chronic disease)
hepatocellular cancer
cryoglobulinaemia: typically type II (mixed monoclonal and polyclonal)
porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT): it is increasingly recognised that PCT may develop in patients with hepatitis C, especially if there are other factors such as alcohol abuse
membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

173
Q

chronic hep C management

A

treatment depends on the viral genotype - this should be tested prior to treatment
the management of hepatitis C has advanced rapidly in recent years resulting in clearance rates of around 95%. Interferon based treatments are no longer recommended
the aim of treatment is sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy
currently a combination of protease inhibitors (e.g. daclatasvir + sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir + simeprevir) with or without ribavirin are used

174
Q

hep C treatment complications

A

ribavirin - side-effects: haemolytic anaemia, cough. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic
interferon alpha - side-effects: flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia

175
Q

mycoplasma pneumonia features

A

the disease typically has a prolonged and gradual onset
flu-like symptoms classically precede a dry cough
bilateral consolidation on x-ray
complications may occur as below
erythema multiforme

176
Q

mycoplasma pneumonia complications

A

cold agglutins (IgM): may cause an haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia
erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum
meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome and other immune-mediated neurological diseases
bullous myringitis: painful vesicles on the tympanic membrane
pericarditis/myocarditis
gastrointestinal: hepatitis, pancreatitis
renal: acute glomerulonephritis

177
Q

mycoplasma investigations

A

diagnosis is generally by Mycoplasma serology

positive cold agglutination test

178
Q

mycoplasma management

A

doxycycline or a macrolide (e.g. erythromycin/clarithromycin)

179
Q

legionella features

A
flu-like symptoms including fever (present in > 95% of patients)
dry cough
relative bradycardia
confusion
lymphopaenia
hyponatraemia
deranged liver function tests
pleural effusion: seen in around 30% of patients
180
Q

legionella management

A

treat with erythromycin/clarithromycin

181
Q

features of amoebic dysentry

A

profuse, bloody diarrhoea
there may be a long incubation period
stool microscopy may show trophozoites if examined within 15 minutes or kept warm (known as a ‘hot stool’)
treatment is with metronidazole

182
Q

amoebic liver abscess presentation

A

usually a single mass in the right lobe (may be multiple). The contents are often described as ‘anchovy sauce’
features: fever, RUQ pain
serology is positive in > 90%

183
Q

treatment for invasive amoebiasis

A

Treatment for invasive amoebiasis should be followed by a luminal amoebicide to eradicate the cystic stage which is resistant to metronidazole and tinidazole (which are used against the invasive stage).

184
Q

cause of fever after first dose of antibiotics in syphillis

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
thought to be caused by the release of endotoxin-like substances following bacterial death after the first dose of antibiotics

185
Q

syphillis management

A

intramuscular benzathine penicillin is the first-line management
alternatives: doxycycline

186
Q

Which organism causes lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

Typically infection comprises of three stages
stage 1: small painless pustule which later forms an ulcer
stage 2: painful inguinal lymphadenopathy
stage 3: proctocolitis

187
Q

cause of tonsillitis

A

strep pyogenes

immunological reactions can cause rheumatic fever or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
erythrogenic toxins cause scarlet fever

188
Q

aquarium mycobacteria

A

Mycobacterium marinum

causes ‘fish tank granuloma’

treatment with tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones, sulfonamides, and macrolides

189
Q

listeria pathogenesis

A

Gram-positive bacillus which has the unusual ability to multiply at low temperatures. It is typically spread via contaminated food, typically unpasteurised dairy products. Infection is particularly dangerous to the unborn child where it can lead to miscarriage.

190
Q

listeria management

A

Listeria is sensitive to amoxicillin/ampicillin (cephalosporins usually inadequate)
Listeria meningitis should be treated with IV amoxicillin/ampicillin and gentamicin

191
Q

screening for latent TB

A

The Mantoux test is the main technique used to screen for latent tuberculosis. In recent years the interferon-gamma blood test has also been introduced. It is used in a number of specific situations such as:
the Mantoux test is positive or equivocal
people where a tuberculin test may be falsely negative

192
Q

mantoux test interpretation

A

< 6mm Negative - no significant hypersensitivity to tuberculin protein Previously unvaccinated individuals may be given the BCG
6 - 15mm Positive - hypersensitive to tuberculin protein Should not be given BCG. May be due to previous TB infection or BCG
> 15mm Strongly positive - strongly hypersensitive to tuberculin protein Suggests tuberculosis infection.

