Pharmacology Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the K, Vmax, of Micehalis-menton kinetics?

A

Km is inversely related to the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate

Vmax: directly proportional to the enzyme concentration

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2
Q

What type of enzyme reaction do most medication follow?

A

Hyperbolic curve

Some enzyme reactions exhibit sigmoid

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3
Q

Which type of inhibitor can be overcome by increasing the substrate concentration?

A

1) Only reversible competitive inhibitors (irreversible compeitive and non competitive cannot)

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4
Q

What is the effect of Km depending on the type of inhibitor?

A

Competitive inhibitor reverible (Increased)
Comp. non revers. unchanged
Non. comp: unchanged

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5
Q

Effect on Vmax?

A
Comp In (rev.)  unchanged
Comp in (irr) decreased
Non. irr decreased
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6
Q

What is bioavilability of IV dose?

A

F= 100

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7
Q

What is the bioavailability of PO dose?

A

Less then 100% due to incomplete absorbtion and first pass metabolism

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8
Q

What is the volume distribution?

A

Amount of drug in the body relative to its plasma concentration

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9
Q

What can affect the volume of distribution?

A

Altered by liver or kidney disease

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10
Q

How to calculate the volume of distribution?

A

Vd= Amount of drug in the body/plasma drug concentration

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11
Q

what are characteristics of low volume of distribution?

A

Compartment: blood (drug: large charged molebules) with plasma protein bound

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12
Q

What are characteristic of medium distribution?

A

ECF

Small, hydrophilic molecules

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13
Q

What are characteristics of high distribution?

A

All tissues including fat

Small, lipophilic molecules, especially bound by tissue protein.

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14
Q

How to determine the clearance ?

A

CL = rate of elimination of the drug/plasma drug concentration = Vd X Ke

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15
Q

What is the half time?

A

Time required for the body to 1/2 elimination

T1/2 = ).693 X Vd/ CL

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16
Q

What is meant by the different number of half times?

A

1 half life: 50%
2 half life: 25%
3 half life: 12.5%
4 half life: 6.25%

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17
Q

How to calculate a loading dose?

A

Cp X Vd / F
Cp=target plasma concentration at steady state
Vd is volume distribution
F = bioavilability

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18
Q

How to calculate the maintenece dose?

A

Maintence dose=Cp X Cl X t/F
Cp (target plasma steady state)
T= dosage interval (if not administered continuousely

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19
Q

What happens to the loading dose if have liver or kidney disease?

A

The loading dose is usually unchanged, but the maintence dose is decreased

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20
Q

What determines the time to the steady state?

A

The T1/2 is independent of dose, and of dosing frequency

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21
Q

What is an additive drug interaction, and what is an example?

A

effect of substance A and B is equal to sum of their individual effects (ASA and acetaminophen)

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22
Q

What is a permissive effect of drugs?

A

Presence of substance A needed to get full effect of B (cortisol on catecholamine effect)

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23
Q

what is a synergistic effect of drugs?

A

Effect of substance A and B is greater then the sum of individual effects

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24
Q

What is tachyphylactic drug interaction?

A

Acute decrease in response to the drug after initial administration

MDMA and LSD

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25
Q

What is zero order drug?

A

Constant amount of drug eliminated regardless of unit of time (graph is a straight line)

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26
Q

What are examples of drugs that are zero order?

A

Phenytoin
Ethanol
ASA

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27
Q

What is first order elimination?

A

Rate of elimination is directly proportional to the concentration of the drug (graph is a curved line)

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28
Q

How does urine pH affect the drug elimination?

A

Ionized species are trapped in urine and eliminated quickly

Neutral forms can be reabsorbed

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29
Q

How do weak acids work?

Examples of weak acids?

A

1) Trapped in basic environment (treat with bicarbonate)

2) Examples: phenobarbitol methrotrexate, ASA

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30
Q

How do weak bases work?
How to treat overdose?
What are some examples?

A

1) Trapped in acideic environment (treat overdose with ammonia chloride)
2) Amphetamines and TCA’s

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31
Q

What are the two phases of drug metabolism?

A

Phase 1: Reduction, oxidation, hydrolysis with cytochrome p-450 (Geriatric patients lose phase 1 first)

Phase 2: conjugation (methylation, acetylation) usually yeilds very polar inactive metabolits that are renally excreted

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32
Q

What is the efficacy of a drug?

A

Maximal effect a drug can produce
Represented by the y value (V max)
Partial agnosits have less efficiency then full agonist

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33
Q

What is the potency of a drug?

