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veterinary tech > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Reasons for not using drugs

A

Contraindications

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2
Q

What happens to drugs in the body

A

Pharmacokinetics

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3
Q

How drugs exert their effects

A

Pharmacodynamics

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4
Q

How adverse drug reactions manifest themselves

A

Toxicity

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5
Q

The traditional sources of drugs are

A

Plants and minerals

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6
Q

The active components of plants that are useful as drugs include:

A
  • alkaloids
  • glycosides
  • gums
  • resins
  • oils
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7
Q

Mineral sources of drugs include ______. Such as?

A

Electrolytes. (Sodium, potassium, and chloride) iron, selenium and others.

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8
Q

Pharmaco

A

Means drug or medicine

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9
Q

Pharmacology

A

Study of drugs

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10
Q

Therapy

A

Treatment of disease

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11
Q

Pharmacotherapy

A

Treatment of disease with medicines

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12
Q

Kinetics

A

Scientific study of motion

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13
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

Study of DRUG MOTION, includes absorption, blood levels, distribution, metabolism and exertion of drugs)

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14
Q

How drugs are selected

A

Pharmacotherapeutics

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15
Q

Drugs are selected by three methods. What are they?

A
  1. Diagnostic - involves assessment of p history, pe etc.
  2. Empirical - use or personal experience/ common sense
  3. Symptomatic - based on symptoms
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16
Q

Explain the regimen:

A

~route of administration
~total amount to be given (dosage)
~how often drug needs to be given (frequency)
~how long the drug will be given (duration)

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17
Q

Drug who’s legend statement reads: caution: federal law restricts the use of this drug to use by order of a vet

A

Prescription drug

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18
Q

Use of a drug in a way not specified by the label

A

Extra label use

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19
Q

Drugs that have the potential for abuse or dependency

A

Controlled substance

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20
Q

Is the complex sequence of events that occurs after a drug us administered to a patient.

A

Pharmacokinetics

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21
Q

Drugs given by injection are called what?

A

Parenteral

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22
Q

What are the primary factors that influence blood concentration levels of a drug and a patients response to it

A
  • rate of drug absorbed
  • amount of drug absorbed
  • distribution of drug throughout body
  • drug metabolism or biotransformation
  • rate and route of excretion
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23
Q

The degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches the general circulation is called

A

Bioavailability

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24
Q

What are the three common methods that drugs pass across cellular membranes (3 ways drugs are absorbed)

A
  1. Passive transport
  2. Active transport
  3. Pinocytosis
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25
Q

Reasons for using drugs

A

Indications

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26
Q

Process by which a drug is carried from its site of absorption to its site of action

A

Drug absorption

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27
Q

List some factors affecting absorption:

A 
Mechanism
PH and ionization state of drug 
Blood supply to area 
Solubility of drug
Dosage form 
Status of GI tract
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28
Q

Describe the sequence that occur from the time a drug is absorbed until it is eliminated from the body

A

Absorption > plasma > interstitial fluid > cellular distribution to tissues> back to the interstitial fluid > back to the plasma > absorption > metabolism > excretion

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29
Q

Another word for bio transformation is

A

Metabolism

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30
Q

Changing the drug chemically from administered form to form that the body can eliminate.

A

Biotransformation or metabolism

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31
Q

What are the 4 hepatic processes

A

Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Conjugation

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32
Q

Loss of electrons

A

Oxidation

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33
Q

Gain of electrons

A

Reduction

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34
Q

Splitting of drug molecule

A

Hydrolysis

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35
Q

Addition of glucuronic acid to improve drug solubility

A

Conjugation

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36
Q

What are some factors altering biotransformation or metabolism

A

Species, age, nutritional status, tissue storage, health status

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37
Q

The liver excretes drugs by incorporating them into _____ which is eliminated into the ____________

A

Bile

Small intestine

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38
Q

Acts as a sieve to filter drug molecules

A

Glomerular filtration (in renal corpuscle)

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39
Q

Reabsorption of the drug- taking the drug out of the filtrate and putting it back into circulation

A

Tubular secretion

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40
Q

Quantities of drugs remaining in then tissues when they are consumed

A

Residues

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41
Q

Study of the mechanism by which drugs produce physiological changes in the body ( enhance or depress physiologic activity)

A

Pharmacodynamics

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42
Q

The tendency of a drug to combine with a receptor is called

A

Affinity

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43
Q

The ____ of a drug represents the degree to which a drug produces it’s desired response in a patient.