193
Q

causes of false negative mantoux test

A
miliary TB
sarcoidosis
HIV
lymphoma
very young age (e.g. < 6 months)
194
Q

how to diagnose active TB

A

Chest x-ray
upper lobe cavitation is the classical finding of reactivated TB
bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

Sputum smear
3 specimens are needed
rapid and inexpensive test
stained for the presence of acid-fast bacilli (Ziehl-Neelsen stain)
all mycobacteria will stain positive (i.e. nontuberculous mycobacteria)
the sensitivity is between 50-80%
this is decreased in individuals with HIV to around 20-30%

Sputum culture
the gold standard investigation
more sensitive than a sputum smear and nucleic acid amplification tests
can assess drug sensitivities
can take 1-3 weeks (if using liquid media, longer if solid media)

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)
allows rapid diagnosis (within 24-48 hours)
more sensitive than smear but less sensitive than culture

195
Q

severe falciparum management

A

a parasite counts of more than 2% will usually need parenteral treatment irrespective of clinical state
intravenous artesunate is now recommended by WHO in preference to intravenous quinine
if parasite count > 10% then exchange transfusion should be considered
shock may indicate coexistent bacterial septicaemia - malaria rarely causes haemodynamic collapse

196
Q

uncomplicated falciparum management

A

strains resistant to chloroquine are prevalent in certain areas of Asia and Africa
the 2010 WHO guidelines recommend artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) as first-line therapy
examples include artemether plus lumefantrine, artesunate plus amodiaquine, artesunate plus mefloquine, artesunate plus sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine, dihydroartemisinin plus piperaquine

197
Q

splenectomy at risk of

A

pneumococcus, Haemophilus, meningococcus and Capnocytophaga canimorsus* infections

198
Q

splenectomy vaccines

A

if elective, should be done 2 weeks prior to operation
Hib, meningitis A & C
annual influenza vaccination
pneumococcal vaccine every 5 years

199
Q

mechanism for carbapenem resistance

A

New Delhi metallo-beta-lactamase 1 is the mutation that leads to carbapenem resistance. Typically found in Klebsiella pneumoniae, Escherichia Coli (E. Coli), Enterobacter cloacae and others. First line of management is the old antibiotic colistin and second line may be tigecycline.

200
Q

mechanism for vancomycin resistance

A

D-alanyl-D-lactate variation leading to loss of affinity to antibiotics is the mechanism of VRE (vancomycin resistant enterococci). Vancomycin binds to D-ala-D-ala.

201
Q

mechanism for -lactam resistance

A

The presence of MexAB-OprM efflux pumps is one of the mechanisms by which pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to -lactams, chloramphenicol, fluoroquinolones, macrolides, novobiocin, sulfonamides, tetracycline, and trimethoprim.

202
Q

mechanism for MRSA resistance

A

Alteration to the penicillin binding protein 2 is the mechanism behind methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus. Mutations in the MEC gene which codes the penicillin binding proteins give staphylococcus aureus its resistance.

203
Q

IgA protease

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

204
Q

M protein

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

205
Q

Polyribosyl ribitol phosphate capsule

A

Haemophilus influenzae

206
Q

Bacteriophage

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

207
Q

spore forming

A

Bacillus anthracis
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium tetani

208
Q

Lecithinase alpha toxin

A

Clostridium perfringens

209
Q

D-glutamate polypeptide capsule

A

Bacillus anthracis

210
Q

Actin rockets

A

Listeria monocytogenes

211
Q

cholangitis causes in order

A

Escherichia coli
Klebsiella species
Enterococcus species
Streptococcus species

212
Q

what level of parasitaemia should be considered sever in malaria

A

> 2%

213
Q

two forms of trypanosomiasis

A

African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) and American trypanosomiasis (Chagas’ disease).