A

1) Amount of drug needed for a given effect

2) Rpresented by the EC 50

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34
Q

What happens whe the EC 50 has a left shift?

A

A left shift will increase the potency

Will decrease the amount of drug needed for a given effect

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35
Q

what happens when agonist is placed with competitive antagonist? What is the effect?

A

1) Shifts the curve to the right
2) Decrease the potency
3) Can be overcome by increasing the concentration of the agonist substrate

Ex. Diazepm with flumazenil (competitive on GABA receptor)

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36
Q

What happens when agonist with non-competitive antagonist?

A

1) Shifts curve down (decrease efficiency)
2) Cannot be overcome by increasing the agonist substrate concentration
3) example: Norepi and alpha receptor

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37
Q

What happens when partial agonist is places with agonist?

A

1) Acts at the same site as full agonist
2) Lower maximal effect (decrease of efficiency)
3) Potency is independent variable

Ex Morphine vs burenorphine

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38
Q

How is the safety of drug measured?

A

TD 50/ ED50

TD 50 (median toxic dose) 
ED 50 (median effective dose)
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39
Q

What is therapeutic window?

A

Dosage range that can safetly and effectvely be used to treat the disease

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40
Q

What is the TI of a safer drug?

A

Usually have a higher TI

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41
Q

What is the TI of a more dangerous drug?

What needs to be done with less safe drugs?

A

1) More dangerous drug will have lower TI
2) Will need more monitoring
3) Examples include: digoxin, lithium, theophylline

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42
Q

What is the difference between the parasympathetic and sympathetic system?

A

Parasympathetic: controls rest and digest and hemostatic
Sympathetic: In charge of the fight or flight response

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43
Q

Where does the parasympathetic vs sympathetic system originate?

A

Para: spinal cord and medulla
Sympathetic: Spinal cord, thoracic and lumber spine

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44
Q

How does the trajectory of the nerves para vs sympa?

A

Para are long neurons (slow pathways)

Symp are short neurons (fast pathways)

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45
Q

What are effects of para and sympa (cardio, lungs, muscles, glycogen, urinary?

A

Para: decrease heart rate, bronchial constrict, muscles relax, no effect on glycogen, increase urinary output

Sympa: Increase contraction and heart rate, bronchials releax, muscle contract, glycogen to glucose, decrease urinary output

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46
Q

What are the types of ach receptors, and where are they found?

A

Nictonic: Na-K+ ligated Nn (found in autonomic ganglia/adrenal medulla)

Nm (found in neuromuscular junction of muscle)

Muscarinic: G-coupled receptors (act through second messengers) there are 5 types (Smooth muscle, brain, exocrne, sweat glands)

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47
Q

What are the two types of alpha receptos, and their functions?

A

1) Alpha 1: increase smooth muscle contraction,pupil dilates, increase the intestinal and bladder sphincter
2) Alpha 2: Decrease sympathetic outflow, decrease insulin release, decrease lipolysis increase platelet aggregation

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48
Q

What are the Beta receptors and their functions?

A

Beta 1: Increase heart rate, contractility, and renin, and lipolysis
Beta 2: Vasodilation, bronchodilation, increase lipolysis, increase insulin release

Beta 3: Increase lipolysis, increase thermogenesis

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49
Q

What are the parasympathetic M receptors?

A

1) M1: CNS, enteric nervous system
2) M2: decrease heart rate, and contractility of the atria
3) M3: Increase exocrine gland secretion, increase gut peristalsis, increase bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction

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50
Q

What are the dopamine receptors?

A

1) D1: relaxes the renal vascular smooth muscle

2) D2: Modulates transmitter release in the brain

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51
Q

What are the histamine receptors?

A

1) H1: increase the nasal and bronchial mucus production

2) H2: increased gastric acid secretion

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52
Q

What are the receptors of vasopressin?

A

1) V1: increase smooth muscle contraction

2) V2: increased H2O permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules

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53
Q

How does botulism work (postsynaptic membrane)?

A

Blocks the release of the ACH from the presynaptic membrane

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54
Q

How does amphetamine and ephedrine work?

A

increase the NE

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55
Q

How does cocaine, TCA, and amphetamine work?

A

Decrease the reuptake of NE by the presynaptic membrande

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56
Q

How does ingestion of tyramine and MAO inhibitors cause hypertensive crisis?