A

Efficacy

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44
Q

A drug with a high level of affinity and efficacy causes a specific action and is called an

A

Agonist

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45
Q

A drug that blocks another drug from combining with a receptor is an

A

Antagonist

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46
Q

The relationship between a drugs ability to achieve the desired effect and it’s tendency to produce toxic effects.

A

Therapeutic index

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47
Q

An altered pharmacological response to a drug that is caused by the process of a second drug is called

A

Drug interaction

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48
Q

Drug interactions can be classified as

A

Pharmacokinetic
Pharmacodynamic
Pharmaceutic

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49
Q

A __________ interaction is one in which plasma or tissue levels of a drug are altered by the presence of another.

A

Pharmacokinetic.

Note: this alteration may be due to changes in absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of the other drug.

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50
Q

A _______ interaction is one in which the action or effect of one drug is altered by another.

A

Pharmacodynamic

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51
Q

A _________ interaction occurs when physical or chemical reactions take place as a result of mixing of drugs in a syringe or other container.

A

Pharmaceutic

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52
Q

Regulates development and approval of animal drugs and feed additives through CVM ( center for veterinary medicine)

A

FDA

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53
Q

Regulates development and approval of animal topical pesticides.

A

EPA

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54
Q

What does EPA stand for

A

Environmental protection agency

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55
Q

Regulates the development and approval of biologicals

A

USDA

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56
Q

What’s does USDA stand for

A

United States department of agriculture

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57
Q

Residue avoidance information and education.

A

FARAD

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58
Q

What does FARAD stand for

A

The food animal residue avoidance databank

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59
Q

The FDA’s __________ ensures that approved veterinary medicine will not harm animals

A

CVM (center for veterinary medicine)

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60
Q

What does AMDUCA stand for

A

Animal medicinal drug use clarification act

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61
Q

This legislation legalized extra label use of approved veterinary drugs

A

AMDUCA

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62
Q

Schedule __ drug; drugs with no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. These are the most dangerous drugs of all the drug schedules w/ potentially severe physiological dependence.

A

Schedule l

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63
Q

Schedule ___ drugs; drugs with a high potential for abuse, less as use potential that schedule 1, w/ potentially leading to severe physiological dependence. These drugs are also considered dangerous.

A

Schedule ll

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64
Q

Schedule ___ drugs; drugs with moderate to low potential for physiological dependence.

A

Schedule lll

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65
Q

Schedule ___ drugs; drugs with low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence.

A

Schedule lv (4)

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66
Q

Schedule ___ drugs; drugs with lower potential for abuse and consists of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. These drugs are generally used for antidiarrheal and analgesic purposes.

A

Schedule v (5)

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67
Q

A _____ tablet has indentions that have been made into its surface, allowing it to be broken into halves or quarters.

A

Scored

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68
Q

A ________ tablet may be cut into small sizes with the use of a pill cutter.

A

Unscored

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69
Q

_______ are containers that house medications. The contents may be in powder or liquid form.

A

Capsules

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70
Q

Liquid preparations for oral administration may be purchased in different forms. Name three

A
  1. Suspension
  2. Elixirs
  3. Emulsions
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71
Q

A ______ separated after long periods of shelf life and must be shaken well before use so that a uniform dose is provided.

