Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 Neurology-First Aid 2017 > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

First line treatment for tonic-clonic seizures

A

Phenytoin/fosphenytoin or valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

First line treatment for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

First line treatment for acute status epilepticus

A

Benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

First line treatment for prophylaxis of status epilepticus

A

Phenytoin/fosphenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antiseizure not indicated for partial seizures

A

Ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

First line treatment for partial seizures

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drugs indicated for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide, valproic acid, lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Side effect of lamotrigine

A

Steven-Johnson syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Antiepileptic with zero-order kinetics

A

Phenytoin/fosphenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Antiepileptic that is first-line in neonates

A

Phenobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Antiepileptics that induce P450

A

Phenobarbital, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin/fosphenytoin (PCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Antiepileptics that block T-type calcium channels

A

Ethosuximide, Gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Antiepileptics that block sodium channels

A

Topiramate, Lamotrigine, Carbamazepine, Valproic acid, Phenytoin/fosphenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Antiepileptics that inhibits the release of glutamate

A

Lamotrigine via blocking of sodium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Antiepileptics that causes agranulocytosis

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antiepileptics that gingival hyperplasia

A

Phenytoin/fosphenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Barbiturate indications

A

Anxiety, seizures, insomnia, anesthesia induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Barbiturates

A

Have suffix -barbital except thiopental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Barbiturate used for anesthesia induction

A

Thiopental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Barbiturates MOA

A

Increase duration of chloride channel opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Contraindication for barbiturates

A

Porphyrias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Short-acting benzos

A 
ATOM:
Alprazolam
Triazolam
Oxazepam
Midazolam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Long-acting benzos

A

Diazepam, lorazepam, temazepam, chlordiazepoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Benzos MOA

A

Increase frequency of chloride channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Benzos indicated for status epilepticus

A

Diazepam and lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Benzos overdose treatment

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Non-benzos hypnotics

A

Zolpidem, Zaleplon, esZopiclone (all ZZZs put to sleep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Non-benzos hypnotics effects reversed by what drug

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Suvorexant MOA

A

Orexin receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Suvorexant indications

A

Insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Suvorexant contraindications

A

Narcolepsy, liver disease, and with strong CYP3A4 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ramelteon MOA

A

Melatonin receptor antagonist, binds MT1 and MT2 in suprachiasmatic nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Ramelteon indications

A

Insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Triptans MOA

A

5-HT1b/1d agonist
Inhibit trigeminal nerve activation
Prevent vasoactive peptide release
Induce vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Triptans indications

A

Acute migraine, cluster headache attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Triptans contraindications

A

CAD and Prinzmetal angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Triptans side-effects

A

Serotonin syndrome with other 5-HT agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cause of parkinsonism

A

Loss of dopaminergic neurons and excess cholinergic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Amantadine MOA

A

Increase dopamine release, inhibit reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Amantadine toxicity

A

Ataxia, livedo reticularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Carbidopa MOA

A

Blocks peripheral conversion of L-DOPA increasing dopamine by blocking DOPA decarboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Entacapone, tolcapone

A

Inhibit COMT preventing peripheral L-DOPA degradation to 3-OMD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Selegiline

A

Blocks MAO-B preventing conversion of dopamine to DOPAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Tolcapone

A

Blocks COMT preventing conversion of dopamine to 3-MT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Indication for tetrabenazine and reserpine

A

Huntington disease

46
Q

Tetrabenazine and reserpine MOA

A

Inhibit VMAT decreasing dopamine release

47
Q

Haloperidol MOA

A

D2 receptor antagonist increasing dopamine turnover

48
Q

Indication for riluzole

A

ALS (increases survival)

49
Q

Riluzole MOA

A

Decrease glutamate excitotoxicity - mechanism unclear

50
Q

Indication for memantine

A

Alzheimer disease

51
Q

Memantine MOA

A

NMDA receptor antagonist - prevents calcium mediated excitotoxicity

52
Q

Memantine adverse effects

A

Dizziness, confusion, hallucinations

53
Q

AChE inhibitors used for Alzheimer disease

A

Donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine, tacrine

54
Q

Potency of lipophilic anesthetics

A

Increased potency

55
Q

Solubility of anesthetics with rapid induction and recovery times

A

Decreased solubility in blood

56
Q

Anesthetics with high lipid and blood solubility have what properties

A

High potency and slow induction

57
Q

Anesthetics with decreased blood and lipid solubility have what properties

A

Fast induction and low potency

58
Q

Life-threatening adverse reaction of inhaled anesthetics

A

Malignant hyperthermia

59
Q

Mechanism of malignant hyperthermia

A

Defective ryanodine receptor cause release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum

60
Q

Treatment for malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene

61
Q

IV anesthetic used for endoscopy or adjuvant with gaseous anesthetic

A

Midazolam

62
Q

Midazolam side effects

A

Decreased BP and anterograde amnesia

63
Q

Midazolam overdose treatment

A

Flumazenil

64
Q

IV anesthetic that is PCP analog that act as dissociative anesthetic

A

Ketamine

65
Q

Ketamine MOA

A

Blocks NMDA receptors

66
Q

Ketamine side effects

A

Disorientation, hallucination, unpleasant dreams

67
Q

IV anesthetic used for sedation in ICU, rapid anesthesia induction and short procedures