A

Wine, cheese cause more tryamine, and diaplaces NE, releases more active presynaptic neurotransmittos, increase diffusion of neurotransmittors into the synaptic cleft, leads to increase stimulation, and HTN

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57
Q

Name 4 cholinomimetic agents, and their applications?

A

1) Bethanechol: Activates bowl and bladder (for postoperative ileus, and neurogenic urinary retention)
2) Carbachol (copy of acetylcholine: constrics the pupil, and relieves intraocular pressure in open angle glaucoma)
3) Methacoline: (stimulates muscarinic receptors) Challenge test for asthma
4) Pilocarpine contracts the ciliary muscle of the eye :stimulates the production of sweat, tears, and saliva (Sjogren)

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58
Q

What are the medications used to treat Alzehimers?

A

1) Donepezil
2) Galantamine
3) Rivastigmine

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59
Q

What is edrophonium used for?

A

1) Increase Ach
2) Diagnosis for mysanthia gravis
3) Mysanthia gravis now diagnosed by anti-acetycholine test

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60
Q

What is neostigmine used for?

A

1) Increased ACH
2) For neurogenic ileus and urinary retntion
3) For mysanthia gravis
4) For reversal of neuromuscular junction blockade/

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61
Q

What is physostigmine used for?

A

1) Increases ACH
2) used to fixed atropine overdose
3) Used when have anticholinergic toxicity (crosses blood, brain barrier)

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62
Q

What does pyridostigmine used for?

A

1) Increase ACH
2) Increases muscle strength
3) Used for mysanthia gravis

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63
Q

How are cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning treated?

A

1) Usually due to organophosphates ( components of insecticides)
2) Treat with atropine

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64
Q

What are signs of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning?

A

1) Diarrhea
2) Bronchospasm
3) Sweating
4) Salivation
5) Urination
6) Miosis

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65
Q

What is atropine, homatropine, tropicamide used for?

A

1) Eye

2) Produce mydriasis and cycloplegia

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66
Q

What is Benztropine used for?

A

1) Parkinsons disease

2) Acute dystonia

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67
Q

what are glycopyrrolate used for?

A

GI and resp
To reduce the airway secretions
Oral: drooling or peptic ulcer

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68
Q

What is hyoscyamine and dicyclomine used for?

A

GI

Antispasmodics for irritable bowel syndrome

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69
Q

What is ipratropium and tiotropium used for?

A

COPD and asthma

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70
Q

What is oxybutin, solifernacine, and tolterodine used for?

A

Bladderspasms
Urge of urinary incontinence
Overactive bladder

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71
Q

What is scopalamine used for?

A

1) CNS

2) Motion sickness

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72
Q

What are the actions of atropine?

A

1) Incease pupil dilations
2) Decrease secretions
3) Decrease gastric acid
4) Decrease motility

Sideeffecects:
Hot as a hare
Dry as a bone
Red as a beet 
Blind as a bat
Mad as a hatter
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73
Q

Actions and applications of Benztropine?

A

Parkinson disease

Acute dystonia

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74
Q

Actions of glycopyrrolate?

A

GI and respiratory
Reduce airway secretions
Drooling, peptic ulcer

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75
Q

Actions of Hyoscyamine and dicyclomine>

A

Anti-sposmodics for irritable bowel

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76
Q

Actions of Ipratropium and tiotropium?

A

Respiratory

COPD and asthma

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77
Q

Actions of oxybutynin and solifenacin?

A

Reduce bladder spasm and urge urinary continence

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78
Q

Actions of scopolamine?

A

Motion sickness

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79
Q

Receptors of albuterol and salmeterol?

A

B2 more then B1

Albuterol for acute asthma or COPD

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80
Q

What are the actions for dobutamine?

A

B1 more then B2
some alpha effects
Heart failure (inotropic more then chronotropic)

81
Q

Dopamine?

A

D1 and D2 equal (more the Beta or alpha)

82
Q

Action of epinephrine?

A
Beta more then alpha
Anaphylaxis
Asthma 
Open angle glaucoma 
More Beta effect then norephinenrine
83
Q

What is the action of fenoldopam?

A
D1
Post operative HTN and HTN crisis
Vasodilation 
Promotes Natriureses 
Can cause hypotension and tachycardia
84
Q

Action of isoproterenol?

A

B1 and B2 are the same
Used for electrophysiological evaluation of tachyarrythmias
Can make ischemia worst

85
Q

Action of midodrine?

A

Alpha 1 action
Autonomic insufficiency and postural hypotenion
Can exacerbate supine hypertension

86
Q

Action of norepinephrine?

A

Alpha 1 more then alpha 2 more then B1

Use in hypotension and septic shock

87
Q

Action of phenyephrine?

A

Alpha 1 more then alpha 2

Hypotension (vasocrontriction) occular pressure, rhinitis (decongestant)

88
Q

Mechanism of action of amphetamine ? And applications?

A

1) Indirect general agonist
2) Reuptake inhibitor
3) Release stored catecholamines
4) Narcoplepsy, obesity and ADHD

89
Q

Mechanism of Cocaine?

A

1) Indirect general agonist
2) Reuptake inhibitor
Causes vasoconstriction and local anesthesi
Do NOT give B blockers if cocaine intoxication is suspected can lead to extreme hypotension

90
Q

What is Ephedrine cause?

A

Indirect, general agonsist
Release stored catecholamins
Used for nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence and hypotension

91
Q

What are the differences between norepinephrine and isoproterenol?

A

Norepinephrine: Increase systolic and diastolic presssure as a result of alpha mediated vasocronstriction

Isoproterenol very little alpha effect
Can cause B2 vasodilation, with decrease in mean arterial pressure and increase in heart rate through B1 and reflex activity.

92
Q

Uses for clonidine and guanfacine?

A

Hypertensive emergency
ADHD, Tourette

Adverse effect: CNS depression, bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression, miosis

93
Q

Uses for alpha-methyldopa?

A

HTN in pregnancy
Direct commbs + hemolysis
SLE-like syndrome

94
Q

Action and use of penoxybenzamineÉ

A

Pheochromocytoma (to prevent catecholamine surge)
HTN crisis (orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia)
Alpha blocker

95
Q

Action and use of Phentolamine?

A

Give patients MAO inhibitors who eat tyramine containing foods.
Used for Orthostatic hypotension
Reflex tachycardia

96
Q

What are the alpha selective (-osin drugs)? Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin?

A

1) Urinary symptoms of BPH

2) Side effects can be hypotension, dizziness, headache

97
Q

What does the alpha 2 selective inhibitor do? (Mirtazapine)

A

Used to treat depression

Adverse effect include sedation, increase serum cholesterole, increase appetite

98
Q
What are the effects of B-blocker on Angina? 
effect on MI
SVT 
HTN
HF
Glaucoma
Variceal bleeding
A

Angina:
decrease heart rate
decrease contractility
decrease O2 consumption

Effect on MI:
Decrease mortality

Effect on SVT
Decrease AV conduction

99
Q

What are adverse effects of B blockers?

A

1) erectile dysfunction
2) Bradycarida, HF
3) CNS seizures, and sedation, dyslipidemia

100
Q

Which B-blockers are selective antagonists? B1 > B2 ?

A
Acebutolol 
Atenolol
Betaxolol
Esmolol 
Metoprolol
101
Q

Which are non-selective antagonists? B1=B2?

A

Nadolol
Pindolol
Propranolol
Timolol

102
Q

Which are non-selective alpha and beta antagonists?

A

Carvedilol

Labetalol

103
Q

What is the unique property of Nebivolol?

A

Combines cardiac-selective B1 adergenic with stimulation of B3 receptors

104
Q

What is the effect/ symptoms of tetrodoxotoxin?

A

Source: pufferfish
Action: potent toxin, voltage gated Na + channels
Symptoms: nausea, diarrhea,paresthesis, weakness, dizziness
Treatment: Supportive

105
Q

What are the effect/symptoms of Ciguatoxin?

A

1) Source is barracuda, snapper, moray eel
2) Opens Na+ channels causing depolarization
3) Symptoms are like cholinergic poisoning.
4) Primarily supportive

106
Q

what is sombroid poisoning?

A

1) Source is spoiled dark red meat (tuna, mahi-mahi, mackereal)
2) Bacterial histadine (decarboxylase converts histidie to histamine0
3) Frequently misdiagnosed as a fish allergy

107
Q

Acetominophen toxicity and treatment?

A

N-acetylcysteine

108
Q

Ace/organophosphate toxicity?

A

Atropine> pralidoxine

109
Q

Amphetamine toxicity?

A

NH4Cl (acidify the urine)

110
Q

Antimuscarinic, anticholinergic agent?

A

Physostigmine

control hyperthermia

111
Q

Arsenic poisoing?

A

Dimercaprol

Succiner

112
Q

Benzodiazepine poisoning?

A

Flumazenil

113
Q

B Blocker poisoning?

A

Saline, atropine, glucagon

114
Q

Carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

100% hyperbaric O2 chamber

115
Q

Copper poisoning?