A

Suspension

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72
Q

______ contains the drug and a flavoring in a concentrated solution of sugar water or other aqueous liquids.

A

Syrups

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73
Q

______ usually consist of a hydroalcoholic liquid that contains sweeteners, flavoring and a medicinal agent.

A

Elixirs

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74
Q

_________ consist of oily substances dispersed in an aqueous medium with an additive that stabilizes the mixture.

A

Emulsions

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75
Q

Hormones on hard sterile pallets

A

Implants

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76
Q

Two types or topical forms

A
  • liniments

- ointment

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77
Q

______ are medicinal preparations for use on the skin as a counter irritant or to relieve pain.

A

Liniments

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78
Q

An ______ is a semisolid preparation of oil and water, plus a medicinal agent.

A

Ointment

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79
Q

Drug form that stabilizes substances commonly considered unstable. Also may be used for drugs intended to be released slowly over a period of time (pro heart injection)

A

Microencapsulation

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80
Q

Name the five rights when administering a drug

A 
Right patient 
Right drug 
Right dose 
Right route
Right time and frequency
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81
Q

What are the three layers of the skin?

A
  1. Epidermis
  2. Dermis
  3. Hypodermis/ subcutaneous fat
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82
Q

Name three functions of the skin

A
  1. Provides barrier from environment
  2. Sensation of heat cold, pain, touch, pressure, & other sensations
  3. Aids in regulating body temperature.
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83
Q

What is the process whereby there is an excessive turnover rate of the cells (shedding of cells) resulting in excessive dandruff or scale

A

Desquamation

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84
Q

Increase scaling of the skin

A

Seborrhea

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85
Q

When a hair follicle becomes plugged with sebaceous secretions and keratin

A

Comedo (blackhead)

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86
Q

An agent that promotes loosening or separation of the horny layer of the epidermis.

A

Keratolytic

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87
Q

An agent that promotes normalization of the development of keratin

A

Keratoplastic

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88
Q

Any skin dz characterized by the presence or formation of pus

A

Pyoderma

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89
Q

Itching

A

Pruritus

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90
Q

Redness of the skin caused by congestion of the capillaries

A

Erythema

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91
Q

Name 5 Antiseborrheic drugs (keratolytics and keratoplastics)

A 
Sulfur 
Salicylic acid 
Coal tar
benzoyl peroxide 
Selenium sulfide
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92
Q

Used to treat seborrhea, has soothing effect and relieves itchiness. It is a keratolytic, keratoplastic, antipruitic, & antiseborrheic drug that comes in shampoos and ointments (May cause drying, itching or irritation)

A

Sulfur

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93
Q

Used to treat seborrheic disorders. Has some antipruritic, antibacterial, keratoplastic and keratolytic actions. (It is nonirritating and safe for cats)

A

Salicylic acid

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94
Q

Used in treating seborrhea oleosa. ( can be irritating, may stain light colors hair coats, it’s a keratolytic keratoplastic and you can NOT USE on cats)

A

Coal tar

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95
Q

Used in cases involving oily skin, pyodermas, generalized demodicosis, and schnauzer Comedo syndrome. It is a keratolytic keratoplastic has some anti microbial actions too. Follicular flushing and degreasing. (May stain and bleach fabric)

A

Benzoyl peroxide

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96
Q

Keratoplastic and keratolytic, degreasing oiliness, used to treat seborrheic disorders and malassezia. Anti fungal too. (Do NOT USE of cats, can discolor jewelry and stain hair coats)

A

Selenium sulfide.

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97
Q

These two topical medications mixed with water are used when giving baths or used topically as a compress.

A

Aluminum acetate

Magnesium sulfate

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98
Q

Name three bath oils that are used to manage s.sicca by normalizing the keratinization; dry skin and hair coat

A

Sodium lactate
Lanolin
Mineral oil

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99
Q

This is a noncorticosteroid, a topical antipruritic and antiinflammatory that is also known as burrows solution. It is also an astringent agent that treats superficial skin problems. Can help acute dermatitis.

A

Aluminum acetate

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100
Q

Name two nonsteroidal antipruritics. These topicals bring temp relief from itching.