214
Q

what spreads african sleeping sickness

A

tsetse fly

215
Q

pathogenesis of the two types of african sleeping sickness

A

rypanosoma gambiense in West Africa and Trypanosoma rhodesiense in East Africa

216
Q

clinical features african sleeping sickness

A

Trypanosoma rhodesiense tends to follow a more acute course. Clinical features include:
Trypanosoma chancre - painless subcutaneous nodule at site of infection
intermittent fever
enlargement of posterior cervical lymph nodes
later: central nervous system involvement e.g. somnolence, headaches, mood changes, meningoencephalitis

217
Q

african trypanosomiasis management

A

early disease: IV pentamidine or suramin

later disease or central nervous system involvement: IV melarsoprol

218
Q

Chagas disease cause

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

219
Q

features of amaerican sleeping sickness

A

The vast majority of patients (95%) are asymptomatic in the acute phase although a chagoma (an erythematous nodule at site of infection) and periorbital oedema are sometimes seen. Chronic Chagas’ disease mainly affects the heart and gastrointestinal tract
myocarditis may lead to dilated cardiomyopathy (with apical atophy) and arrhythmias
gastrointestinal features includes megaoesophagus and megacolon causing dysphagia and constipation

220
Q

management american sleeping sickness

A

treatment is most effective in the acute phase using azole or nitroderivatives such as benznidazole or nifurtimox
chronic disease management involves treating the complications e.g., heart failure

221
Q

epiglottitis cause

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

222
Q

epiglottitis management

A

immediate senior involvement, including those able to provide emergency airway support (e.g. anaesthetics, ENT)
endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway
if suspected do NOT examine the throat due to the risk of acute airway obstruction
the diagnosis is made by direct visualisation but this should only be done by senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary
oxygen
intravenous antibiotics

223
Q

what is brucellosis

A

Brucellosis is a zoonosis more common in the Middle East and in farmers. Four major species cause infection in humans: B melitensis (sheep), B abortus (cattle), B canis and B suis (pigs). Brucellosis has an incubation period 2 - 6 weeks

224
Q

brucellosis features

A

non-specific: fever, malaise
hepatosplenomegaly
sacroilitis: spinal tenderness may be seen
complications: osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, orchitis
leukopenia often seen

225
Q

brucellosis diagnosis

A

the Rose Bengal plate test can be used for screening but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis
Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis
blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, but these tests are often negative

226
Q

brucellosis management

A

doxycycline and streptomycin

227
Q

leishmaniasis cause

A

Leishmania, usually being spread by sand flies. Cutaneous, mucocutaneous leishmaniasis and visceral forms are seen

228
Q

cutaneous leishmaniasis cause

A

caused by Leishmania tropica or Leishmania mexicana
crusted lesion at site of bite
may be underlying ulcer
cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America merits treatment due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis whereas disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively

229
Q

mucocutaneous leishmaniasis cause

A

caused by Leishmania braziliensis

skin lesions may spread to involve mucosae of nose, pharynx etc

230
Q

Visceral leishamaniasis cause

A

(kala-azar)
mostly caused by Leishmania donovani
occurs in the Mediterranean, Asia, South America, Africa
fever, sweats, rigors
massive splenomegaly. hepatomegaly
poor appetite*, weight loss
grey skin - ‘kala-azar’ means black sickness
pancytopaenia secondary to hypersplenism
the gold standard for diagnosis is bone marrow or splenic aspirate

231
Q

leptospirosis cause

A

spirochaete Leptospira interrogans (serogroup L. icterohaemorrhagiae), classically being spread by contact with infected rat urine.

232
Q

leptospirosis features

A

the early phase is due to bacteraemia and lasts around a week
may be mild or subclinical
fever
flu-like symptoms
subconjunctival suffusion (redness)/haemorrhage
second immune phase may lead to more severe disease (Weil’s disease)
acute kidney injury (seen in 50% of patients)
hepatitis: jaundice, hepatomegaly
aseptic meningitis

233
Q

leptospirosis investigations

A

serology: antibodies to Leptospira develop after about 7 days
PCR
culture
growth may take several weeks so limits usefulness in diagnosis
blood and CSF samples are generally positive for the first 10 days
urine cultures become positive during the second week of illness

234
Q

leptospirosis management

A

high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline

235
Q

bactericidal antibiotics

A
penicillins
cephalosporins
aminoglycosides
nitrofurantoin
metronidazole
quinolones
rifampicin
isoniazid
236
Q

bacteriostatic antibiotics

A
chloramphenicol
macrolides
tetracyclines
sulphonamides
trimethoprim
237
Q

joint pain and fever, recent travel to asia

A

Chikungunya
alphavirus disease

mosquitoe spread

238
Q

alphavirus disease features

A

Prominent symptoms are severe joint pain and abrupt onset of high fever. Other symptoms include general flu-like illness of muscle ache, headache, and fatigue. The disease shares its symptoms with dengue but tends to have more joint pain which can be debilitating. A rash may develop as with other viral illness and swelling of the joints in not uncommon.

239
Q

alphavirus treatment

A

Relief of symptoms. No specific treatment.

240
Q

what causes a false positive syphillis test

A
pregnancy
SLE, anti-phospholipid syndrome
TB
leprosy
malaria
HIV
241
Q

syphillis cause

A

Treponema pallidum

242
Q

syphillis investigations

A

very sensitive organism and cannot be grown on artificial media. The diagnosis is therefore usually based on clinical features, serology and microscopic examination of infected tissue

Serological tests can be divided into:
cardiolipin tests (not treponeme specific)
treponemal-specific antibody tests

Cardiolipin tests
syphilis infection leads to the production of non-specific antibodies that react to cardiolipin
examples include VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) & RPR (rapid plasma reagin)
insensitive in late syphilis
becomes negative after treatment

Treponemal specific antibody tests
example: TPHA (Treponema pallidum HaemAgglutination test)
remains positive after treatment
Therefore, following treatment for syphilis:
VDRL becomes negative
TPHA remains positive

243
Q

Japanese encephalitis

A

Japanese encephalitis is the most common cause of viral encephalitis in South East Asia, China the Western Pacific and India, with approx. 50,000 cases annually. It is a flavivirus transmitted by culex mosquitos which breeds in rice paddy fields. The reservoir hosts are aquatic birds, but pigs are an amplification host and therefore close domestic contact with pigs is a risk factor.

The majority of infection is asymptomatic.

Clinical features are headache, fever, seizures and confusion. Parkinsonian features indicate basal ganglia involvement. It can also present with acute flaccid paralysis.

Diagnosis is by serology or PCR. Management is supportive.

Prevention is a vaccine and there are a variety of different types.

244
Q

malaria investigations

A

The gold standard for diagnosis of malaria remains the blood film. Rapid diagnostic tests (detecting plasmodial histidine-rich protein 2) are currently being trialled and have shown sensitivities from 77-99% and specificities from 83-98% for falciparum malaria

Blood film - if doubt about diagnosis should be repeated

thick: more sensitive
thin: determine species

Other tests
thrombocythaemia is characteristic
normochromic normocytic anaemia
normal white cell count
reticulocytosis
245
Q

terbinafine mechanism of action

A

inhibits the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase, causing cellular death.It is an antifungal medication used to treat ringworm, pityriasis versicolor, and fungal nail infections.

246
Q

erysipelas organism

A

strep pyogenes

247
Q

zanamivir side effects

A

also a neuraminidase inhibitor

may induce bronchospasm in asthmatics

248
Q

vacines contraindicated in all HIV patients

A

Cholera CVD103-HgR
Influenza-intranasal
Poliomyelitis-oral (OPV)
Tuberculosis (BCG)

249
Q

what is lemierre’s disease

A

infectious thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein.

It most often occurs secondary to a bacterial sore throat caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum leading to a peritonsillar abscess. A combination of spread of the infection laterally from the abscess and compression lead to thrombosis of the IJV.

Patients will present with a history of bacterial sore throat followed by neck pain, stiffness and tenderness (may be mistaken for meningitis) and systemic involvement (fevers, rigors, etc). Septic pulmonary emboli may also occur.

250
Q

EBV presentation

A

The classic triad of sore throat, pyrexia and lymphadenopathy is seen in around 98% of patients:
sore throat
lymphadenopathy: may be present in the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck, in contrast to tonsillitis which typically only results in the upper anterior cervical chain being enlarged
pyrexia

malaise, anorexia, headache
palatal petechiae
splenomegaly - occurs in around 50% of patients and may rarely predispose to splenic rupture
hepatitis, transient rise in ALT
lymphocytosis: presence of 50% lymphocytes with at least 10% atypical lymphocytes
haemolytic anaemia secondary to cold agglutins (IgM)
a maculopapular, pruritic rash develops in around 99% of patients who take ampicillin/amoxicillin whilst they have infectious mononucleosis

251
Q

EBV causes

A

Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) (EBV, also known as human herpesvirus 4, HHV-4) in 90% of cases. Less frequent causes include cytomegalovirus and HHV-6. It is most common in adolescents and young adults

252
Q

Mono diagnosis

A

heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) - NICE guidelines suggest FBC and Monospot in the 2nd week of the illness to confirm a diagnosis of glandular fever.

253
Q

EBV management

A

Management is supportive and includes:
rest during the early stages, drink plenty of fluid, avoid alcohol
simple analgesia for any aches or pains
consensus guidance in the UK is to avoid playing contact sports for 8 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture

254
Q

factors to reduce vertical HIV transmission

A

maternal antiretroviral therapy
mode of delivery (caesarean section)
neonatal antiretroviral therapy
infant feeding (bottle feeding)

255
Q

Mode of delivery HIV positive women

A

vaginal delivery is recommended if viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks, otherwise caesarian section is recommended
a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the caesarean section

256
Q

flu –> remission –> jaundice and haematemesis

A

yellow fever

257
Q

inclusion bodies in hepatocytes

A

yellow fever

258
Q

egg protein anaphylaxis contraindication to which vaccine

A

yellow fever

also present in MMR and rabies but not clinically significant

259
Q

causes of diarrhoea in HIV

A

Cryptosporidium + other protozoa (most common)
Cytomegalovirus
Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
Giardia

260
Q

cryptosporidium diagnosis

A

It is an intracellular protozoa and has an incubation period of 7 days. Presentation is very variable, ranging from mild to severe diarrhoea. A modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain (acid-fast stain) of the stool may reveal the characteristic red cysts of Cryptosporidium. Treatment is difficult, with the mainstay of management being supportive therapy

261
Q

WTF is Wuchereria bancrofti

A
Parasitic filarial nematode
Accounts for 90% of cases of filariasis
Usually diagnosed by blood smears
Usually transmitted by mosquitos
Treatment is with diethylcarbamazine
commonest cause of filariasis leading to lymphatic obstruction
262
Q

chlamydia investigation

A

traditional cell culture is no longer widely used
nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) are now the investigation of choice
urine (first void urine sample), vulvovaginal swab or cervical swab may be tested using the NAAT technique
for women: the vulvovaginal swab is first-line
for men: the urine test is first-line
Chlamydiatesting should be carried out two weeks after a possible exposure

263
Q

chlamydia treatment

A

doxycycline 7 days

azithromycin, erythromycin, amoxicillin if pregnant or doxycycline contraindicated

264
Q

Lassa fever features

A
flu-like symptoms
abdominal pain
haemorrhage
petechiae, bruising
bloody diarrhoea, haematemesis, haemoptysis
disseminated intravascular coagulation
multiorgan failure
265
Q

lassa fever cause

A

Lassa fever is contracted by contact with the excreta of infected African rats (Mastomys rodent) or by person-to-person spread.

Lassa fever is an arenavirus (family Arenaviridae) which causes a wide clinical spectrum of disease ranging from non-specific febrile symptoms (often with a sore throat), through to vomiting, diarrhoea, oedema and shock. A mild bleeding diathesis may be seen. The fatality rate is around 15% in those unwell enough to require inpatient treatment. It is the haemorrhagic fever most often seen in returning travellers due to its wide distribution (it is found across West Africa) and long incubation (which can be up to three weeks).

266
Q

which antibiotics inhibit cell wall formation>

A

penicillins: binds transpeptidase blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls
cephalosporins

267
Q

bacteriostatic antibiotics

A

Inhibit protein synthesis: these antibiotics are bateriostatic
aminoglycosides (cause misreading of mRNA)
chloramphenicol
macrolides (e.g. erythromycin)
tetracyclines
fusidic acid

268
Q

which antibiotic inhibits RNA synthesis?

A

rifampicin

269
Q

which antibiotics inhibit DNA synthesis

A

quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin)
metronidazole
sulphonamides
trimethoprim

270
Q

short incubation period and severe vomiting point to a diagnosis of…

A

staph aureus food poisoning

271
Q

cat scratch disease caused by

A

Gram negative rod Bartonella henselae

272
Q

cat scratch features

A

fever
history of a cat scratch
regional lymphadenopathy
headache, malaise

273
Q

antibiotic for bartonella henselae

A

Supportive

azithromycin if large nodes or immunocompromised

274
Q

trimethoprim mechanism

A

interferes with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase
may, therefore, interact with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

275
Q

adverse effects trimethoprim

A

myelosuppression
transient rise in creatinine: trimethoprim competitively inhibits the tubular secretion of creatinine resulting in a temporary increase which reverses upon stopping the drug
trimethoprim blocks the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It also inhibits creatinine secretion, often leading to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points (but not necessarily causing AKI)

276
Q

PID treatment

A

oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole

277
Q

pubic lice treatment

A

Management of pubic lice involves application of either: malathion 0.5%, permethrin 1%, phenothrin 0.2% or carbaryl 0.5% All of these creams or lotions are applied to all body hair and left on the hair for the recommended ‘treatment time’ before being washed off.
Treatment should be re-applied after 3-7 days: this is due to the presence of lice and eggs being at different stages of their life cycle.

278
Q

toxoplasmosis management immunocompetent

A

supportive care

279
Q

meningitis organisms 0-3months

A

Group B Streptococcus (most common cause in neonates)
E. coli
Listeria monocytogenes

280
Q

meningitis organisms 3months-6 years

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae

281
Q

meningitis organisms 6y-60y

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Streptococcus pneumoniae

282
Q

meningitis causes >60 years

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Listeria monocytogenes

283
Q

renal transplant + infection =

A

CMV

284
Q

Amphotericin B mechanism

A

Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes, forming pores that cause lysis of the cell wall and subsequent fungal cell death

285
Q

caspofungin mechanism of action

A

inhibits synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component.

286
Q

nystatin mechanism of action

A

Binds with ergosterol forming a transmembrane channel that leads to monovalent ion (K+, Na+, H+ and Cl) leakage

287
Q

non-gonococccal urethritis organisms

A

Chlamydia trachomatis - most common cause

Mycoplasma genitalium - thought to cause more symptoms than Chlamydia

288
Q

non-gonnococcal urethritis manageemnt

A

contact tracing

the BNF and British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) both recommend either oral azithromycin or doxycycline

289
Q

Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

A

Threadworm infestation is asymptomatic in around 90% of cases, possible features include perianal itching, particularly at night; girls may have vulval symptoms

Diagnosis may be made by the applying sticky plastic tape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs

290
Q

River blindness

A

Onchocerca volvulus Causes ‘river blindness’. Spread by female blackflies

Features include blindness, hyperpigmented skin and possible allergic reaction to microfilaria

Ivermectin
rIVERblindness = IVERmectin

291
Q

causes of a false positive VDRL/RPR

A

‘SomeTimes Mistakes Happen’ (SLE, TB, malaria, HIV)

292
Q

Vancomycin mechanism of action

A

inhibits cell wall formation by binding to D-Ala-D-Ala moieties, preventing polymerization of peptidoglycans

293
Q

vancomycin mechanism of resistance

A

alteration to the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits (normally D-alanyl-D-alanine) to which the antibiotic binds

294
Q

vancomycin adverse effects

A

nephrotoxicity
ototoxicity
thrombophlebitis
red man syndrome; occurs on rapid infusion of vancomycin.

Red man syndrome is associated with flushing or a maculopapular rash. The proposed mechanism is non IgE mediated mast cell degranulation. Red man syndrome is more common with higher flow rates of infusion. Treatment includes antihistamines.

295
Q

features of severe malaria

A
schizonts on a blood film
parasitaemia > 2%
hypoglycaemia
acidosis
temperature > 39 °C
severe anaemia
complications as below
296
Q

what is HIV?

A

HIV is a RNA retrovirus of the lentivirus genus (lentiviruses are characterized by a long incubation period)
two variants - HIV-1 and HIV-2
HIV-2 is more common in west Africa, has a lower transmission rate and is thought to be less pathogenic with a slower progression to AIDS

297
Q

how does HIV enter cells?

A

HIV can infect CD4 T cells, macrophages and dendritic cells
gp120 binds to CD4 and CXCR4 on T cells and CD4 and CCR5 on macrophages
mutations in CCR5 can give immunity to HIV

298
Q

Active TB treatment

A
Initial phase - first 2 months (RIPE)
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol (the 2006 NICE guidelines now recommend giving a 'fourth drug' such as ethambutol routinely - previously this was only added if drug-resistant tuberculosis was suspected)

Continuation phase - next 4 months
Rifampicin
Isoniazid

299
Q

Latent TB management

A

3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin OR 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

300
Q

meningial TB management

A

treated for a prolonged period (at least 12 months) with the addition of steroids

301
Q

Rifampicin side effects

A

potent liver enzyme inducer
hepatitis, orange secretions
flu-like symptoms

302
Q

isoniazid side effects

A

peripheral neuropathy: prevent with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
hepatitis, agranulocytosis
liver enzyme inhibitor

303
Q

Pyrazinamide side effects

A

hyperuricaemia causing gout
arthralgia, myalgia
hepatitis

304
Q

Ethambutol side effects

A

optic neuritis: check visual acuity before and during treatment

305
Q

toxocara canis

A

commonly acquired by ingesting eggs from soil contaminated by dog faeces
commonest cause of visceral larva migrans
other features: eye granulomas, liver/lung involvement

306
Q

what is hepatitis E?

A

RNA hepevirus
spread by the faecal-oral route
incubation period: 3-8 weeks
common in Central and South-East Asia, North and West Africa, and in Mexico
causes a similar disease to hepatitis A, but carries a significant mortality (about 20%) during pregnancy
does not cause chronic disease or an increased risk of hepatocellular cancer
a vaccine is currently in development*, but is not yet in widespread use

307
Q

characteristic features of pneumococcal pneumonia

A

the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia

rapid onset
high fever
pleuritic chest pain
herpes labialis (cold sores)

308
Q

hepatitis c transmission

A

hepatitis C is a RNA flavivirus
incubation period: 6-9 weeks

Transmission
the risk of transmission during a needle stick injury is about 2%
the vertical transmission rate from mother to child is about 6%. The risk is higher if there is coexistent HIV
breastfeeding is not contraindicated in mothers with hepatitis C
the risk of transmitting the virus during sexual intercourse is probably less than 5%
there is no vaccine for hepatitis C

309
Q

Hepatitis c investigations

A

HCV RNA is the investigation of choice to diagnose acute infection
whilst patients will eventually develop anti-HCV antibodies it should be remembered that patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies

310
Q

hepatitis C outcomes

A

around 15-45% of patients will clear the virus after an acute infection (depending on their age and underlying health) and hence the majority (55-85%) will develop chronic hepatitis C

311
Q

chronic hepatitis C complications

A

rheumatological problems: arthralgia, arthritis
eye problems: Sjogren’s syndrome
cirrhosis (5-20% of those with chronic disease)
hepatocellular cancer
cryoglobulinaemia: typically type II (mixed monoclonal and polyclonal)
porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT): it is increasingly recognised that PCT may develop in patients with hepatitis C, especially if there are other factors such as alcohol abuse
membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

312
Q

chronic hepatitis c management

A

treatment depends on the viral genotype - this should be tested prior to treatment
the management of hepatitis C has advanced rapidly in recent years resulting in clearance rates of around 95%. Interferon based treatments are no longer recommended
the aim of treatment is sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy
currently a combination of protease inhibitors (e.g. daclatasvir + sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir + simeprevir) with or without ribavirin are used

313
Q

hepatitis c complications of treatement

A

ribavirin - side-effects: haemolytic anaemia, cough. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic
interferon alpha - side-effects: flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia

314
Q

human bite antibiotic

A

co-amoxiclav

315
Q

WTF is Orf?

A

Orf is generally a condition found in sheep and goats although it can be transmitted to humans. It is caused by the parapox virus.

In animals
‘scabby’ lesions around the mouth and nose

In humans
generally affects the hands and arms
initially small, raised, red-blue papules
later may increase in size to 2-3 cm and become flat-topped and haemorrhagic