A

Pencillamine, trientine

116
Q

Cyanide poisoning?

A

Nitirite and thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamine

117
Q

Gold poisoning?

A

Penicillamine, dimercaprol, succimer

118
Q

Heparine poisoning?

A

Protamine sulfate

119
Q

Iron poisoning?

A

Deferoxamine
Deferasirox
Deferiprone

120
Q

Lead poisoning?

A

EDTA
Dimercaprol
Succimer
Penicillamine

121
Q

Mercury poisioning?

A

Dimercaprol

Succimer

122
Q

Methanol, ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?

A

Fomepizole

Dialysis

123
Q

Methemoglobin poisoning?

A

Methylene blue

Vitamine C

124
Q

Opiods poisoning?

A

Naloxone

125
Q

Salicylates poisoning?

A

NaHCos (dialysis)

126
Q

Warfarin poisoning?

A
Vitamin K (delayed effect)
Can give FFP
127
Q

What drugs cause coronary vasospasm?

A

Cocaine
Sumatriptan
Ergot Alkaloids

128
Q

Drugs cause cutaneous flushing?

A
Vancomycin
Adenosine
Niacine
Ca+ channel blockers
Echinocandins
129
Q

Drugs causes dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Anthracyclins (doxorubicin) prevent with dexrazoxone

130
Q

Drugs causing Torsades de points?

A
Anti-arrythmics (class 1A and III)
Antibiotics (macrolides)
Anti-psychotics (haloperidol)
Anti-depressants (TCA)
Anti-emetics (ondansetron)
131
Q

Drugs causing adrenocrotical insufficiency?

A

Glucocorticoid withdrawl

132
Q

Causing hot flashes?

A

Tamoxifen

Clomphene

133
Q

Causing hyperglycemia?

A
Tacrolimus
Protease inhibitirs
Niacin
HCTX
Corticosteroids
134
Q

Causing hypothryoidism?

A

Lithium
Amiodarone
Sulfonamides

135
Q

Causing cholestatic hepatitis and jaunedice?

A

Erythromycin

136
Q

Causing diarrhea?

A

Acanorosate
Acarbose
Cholinesterase
Colchicine

137
Q

Causing hepatic necrosis?

A

Halothane
Amanita phalloides
Valporic acid
Acetaminophen

138
Q

Causing hepatitis?

A

Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyraszinamide
Statins

139
Q

Causing pancreatitis?

A
Didansine
Corticosteroids
Alcohol 
Valporic Acid 
Azithipine
Diuretics
140
Q

Causing esophagitis?

A

Tetracyclnes
Bisphosphonates
Potassium Chloride

141
Q

Causing pseudomembraneous colitis?

A

Clindamycin
Ampicillin
Cephalosporins

142
Q

Causing agranulocytosis?

A
Clozapine
Carbamazepine
Propylthiouricil 
Methimazole 
Colchicinine
Ganicyclovir
143
Q

Causing Aplastic anemia?

A
Carbamazepine
Methimazole
NSAIDS 
Benzene 
Chloramphenicol
144
Q

Cause direct coombs hemolytic anemia?

A

Methyldopa, penicillin

145
Q

Gray baby syndrome?

A

Chloramphenicol

146
Q

Hemolysis of G6PD?

A
Isoniazid
Sulfonamides
Dapsone
Primaquine
ASA
Nitrofurantoin
Ibuprofen
147
Q

Causes megaloblastic anemia?

A

Phenytoin
Methrotrexate
Sulfa drugs

148
Q

Causing Thrombocytopenia?

A

Heparine

149
Q

Thrombotic complications?

A

Oral contracpetives

Hormone replacement

150
Q

Changes in fat distribution?

A

Protease inhibitors

Glucocorticoids

151
Q

Causing gingival hyperplasia?

A

Phenytoin
Calcium channel blocker
Cyclosporine

152
Q

Causing hyperuricemia?

A
Pyrazamide
Thiazides
Furosamide
Niacin
Cyclosporine
153
Q

Causing myopathy?

A
Fibrates
Niacn
Cholcine
Hydroychloroquine
interferon alpha
penicillamine
statins
glucocorticoids
154
Q

Causing osteoporosis?

A

Corticosteroids

Heparine

155
Q

Causing photosenstivity?

A

Sulfonamides
Amiodarone
Tetracyclines
5-FU

156
Q

Causing Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A

Anti-epileptic syndrome
Allp[urional
Sulfa
Penicilleine

157
Q

Causing SLE like syndrome?