A

Colloidal oatmeal

Pramoxine HCL

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101
Q

Name 4 topical corticosteroids that relief from itching, burning and inflammation. (Treatment of inflammation and pruritus associated with moist dermatitis (hot spots)

A

Hydrocortisone
Triamcinolone
Flucinolone
Betamethasone

102
Q

Name 6 antiseptics

A

Alcohols
Propylene glycol
Chlorhexidine (binds to keratin of skin)
Acetic acid (effect against superficial pseudomonas)
Iodine (req. contact time)
Benzalkonium chloride (anti fungal, antibacterial)

103
Q

What two antiseborrheic drugs are you not suppose to use on cats

A

Coal tar

Selenium sulfide

104
Q

Condition characterized by scaling and excess lipid production that forms brownish yellow clumps, which adhere to the hair and skin

A

Seborrhea oleosa

105
Q

Dry skin, & white to grey scales that do not adhere to the hair or skin.

A

Seborrhea sicca

106
Q

Two living organisms of different species living together.

A

Symbiosis

107
Q

What are the 5 types of symbiosis

A
  • predator
  • phoresis
  • mutualism
  • commensalism
  • parasitism
108
Q

Type of symbiosis. Means to hunt and capture

A

Predator. Prey.

109
Q

Type of symbiosis. Means to carry from one place to another.

A

Phoresis

110
Q

Type of symbiosis. Means both gain from each other.

A

Mutualism

111
Q

Type of symbiosis. Means one benefits but the other is not harmed

A

Commensalism

112
Q

Type is symbiosis. Means one lives at the expense of the other.

A

Parasitism

113
Q

Parasites living on the inside of an animals body are known as

A

Endoparasites

114
Q

Parasites living on the outside of an animals body are known as

A

Ectoparasites

115
Q

An animal with ectoparasites is said to be

A

Infested

116
Q

An animal with endoparasites is said to be

A

Infected

117
Q

Name some examples of endoparasites

A

Hooks round worms liver flukes heartworm

118
Q

Name some examples of ectoparasites

A

Fleas ticks mites

119
Q

Helminths are divided into what two major groups

A

Nematode

Platyhelminths

120
Q

_____ are cylindrical, nonsegmented worms commonly called roundworms. ( hooks)

A

Nematodes

121
Q

_____ are flattened worms that are subdivided into two groups:

          - Cestodes (tapeworms) 
          - Trematodes (flukes)
A

Platyhelminths

122
Q

__________ kill intestinal parasites

A

Antihelmintic

123
Q

Name the three antihelmintics

A

Antinematodals
Anticestodals
Antitrematodals

124
Q

_________ interfere with the worms energy level on a cellular basis. Work by interfering with energy metabolism of the worm.

A

Benzimidazoles (antinematodal)

125
Q

Name some dosage forms of benzimidazoles (antinematodal)

A

Oxibendazole
Fenbendazole
Albendazole

126
Q

________ consist of a group of insecticides that inactivate acetylcholinesterase. Without this enzyme, parasites are unable to move because these chemicals stop nerve transmission. Causes parasite to become paralyzed. Inhibit cholinesterase activity. Are neurotoxic to parasites.

A

Organophosphates

127
Q

Name some dosage forms of Organophosphates

A

Dichlorvos (task, atgard)

Coumaphos (baymix, dairy de wormer BX crumbles)

128
Q

_________ mimic the action of ACh and cause paralysis of the worm. Effective against ascarids, pinworms, strongyles, and hookworms.

A

Tetrahydropyrimidines

129
Q

Name some dosage forms of tetrahydropyrimidines

A

Pyrantel pamoate

Pyrantel tartrate

130
Q

_______ works by stimulating the Nematodes cholinergic nervous system, leading to paralysis of the parasite (therefore, not ovicidal) effective against ascarids, strongyles, whioworms, and hookworms

A

Imidazothiazoles

131
Q

Name a dosage form of imidazothiazoles

A

Febantel

Levamisole

132
Q

________ bind to certain chloride channels in the parasite nerve and muscle cell, causing paralysis and death of the parasite. Used for heartworm prevention.

A

Avermectins

133
Q

The representative of the the Avermectins group is _______

A

Ivermectin

134
Q

Name some dosage forms of ivermectin (Avermectins)

A

Heartgard

Heartgard plus

135
Q

_______ Works by increasing the cestodes cell membrane permeability (this disintegrates the worms outer tissue covering) works on all cestode species (also used to eliminate fleas)

A

Praziquantel/ Pyrantel pamoate/ febantel

136
Q

_____ caused disintegration of the cestode. Effective against Taenia and dipylidium but not Echinococcus

A

Epsiprantel

137
Q

Name a dosage form of epsiprantel

A

Cestex

138
Q

Which drug form that is listed under the benzimidazoles category is effective against Taenia species - tapeworm - and that is also considered an anticestodal

A

Fenbendazole

139
Q

_____ works by inhibiting the Trematodes enzyme systems for energy production. Effective against Fasciola hepatica

A

Clorsulon

140
Q

______ interferes with the energy metabolism of the worm. Also effective against some Nematodes.

A

Albendazole

141
Q

_______ is a protozoal infection that causes intestinal disorders

A

Coccidiosis

142
Q

Anticoccidial drugs are ________ (do not actually kill the parasite, so hygiene is crucial)

A

Coccidiostats

143
Q

Name me an antiprotozoal/coccidial drug. This drug reduces the number of oocysts shed, thus reducing spread of dz

A

Sulfadimethoxine

144
Q

Name me three antiprotozoal drugs that treat for giardia

A

Metronidazole
Albendazole
Fenbendazole

145
Q

Blood protozoan ________ is transmitted by ticks

A

Babesia sp.

146
Q

_____ has cholinergic effects on the protozoan. It is a tick prevention.

A

Imidocarb

147
Q

_______ is effective in treating dogs with Babesia gibsoni infections. When used in combination with ________, it can be used to treat cytauxzonosis in cats.

A

Atovaquone

Azithromycin

148
Q

In pertains to heartworm treatment; __________ is an aresenic compound administered by deep IM injection in the lumbar region (epaxial muscles). Side effect include nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxic it’s.

A

Melarsomine

149
Q

name me four heartworm preventatives. (Not the dosage forms)

A

Moxidectin
Ivermectin
Milbemycin
Selamectin

150
Q

Give me two dosage forms for Moxidectin

A

Pro heart

Advantage multi

151
Q

Give me a dosage form for ivermectin

A

Heartgard

152
Q

Give me a dosage form of milbemycin

A

Interceptor

Sentinel

153
Q

Give me a dosage for of Selamectin

A

Revolution

154
Q

______ is a topical solution that provides flea and tick control. The product collects in the oils of the skin and hair follicles. Kills newly emerged adult fleas and all stages of ticks.

A

Fipronil

155
Q

Give me a dosage form of fipronil

A

Frontline

156
Q

_______ is a topical solution that provides flea control and kills newly emerged adult fleas.

A

Imidacloprid

157
Q

Name a dosage form for imidacloprid

A

Advantage

158
Q

This is used in combination with imidacloprid and is used to treat ticks and fleas and to repel Mosquitos.

A

Permethrin

159
Q

Give me a dosage form of permethrin and imidacloprid together

A

K9 advantix

160
Q

______ is a monthly flea control administered orally. It’s absorbed into fatty tissue and slowly released into the bloodstream. This controls fleas by preventing the development of chitin, the substance that makes up the fleas exoskeleton.

A

Lufenuron

161
Q

Name two dosage forms of lufenuron

A

Program

Sentinel

162
Q

_____ can be used on cats 8 weeks or older. It is a topical spot on product that prevents flea infestation for up to 6 weeks. It attacks the fleas nervous system by blocking neuronal sodium channels, resulting in paralysis of and death of the flea.

A

Metaflumizone

163
Q

Name me a dosage form of metaflumizone

A

ProMeris

164
Q

____________ is a combination product that can be given to puppies 8 weeks or older for prevention of flea infestation for up to 6 weeks and tick infestation for 4. It disrupts the ticks normal nerve function, leading to reduced feeding and attachment, paralysis and death. It’s a topical product.