A

Propofol

68
Q

Propofol MOA

A

Potentiates GABA-A

69
Q

Indication for IV morphine or fentanyl

A

Used with other CNS depressants during general anesthesia

70
Q

Local anesthetics (esters)

A

Procaine, cocaine, Tetracaine, benzocaine

71
Q

Local anesthetics (amides)

A

Lidocaine, mepivacaine, bupivacaine

72
Q

Nerve fibers most affected by anesthetics

A

Small, myelinated fibers

73
Q

Fibers least affected by anesthetics

A

Large, unmyelinated fibers

74
Q

Order of loss of sensation by local anesthetics

A

Pain - temp - touch - pressure

75
Q

Reason alkaline anesthetics cannot penetrate infected tissue

A

Infected tissue is acidic

76
Q

Depolarizing NMJ blocking drugs

A

Succinylcholine

77
Q

Succinylcholine MOA

A

ACh receptor agonist producing sustained depolarization and prevents muscle contraction

78
Q

Reversal of Succinylcholine blockade

A

Phase I: Prolonged depolarization (no antidote)

Phase II: ACh Repolarized but blocked (receptors avail but desensitized)

79
Q

Effect of cholinesterase inhibitors on Phase I of Succinylcholine blockade

A

Potentiates blockade

80
Q

Effect of cholinesterase inhibitors on Phase II of Succinylcholine blockade

A

Blockade may be reversed

81
Q

Non-depolarizing NMJ drugs

A

Tubocurarine, atracurium, mivacurium, pancuronium, vecuronium, rocuronium (all have -cur in name)

82
Q

Non-depolarizing NMJ drugs MOA

A

ACh receptor competitive antagonist

83
Q

Non-depolarizing NMJ drug used to reverse blockade

A

Neostigmine (with atropine to prevent muscarinic effects); edrophonium, and other cholinesterase inhibitors

84
Q

Dantrolene MOA

A

Binds ryanodine receptor stopping calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle

85
Q

Dantrolene indications

A

Malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome

86
Q

Baclofen MOA

A

Activates GABA-B receptors at spinal cord level causing skeletal muscle relaxation

87
Q

Baclofen indications

A

Muscle spasms, MS

88
Q

Cyclobenzaprine MOA

A

Related to TCAs that relaxes skeletal muscle

89
Q

Cyclobenzaprine indications

A

Spasms

90
Q

Opioid analgesic MOA

A

Agonist at opioid receptors inhibiting release of ACh, NE, serotonin, glutamate and substance P

91
Q

Opioid used for diarrhea

A

Loperamide, diphenoxylate

92
Q

Opioid used for pain and cough suppression

A

Dextromethorphan

93
Q

Opioid used for acute pulmonary edema or for heroin addiction

A

Methadone or buprenorphine + naloxone

94
Q

Drug used for opioid relapse prevention once detoxified

A

Naltrexone

95
Q

Drug used to treat opioid toxicity

A

Naloxone

96
Q

Naloxone MOA

A

Opioid receptor antagonist

97
Q

Pentazocine MOA

A

k-opioid receptor agonist and u-opioid receptor weak antagonist or partial agonist

98
Q

Pentazocine indication

A

Analgesia for moderate to severe pain

99
Q

Pentazocine side effects

A

Opioid withdrawal symptoms if also taking full opioid antagonist

100
Q

Butorphanol MOA

A

k-opioid receptor agonist and u-receptor partial agonist

101
Q

Butorphanol indications

A

Severe pain

102
Q

Butorphanol side effects

A

Opioid withdrawal symptoms if also taking full opioid antagonist

103
Q

Tramadol MOA

A

Very weak opioid agonist; inhibits 5-HT and NE release

104
Q

Tramadol indications

A

Chronic pain

105
Q

Tramadol side effects

A

Decreases seizure threshold; Serotonin syndrome

106
Q

Beta-blockers used to decrease aqueous humor synthesis

A

Timolol, betaxolol, carteolol

107
Q

Diuretic used to decrease aqueous humor synthesis

A

Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)

108
Q

Alpha-agonist used to decrease aqueous humor synthesis

A

Epinephrine (alpha-1) - via vasoconstriction

Brimonidine (alpha-2)

109
Q

Alpha-agonist contraindicated in closed-angle glaucoma

A

Epinephrine - mydriasis

110
Q

Cholinomimetics used to increase outflow of aqueous humor via contraction of ciliary muscle and opening trabecular meshwork

A

Pilocarpine, carbachol (direct)

Physostigmine, echothiophate (indirect)

111
Q

Prostaglandins used to increase outflow of aqueous humor via decreased resistance of flow through uveoscleral pathway

A

Bimatoprost, latanoprost (PGF2-alpha)

Step 1 Neurology-First Aid 2017 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions