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MS2 Unit 4 ER > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

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1
Q

Excess accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space is called ______

A

Edema

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2
Q

When cardiac end diastolic pressure increases, increasing capillary hydrostatic pressure it is called ____ _____ _____

A

Congestive Heart Failure

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3
Q

sodium is eliminated by (secretion/ decreased reabsorption)

A

decreased reabsorption

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4
Q

Elimination of excess water that is more dilute than plasma is known as ________

A

positive free water clearance (piss)

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5
Q

which can be secreted? (sodium/ potassium)

A

potassium

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6
Q

Acidosis will (increase/ decrease) potassium secretion

A

decrease

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7
Q

Name the Loop Diuretics (4)

A
  1. Furosemide
  2. Bumetanide
  3. Torsemide
  4. Ethacrynic acid
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8
Q

Loop diuretics inhibit Cl transport at the (Na-K-2Cl/ Na-Cl) transporter in the TAL

A

Na-K-2Cl

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9
Q

Thiazide diuretics inhibit Cl transport at the (Na-K-2Cl/ Na-Cl) transporter in the early distal tubule

A

Na-Cl

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10
Q

What are the two true thiazide diuretics? (2)

A
  1. chlorothiazide

2. hydrochlorothiazide

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11
Q

What are the thiazide-like diuretics? (4)

A
  1. Chlorthalidone
  2. Quinethazone
  3. Metolazone
  4. Indapamide
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12
Q

What are the Potassium sparing diuretics that block Na channels? (2)

A
  1. Amiloride
  2. Triamterene

Aldosterone independent
given with loop diuretics

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13
Q

What drug is the Potassium sparing diuretic that is an aldosterone receptor antagonist?

A

Spironolactone

Aldosterone Dependent

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14
Q

The osmotic diuretic is ______

A

Mannitol

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15
Q

What are the 3 classes of diuretics?

A
  1. Aquaretics
  2. Saluretics
  3. Osmotic
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16
Q

What are the 2 aquaretic ADH receptor antagonists?

A
  1. Conivaptan

2. Tolvaptan

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17
Q

What are the carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretics?

A
  1. Acetazolamide
  2. Methazolamide
  3. Dichlorphenamide
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18
Q

Which cause more hyponatremia (Thiazide/ Loop) diuretics

A

thiazide

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19
Q

Hypokalemia has a net effect of (increased/decreased) cardiac excitability

A

increases

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20
Q

What are the 7 steps of the cardiac cycle?

A
  1. atrial contraction
  2. isovolumetric contraction
  3. rapid ejection
  4. reduced ejection
  5. isovolumetric relaxation
  6. rapid filling
  7. reduced filling
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21
Q

S3 is a sign of ventricular (dilation/ hypertrophy)

A

dilation

sloshing during re-filling

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22
Q

S4 is a sign of ventricular (dilation/ hypertrophy)

A

hypertrophy

vibration of the ventricular wall during atrial contraction

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23
Q

A diet with too little potassium leads to (increased/ decreased) B.P.

A

increased

can’t excrete Na with too little K, leads to Na retention, hypertension

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24
Q

Loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics both cause (hyper/hypo) kalemia

A

hypokalemia

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25
Q

What are the ACE-inhibitors?
6 total
1 short acting
1 pro-drug

A
  1. Captopril - short acting
  2. Lisinopril
  3. Benazepril
  4. Quinapril
  5. Ramipril
  6. Enalapril - converted to Enalaprilat

All the PRIL’s

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26
Q

What are the Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers, ARBs? (3)

A
  1. Losartan
  2. Irbesartan
  3. Valsartan
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27
Q

Which causes cough (ARB/ACE-I)

A

ACE inhibitors

so just start with the ARB

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28
Q

The other aldosterone antagonist besides spironolactone that DOESN’T cause gynecomastia is _________

A

Eplerenone

less potent than spironolactone

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29
Q

What are the non-dihydropryridine Ca2+ channel blockers? (2)

A
  1. Diltiazem

2. Verapamil

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30
Q

What are the dihydropryridine Ca2+ channel blockers? (4)

A
  1. Nifedepine, 1st gen
  2. Amlodipine, 2nd gen
  3. Felodipine, 2nd
  4. Isradipine, 2nd
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31
Q

Which Ca2+ channel blockers cause reflex tachycardia? (dihydropryridines/ non-dihydropryridines)