A
Sulfa
Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Phenytoin
Etanercept
158
Q

Causing teeth discoloration?

A

Tetracycline

159
Q

Causing tendonitis, tendon rupture, cartilage damage?

A

Fluoroquinolones

160
Q

Drugs (causing cinchonism? (flushed and sweaty skin, tinnitus, blurred vision, hearing imparied, confusion, hearing loss, headache, abdominal pain)

A

quinidine

161
Q

Parkinson like syndrome?

A

Antipsychotics
Reserpine
Metoclopramide

(Cogwheel of the arm)

162
Q

Seizures?

A
Isoniaizid
Bupropion
Imipenum 
Tramadol
enflurane
163
Q

Tardive dyskinesia?

A

Antipsychotics

Metoclopamide

164
Q

Drugs causing diabtetes insipidus?

A

Lithium

Demeclocycline

165
Q

Drugs causing Fanconi syndrome?

A

Tenofovir

Ifosfamide

166
Q

Drugs causing hemorraghic cysts?

A

Cyclophasphamide

ifosfamide

167
Q

Drugs causing interstitial nephritis?

A

Methicillin
NSAIDS
Furosemide

168
Q

Drugs causing SIADH?

A

Carbamazepine
Cyclophosphamide
SSRI

169
Q

Drugs causing dry cough?

A

ACE inhibitors

170
Q

Drugs causing pulmonary fibrosis?

A
Methotrexate
Nitrofurantoin
Carmystine
Bleomycin
Busilfan
Amiodarone
171
Q

Drugs causing antimuscarinic?

A

Atropine
TCA
H1 blockers
Antipsychotics

172
Q

Drugs causing disulfiram-like reactions?

A
Metronidazole
Cephalosporins
Griseofulvin
Procarbazine
Sulfonylurea
173
Q

Drugs causing nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?

A

Aminoglycosides
Vancomycin
Loop diuretics
Cisplatin

174
Q

Inhibitos of anti-epileptics?

A

ETOH

175
Q

Onhibitos of theophylline?

A

Ritonavir

176
Q

Inhibitors of warfarin?

A

Amiodarone

177
Q

Inhibitos of OCP?

A
Cimentidine
Cipro
Ketocanozole
Sulfamides
Isoniaziad
Grapefruit
Quinidine
Macrolides (Not azithromycin)
178
Q

Inducers of anti-epiletpics?

A

Chronic ETOH (acute ETOH inhibits it)

179
Q

Inducers of theophyylline?

A

St John’s Wart

180
Q

Inducers of warfarin?

A

Phenytoin

181
Q

Inducers of OCP?

A
Phenobarbital
Nevirapine
Rifampin
Griseoflulvin
Carbamazepine
182
Q

Name some sulfa drugs?

A
Sulfonamide antibiotics
Sulfasaoazine
Probenecid
Furoseamide
Acetazolamide
Celecoxib
Thiazides
Sulfonylureas
183
Q

What are side effects of sulfa drugs?

A
Fever
UTI
Stevens-Johnson
Hemolytic anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Agranulocytosis 
Urticaria
184
Q

Drugs ending with -azole?

A

Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor (ketoconazole)

185
Q

Drugs with bendazole?

A

Antiparasitic/antihelaminths

Mebendazole

186
Q

Drugs with cillin?

A

Peptidoglycans synthesis inhibitor ?

Ampicillin

187
Q

Durgs with cycline?

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor

Tetracycline

188
Q

Drugs with ivir?

A

Osetlamavir

Neuramindase

189
Q

Drugs with navir?

A

Protease inhibitor

Ritonavir

190
Q

Drugs ending in ovir?

A

Acyclovir

DNA polymerase inhibitor

191
Q

Drugs with thormycin?

A

Macrolide antibiotic

Azithromycine

192
Q

Drugs with ending azine?

A

Typical antipsychotic

193
Q

Drugs ending with barbital?

A

Barbituate

Phenobarbital

194
Q

Drugs with glitazone?

A

PPAR activator

Rosiglitazone

195
Q

Drugs with prazole?

A

Proton pump inhibitor

196
Q

Drugs with zumab?

A

Humanized monoclonal antibody

Daclizumab

197
Q

Drugs with zosin?

A

Alpha antagonist

Prazosin

198
Q

Drugs with zumab ending?

A

Humanized monoclonal antibodies

Daclizumab

199
Q

Drugs with ximab ending?

A

Chimeric monoclonal AB (Basiliximab)