A

Metaflumizone/ Amitraz

165
Q

Give me a dosage form for metaflumizone/Amitraz

A

ProMeris Duo

166
Q

_______ is a topical solution that provides flea and tick control. Migration of this drug occurs on the skin surface. It controls fleas, deer ticks, and brown dog ticks for up to 4 weeks and American dog ticks for 3. (Do not use on cats)

A

Permethrin

167
Q

Give me a dosage form for permethrin

A

Defend ExSpot insecticide for dogs

168
Q

______ is a topical solution applied monthly that prevents flea infestation in dogs and cats. Kills adult fleas, prevents flea eggs from hatching, and is a HW preventative. Also treatment for ear mite Infestation in dogs and cats and treatment of hookworm and roundworm infections in cats.

A

Selamectin

169
Q

Name me a dosage form for Selamectin

A

Revolution.

170
Q

______ monthly tablet for prevention of flea infestation. Can be used in dogs 14 weeks or older.

A

Spinosad

171
Q

Name me a dosage for of spinosad

A

Comfortis

172
Q

Name me four categories of insecticides

A

Pyrethrins
Organophosphates
Formamidines
Nitenpyram

173
Q

What drug is both, ectoparasitic and endoparasitic

A

Organophosphates

174
Q

The nervous system functions in harmony with what other system?

A

The endocrine system

175
Q

What is the basic unit of the nervous system

A

Neuron

176
Q

What are the three functions of the nervous system

A
  1. Sensory
  2. Integrative (analysis)
  3. Motor (action)
177
Q

The nervous system exerts control over the _________ through the influence of the ______ on the _________

A

Endocrine system, hypothalamus (brain), pituitary gland

178
Q

The nervous system has two main divisions. What are they ?

A

The central nervous system (CNS)

The peripheral nervous system (PNS)

179
Q

The CNS is composed of the _____ and _____

A

Brain and spinal cord

180
Q

What serves as the control center of the entire nervous system? (All information must be processed here before actions are rendered

A

The central nervous system - CNS

181
Q

The nerve process that connects the CNS with the various glands, muscles and receptors in the body make up the _________

A

Peripheral nervous system PNS

182
Q

The peripheral nervous system is divided into what two portions

A

Afferent

Efferent

183
Q

_______ is composed of nerve cells that carry information from receptors in the periphery of the body to the CNS

A

Afferent

184
Q

_______ are nerve cells that carry impulses from the CNS to muscles and glands.

A

Efferent

185
Q

Carries impulses toward the CNS

A

Sensory (afferent)

186
Q

Carries impulses away from the CNS

A

Motor (efferent)

187
Q

The peripheral nervous system is subdivided into what two other systems

A

The autonomic nervous system

The somatic nervous system

188
Q

The ________ is made of ______ nerves that carry impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscle tissue.

A

The somatic nervous system

Efferent

189
Q

This system is under voluntary or conscious control. Has 1 neuron that carries impulses to target structure.

A

Somatic nervous system.

190
Q

The ______ consists of ______ nerve cells that carry information from the CNS to cardiac muscles, glands and smooth muscles.

A

Autonomic nervous system. ANS

Efferent

191
Q

This system is under involuntary or unconscious control (automatically) and has 2 neurons that carry impulses to target structures.

A

Autonomic nervous system.

192
Q

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) has two subdivisions. What are they?

A

Sympathetic nervous system

Parasympathetic nervous system

193
Q

Regulates energy expending activities

A

Sympathetic nervous system

194
Q

Regulates energy conversing activities. (Rest, conserve energy)

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

195
Q

What are the tree parts of the neuron

A

Cell body
Dendrite
Axon

196
Q

____ carry electric like messages away from the nerve cell.

A

Axons

197
Q

______ carry electric like messages toward the nerve cell

A

Dendrites

198
Q

This system controls unconscious body activities. It innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, salivary glands, and other viscera. It operates automatically and involuntary to control visceral functions such as GI motility, rate and force of heartbeat, secretions of glands and size of pupils.