A

dihydropryridines

associated with angina

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32
Q

Which Ca2+ channel blockers are (-) chronotropes, improving cardiac oxygenation? (dihydropryridines/ non-dihydropryridines)

A

non-dihydropryridine

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33
Q

Which B-blocker can be given IV? (Propranolol/ Metoprolol/ Atenolol/ Bispropolol/ Nadolol/ Esmolol)

A

Esmolol

34
Q

Which B-blocker is most prone to cause depression or bronchospasm? (Propranolol/ Metoprolol/ Atenolol/ Bispropolol/ Nadolol/ Esmolol)

A

Propranolol

35
Q

Which is the most commonly used central α2 agonist for HTN? (Clonidine/ α-methyl dopa/ Hydralazine/ Minoxidil)

A

Clonidine

36
Q

What is the direct vasodilators used for acute hypertensive emergency? (Clonidine/ α-methyl dopa/ Hydralazine/ Minoxidil)

A

Hydralazine

37
Q

What is used for refractory HTN and topically for hair loss? (Clonidine/ α-methyl dopa/ Hydralazine/ Minoxidil)

A

Minoxidil

38
Q

Which is a central α2 agonist for HTN that is safe in pregnancy? (Clonidine/ α-methyl dopa/ Hydralazine/ Minoxidil)

A

α-methyl dopa

39
Q

what are the (2) α1 blockers used to reduce vascular resistance by acting on sm. muscle

A
  1. terazosin

2. doxazosin

40
Q

Inhibits phosphodiesterase increasing cAMP for the treatment of asthma (Ipratropium/ Tiotropium/ Theophylline)

A

Theophylline

41
Q

Best asthma drug for people on beta blockers (Ipratropium/ Tiotropium/ Theophylline/ Cromolyn/ Nedocromil)

A
  1. Ipratropium
  2. Tiotropium
    M blockers
42
Q

Prevent degranulation of mast cells for treatment of asthma (Ipratropium/ Tiotropium/ Theophylline/ Cromolyn/ Nedocromil)

A

Cromolyn Nedocromil

43
Q

This is a monoclonal antibody, anti IgE for treatment of severe asthma _______

A

Omalizumab

44
Q

These are corticosteroids used to prevent the desensitization of B2 receptors for asthma treatment (3)

A
  1. Budesonide
  2. Fluticasone
  3. Beclomethasone
45
Q

Which is an LTD inhibitor for asthma? (Zileuton/ Zafinleukast/ Monteleukast/ Pranlukast)

A
  1. Zafinleukast
  2. Monteleukast
  3. Pranlukast
46
Q

Which is a Lipoxygenase inhibitor, prevents formation of leukotrienes for treatment of asthma? (Zileuton/ Zafinleukast/ Monteleukast/ Pranlukast)

A

Zileuton

47
Q

‘injury currents’ seen on EKG are due to a rise in level of the extracellular _________ ions due to increased membrane permeability and damage

A

potassium

48
Q

Anti-Anginal: blocks ADP activation of the GP IIb/IIIa receptor, anti-thrombotic for stents (Ticlopidine/ Clopidogrel/ Prasugrel/ Ticagrelor)

A

Clopidogrel

49
Q

Anti-Anginal: ADP receptor inhibitor, also decreases plasma fibrinogen and increases red cell deformability (Ticlopidine/ Clopidogrel/ Prasugrel/ Ticagrelor)

A

Ticlopidine

50
Q

Anti-Anginal: Irreversibly binds P2Y12 receptor to reduce thrombotic events esp. with coronary intervention (Ticlopidine/ Clopidogrel/ Prasugrel/ Ticagrelor)

A

Prasugrel

51
Q

Anti-Anginal: increased risk of serious/ fatal bleed events, for patients who failed with clopidogel (Ticlopidine/ Prasugrel/ Ticagrelor)

A

Prasugrel

52
Q

Anti-Anginal: reversibly blocks ADP receptors at site different from the ADP (Ticlopidine/ Clopidogrel/ Prasugrel/ Ticagrelor)

A

Ticagrelor

53
Q

Anti-platelet: inhibits PDE5, activates adenylate cyclase increasing platelet cAMP, causes vasodilation of coronary arteries (Cilostazol/ Dipyrimadole)

A

Dipyrimadole

54
Q

Anti-platelet: inhibits PDE, raises platelet cAMP, is a quinolone analog, treates peripheral vascular Dz (Cilostazol/ Dipyrimadole)

A

Cilostazol

55
Q

Angiotensin II causes (vasodilation/ vasoconstriction)

A

vasoconstriction

56
Q

Angiotensin II causes more vasoconstriction at the (afferent/ efferent) arteriole

A

efferent, increases glomerular pressure

57
Q

ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin leading to vasodilation and the side effect of ______

A

cough

58
Q

What are the nitrates used for angina?