A

Autonomic nervous system. ANS

199
Q

Cholinergic

A

Parasympathetic

200
Q

Adrenergic

A

Sympathetic

201
Q

_______ regulates energy expending activities (fight or flight)

A

Sympathetic (adrenergic)

202
Q

______ regulates energy conserving activities

A

Parasympathetic (cholinergic)

203
Q

An action or receptor that is activated by acetylcholine (slows down, inhibits action)

A

Cholinergic (parasympathetic)

204
Q

Describes an action or a receptor that is activated by epinephrine or norepinephrine

A

Adrenergic (sympathetic)

205
Q

________ are the brain chemicals that communicate info throughout our brain & body. They relay signals between nerve cells, called “neurons”. The brain uses this to tell your heart to beat, your lungs to breathe, and your stomach to digest.

A

Neurotransmitters

206
Q

What are the two kinds of Neurotransmitters

A

Inhibitory

Excitatory

207
Q

_________ Neurotransmitters are what stimulate the brain

A

Excitatory

208
Q

_______ Neurotransmitters are those that calm the brain and help create balance

A

Inhibitory

209
Q

Neurotransmitter substances include

A 
Acetylcholine 
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine 
Dopamine 
Serotonin 
GABA
210
Q

What are the inhibitory Neurotransmitters

A

Serotonin
GABA
Dopamine

211
Q

What are the excitatory Neurotransmitters

A 
Dopamine 
Norepinephrine 
Epinephrine 
**********************************
Acetylcholine 
Glutamate
212
Q

This is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. It does not stimulate the brain. Adequate amounts are necessary for a stable mood. It also regulates many other processes such as carbohydrate cravings, sleep cycle, pain control and appropriate digestion, and regulating body temp. Low levels of this are associated with decreased immune system function.

A

Serotonin.

213
Q

An inhibitory neurotransmitter. Contributes to motor control, vision, and many other cortical functions. It also regulates anxiety. When this neurotransmitter is out of range, it’s likely that an excitatory neurotransmitter is firing too often in the brain. So this will be sent out to attempt to balance the stimulating over firing.

A

GABA (gamma - aminobyturic acid)

214
Q

This is a special neurotransmitter that is considered to be both excitatory and inhibitory. It helps with depression as well as focus, it is involved in controlling movement and posture. It also modulates mood and plays a central role in positive reinforcement and dependency. When it is elevated or low, we can have focus issues. It’s also responsible for our motivation. Stimulants and caffeine cause this to be pushed into the synapse so that focus is improved.

A

Dopamine.

215
Q

This is an excitatory neurotransmitter. It is responsible for stimulatory process in the body. This can cause anxiety at elevated levels, low levels of this are associated with low energy, decreased focus ability and sleep cycle problems. Acts to regulate regular physiologic activity rather than being released in response to stress. It’s a neurotransmitter that’s important for attentiveness, emotions, sleeping, dreaming and learning.

A

Norepinephrine

216
Q

This is an excitatory neurotransmitter that is reflective of stress. Will often be elevated when ADHD like symptoms are present. Long term stress or insomnia can cause this levels to be low. It also regulates heart rate and blood pressure. It’s a catechu laminae hormone of the adrenal medulla that is the most potent stimulant of the SNS. Resulting in increase heart rate and force of contraction, vasoconstriction, relaxation of bronchioles and intestinal smooth muscle.

A

Epinephrine.

217
Q

Excitatory neurotransmitter that triggers muscle contraction and stimulates the excretion of certain hormones in the CNS. It’s involved in wakefulness, attentiveness, anger, aggression sexuality and thirst.

A

Acetylcholine.

218
Q

Major excitatory neurotransmitter that’s associated with learning and memory.

A

Glutamate

219
Q

The cell body of the first neuron arises in the CNS - __________ for the sympathetic nervous system and in the ________ for the parasympathetic nervous system.

A

Thoracolumbar cord

Craniosacral cord

220
Q

The most basic impulse conduction system through the nervous system is _______. Composed of receptor sensory a center for synapsids a motor neuron and an effective muscle.