A
  1. Isosorbide Dinitrate

2. Isosorbide Mononitrate

59
Q

What are the 3 Beta blockers indicated in CHF

A
  1. Bisprolo
  2. Carvedilol
  3. Metoprolol
60
Q

Positive Inotropes: This cardiac drug inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase, causing intracellular Ca2+ to rise, increasing contractility of the heart (Digoxin/ Dobutamine/ Milrinone)

A

Digoxin

61
Q

Positive Inotropes: Beta-1 receptor agonist, vasodilation at low dose, vasoconstriction at high dose (Digoxin/ Dobutamine/ Milrinone)

A

Dobutamine

62
Q

Positive Inotropes: PDE IIIa inhibitor, increase the heart’s contractility and decrease pulmonary vascular resistance (Digoxin/ Dobutamine/ Milrinone)

A

Milrinone

63
Q

Inhibits enterocyte absorption of cholesterol (Alirocumab/ Evolucumab/ Ezetimbe)

A

Ezetimbe

64
Q

Inhibit enteropeptidase ESK9 preventing LDL-R degradation (Alirocumab/ Evolucumab/ Ezetimbe)

A

Alirocumab and

Evolucumab

65
Q

Works well as a complementary therapy to statins (Alirocumab/ Evolucumab/ Ezetimbe)

A

Ezetimbe

66
Q

Which are the 3 newer statins with longer half lives? (Lovastatin/ Simvastatin/ Pravastatin/ Fluvastatin/ Atorvastatin/ Rosuvastatin/ Pitastatin)

A

Atorvastatin,
Rosuvastatin and,
Pitastatin

67
Q

A U-wave on EKG may be seen if the electrolyte ________ is low

A

potassium

68
Q

A transmural infarct typically has ST (elevation/ depression)

A

elevation

69
Q

Subendocardial ischemia typically has ST (elevation/ depression)

A

depression

70
Q

The two broad categories of cardiac arrhythmias are

A
  1. automaticity

2. conduction

71
Q

Anti-Arrhythmics: Class II are (Na channel block/ B-Block/ Phase 3 Prolong/ Ca2+ channel block)

A

Beta-Blockers

72
Q

Anti-Arrhythmicss: Class I are (Na channel block/ B-Block/ Phase 3 Prolong/ Ca2+ channel block)

A

Na+ channel blockers

73
Q

Anti-Arrhythmics: Class IV are (Na channel block/ B-Block/ Phase 3 Prolong/ Ca2+ channel block)

A

Ca2+ channel blockers

74
Q

Anti-Arrhythmics: Class III are (Na channel block/ B-Block/ Phase 3 Prolong/ Ca2+ channel block)

A

Prolong phase 3

75
Q

Quinidine
Procainamide
Disopyramide
Anti-Arrhythmics class (1A/ 1B/ 1C/ 2/ 3/ 4)

A

1A

Blocks open Na+ channels

76
Q

Mexiletine
Lidocaine
Anti-Arrhythmics class (1A/ 1B/ 1C/ 2/ 3/ 4)

A

1B

Blocks depolarized/ inactivated/ ischemic Na+ channel

77
Q

Flecainide
Propafenone
Morcizine
Anti-Arrhythmics class (1A/ 1B/ 1C/ 2/ 3/ 4)

A

1C
Prolong I na+ recovery, negative inotrope
can cause bradycardia

78
Q 
Sotalol
Amiodarone
Dofetilide
Ibutelide
Dronedarone
Anti-Arrhythmics class (1A/ 1B/ 1C/ 2/ 3/ 4)
A 
class 3
K+ channel blocker, prolong phase 3
79
Q 
Verapamil
Diltiazam
Nifedipine 
Amlodipine 
Anti-Arrhythmics class (1A/ 1B/ 1C/ 2/ 3/ 4)
A 
class 4 
Ca2+ channel blockers
80
Q

an abnormal accessory electrical conduction pathway between the atria and the ventricles is called __________

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

MS2 Unit 4 ER (3 decks)

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