A

Reflex arc

221
Q

Pertaining to the ANS- the axon of the first neuron leaves the _____ and travels to a ______, where it synapses with dendrites of the second neuron. The second neuron then travels to ______

A

CNS
ganglion
Target structure

222
Q

Nerve cell cluster or a group of nerve cell bodies located in the autonomic nervous system.

A

Ganglion

223
Q

Pertaining to the ANS - axons of the first neuron are called _____ and those of the second are called _______

A

Preganglionic

Postganglionic

224
Q

Pertaining to the ANS - Preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system are _____. And postganglionic are _____

A

Short

Long

225
Q

Pertaining to the ANS - Preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system are _____ and postganglionic are _______

A

Long

Short

226
Q

Pertaining to the SNS - T/F the preganglionic fibers end adjacent to the spinal cord

A

True

227
Q

The sympathetic NS release what two Neurotransmitters directly into the bloodstream

A

Epinephrine

Norepinephrine

228
Q

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system include

A 
Increase is HR & RR 
Decrease GI activity 
Pupil dilation 
Constricts blood vessels to smooth m 
Dilation of blood vessels to skeletal m 
Dilation of bronchioles 
Increase blood glucose levels
229
Q

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Decrease HR & RR
Increase in GI activity
Constriction of the pupils
Constriction of the bronchioles

230
Q

What are the receptors of the sympathetic nervous system

A 
Alpha 1 
Alpha 2 
Beta 1
Beta 2
Dopaminergic
231
Q

Alpha receptors are _______ and bets receptors are _______

A

Stimulatory

Inhibitory

232
Q

Which receptor pertains to smooth muscles of blood vessels. Constriction of arterioles to increase blood pressure. Increases force of heart contraction also.

A

Alpha 1

233
Q

Which receptor pertains to postganglionic nerve endings, inhibit action of norepinephrine release, decreases BP and constriction of skeletal muscle

A

Alpha 2

234
Q

This receptor pertains to the heart. It increases HR, and force of heart constriction

A

Beta 1

235
Q

This receptor pertains to smooth muscles of lung. Bronchodialation and vasodilation of skeletal. Relaxes GIT

A

Beta 2

236
Q

This receptor pertains to renal, mesenteric and cerebral. Dilation of coronary, renal and mesenteric blood vessels.

A

Dopaminergic

237
Q

What are the receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Nicotinic

Muscarinic

238
Q

A _________ is determined by the _____________ in the effector organ and drugs ______________ for the receptor

A

Drugs effect
Number of receptors
Specificity

239
Q

The primary Neurotransmitters for adrenergic (sympathetic) are

A

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
And dopamine

240
Q

The Neurotransmitter for cholinergic (parasympathetic) is

A

Acetylcholine

241
Q

Epinephrine equally stimulates ___ and ____ receptors and is therefore a potent stimulator of the heart and an equally powerful dilator of the bronchioles.

A

Alpha

Beta

242
Q

Acetylcholine combines with what two receptors

A

Nicotinic

Muscarinic

243
Q

Cholinergic sits are found where

A

In both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.

244
Q

Where are nicotinic receptors found

A

On all autonomic ganglia in the adrenal medulla.

At the neuromuscular junction of the somatic NS

245
Q

Where are muscarinic receptors found

A

At the synapse of postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system and at a few of the sympathetic postganglionic fibers.

246
Q

______________ are drugs that stimulate receptor sites mediated by acetylcholine. They mimic the action of acetylcholine (________) or by inhibiting its breakdown(________)

A

Cholinergic agents
Direct- acting
Indirect - acting

247
Q

Cholinergic agents are also called what

A

Parasympathomimetic

248
Q

Acetylcholine is broken down by

A

Acetylcholinesterase

249
Q

Name me three direct acting cholinergics

A

Bethanechol
Pilocarpine
Metoclopramide

250
Q

_______________ are drugs that block the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system.

A

Cholinergic blocking agents (anticholinergics)

251
Q

Name me four anticholinergic drugs

A

Atropine
Methscopolamine
Glycopyrrolate
Pralidoxime

veterinary tech (5 decks)

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