Pharmacology Flashcards
1
Q
Reasons for not using drugs
A
Contraindications
2
Q
What happens to drugs in the body
A
Pharmacokinetics
3
Q
How drugs exert their effects
A
Pharmacodynamics
4
Q
How adverse drug reactions manifest themselves
A
Toxicity
5
Q
The traditional sources of drugs are
A
Plants and minerals
6
Q
The active components of plants that are useful as drugs include:
A
- alkaloids
- glycosides
- gums
- resins
- oils
7
Q
Mineral sources of drugs include ______. Such as?
A
Electrolytes. (Sodium, potassium, and chloride) iron, selenium and others.
8
Q
Pharmaco
A
Means drug or medicine
9
Q
Pharmacology
A
Study of drugs
10
Q
Therapy
A
Treatment of disease
11
Q
Pharmacotherapy
A
Treatment of disease with medicines
12
Q
Kinetics
A
Scientific study of motion
13
Q
Pharmacokinetics
A
Study of DRUG MOTION, includes absorption, blood levels, distribution, metabolism and exertion of drugs)
14
Q
How drugs are selected
A
Pharmacotherapeutics
15
Q
Drugs are selected by three methods. What are they?
A
- Diagnostic - involves assessment of p history, pe etc.
- Empirical - use or personal experience/ common sense
- Symptomatic - based on symptoms
16
Q
Explain the regimen:
A
~route of administration
~total amount to be given (dosage)
~how often drug needs to be given (frequency)
~how long the drug will be given (duration)
17
Q
Drug who’s legend statement reads: caution: federal law restricts the use of this drug to use by order of a vet
A
Prescription drug
18
Q
Use of a drug in a way not specified by the label
A
Extra label use
19
Q
Drugs that have the potential for abuse or dependency
A
Controlled substance
20
Q
Is the complex sequence of events that occurs after a drug us administered to a patient.
A
Pharmacokinetics
21
Q
Drugs given by injection are called what?
A
Parenteral
22
Q
What are the primary factors that influence blood concentration levels of a drug and a patients response to it
A
- rate of drug absorbed
- amount of drug absorbed
- distribution of drug throughout body
- drug metabolism or biotransformation
- rate and route of excretion
23
Q
The degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches the general circulation is called
A
Bioavailability
24
Q
What are the three common methods that drugs pass across cellular membranes (3 ways drugs are absorbed)
A
- Passive transport
- Active transport
- Pinocytosis
25
Reasons for using drugs
Indications
26
Process by which a drug is carried from its site of absorption to its site of action
Drug absorption
27
List some factors affecting absorption:
```
Mechanism
PH and ionization state of drug
Blood supply to area
Solubility of drug
Dosage form
Status of GI tract
```
28
Describe the sequence that occur from the time a drug is absorbed until it is eliminated from the body
Absorption > plasma > interstitial fluid > cellular distribution to tissues> back to the interstitial fluid > back to the plasma > absorption > metabolism > excretion
29
Another word for bio transformation is
Metabolism
30
Changing the drug chemically from administered form to form that the body can eliminate.
Biotransformation or metabolism
31
What are the 4 hepatic processes
Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Conjugation
32
Loss of electrons
Oxidation
33
Gain of electrons
Reduction
34
Splitting of drug molecule
Hydrolysis
35
Addition of glucuronic acid to improve drug solubility
Conjugation
36
What are some factors altering biotransformation or metabolism
Species, age, nutritional status, tissue storage, health status
37
The liver excretes drugs by incorporating them into _____ which is eliminated into the ____________
Bile
| Small intestine
38
Acts as a sieve to filter drug molecules
Glomerular filtration (in renal corpuscle)
39
Reabsorption of the drug- taking the drug out of the filtrate and putting it back into circulation
Tubular secretion
40
Quantities of drugs remaining in then tissues when they are consumed
Residues
41
Study of the mechanism by which drugs produce physiological changes in the body ( enhance or depress physiologic activity)
Pharmacodynamics
42
The tendency of a drug to combine with a receptor is called
Affinity
43
The ____ of a drug represents the degree to which a drug produces it's desired response in a patient.
Efficacy
44
A drug with a high level of affinity and efficacy causes a specific action and is called an
Agonist
45
A drug that blocks another drug from combining with a receptor is an
Antagonist
46
The relationship between a drugs ability to achieve the desired effect and it's tendency to produce toxic effects.
Therapeutic index
47
An altered pharmacological response to a drug that is caused by the process of a second drug is called
Drug interaction
48
Drug interactions can be classified as
Pharmacokinetic
Pharmacodynamic
Pharmaceutic
49
A __________ interaction is one in which plasma or tissue levels of a drug are altered by the presence of another.
Pharmacokinetic.
| Note: this alteration may be due to changes in absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of the other drug.
50
A _______ interaction is one in which the action or effect of one drug is altered by another.
Pharmacodynamic
51
A _________ interaction occurs when physical or chemical reactions take place as a result of mixing of drugs in a syringe or other container.
Pharmaceutic
52
Regulates development and approval of animal drugs and feed additives through CVM ( center for veterinary medicine)
FDA
53
Regulates development and approval of animal topical pesticides.
EPA
54
What does EPA stand for
Environmental protection agency
55
Regulates the development and approval of biologicals
USDA
56
What's does USDA stand for
United States department of agriculture
57
Residue avoidance information and education.
FARAD
58
What does FARAD stand for
The food animal residue avoidance databank
59
The FDA's __________ ensures that approved veterinary medicine will not harm animals
CVM (center for veterinary medicine)
60
What does AMDUCA stand for
Animal medicinal drug use clarification act
61
This legislation legalized extra label use of approved veterinary drugs
AMDUCA
62
Schedule __ drug; drugs with no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. These are the most dangerous drugs of all the drug schedules w/ potentially severe physiological dependence.
Schedule l
63
Schedule ___ drugs; drugs with a high potential for abuse, less as use potential that schedule 1, w/ potentially leading to severe physiological dependence. These drugs are also considered dangerous.
Schedule ll
64
Schedule ___ drugs; drugs with moderate to low potential for physiological dependence.
Schedule lll
65
Schedule ___ drugs; drugs with low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence.
Schedule lv (4)
66
Schedule ___ drugs; drugs with lower potential for abuse and consists of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. These drugs are generally used for antidiarrheal and analgesic purposes.
Schedule v (5)
67
A _____ tablet has indentions that have been made into its surface, allowing it to be broken into halves or quarters.
Scored
68
A ________ tablet may be cut into small sizes with the use of a pill cutter.
Unscored
69
_______ are containers that house medications. The contents may be in powder or liquid form.
Capsules
70
Liquid preparations for oral administration may be purchased in different forms. Name three
1. Suspension
2. Elixirs
3. Emulsions
71
A ______ separated after long periods of shelf life and must be shaken well before use so that a uniform dose is provided.
Suspension
72
______ contains the drug and a flavoring in a concentrated solution of sugar water or other aqueous liquids.
Syrups
73
______ usually consist of a hydroalcoholic liquid that contains sweeteners, flavoring and a medicinal agent.
Elixirs
74
_________ consist of oily substances dispersed in an aqueous medium with an additive that stabilizes the mixture.
Emulsions
75
Hormones on hard sterile pallets
Implants
76
Two types or topical forms
- liniments
| - ointment
77
______ are medicinal preparations for use on the skin as a counter irritant or to relieve pain.
Liniments
78
An ______ is a semisolid preparation of oil and water, plus a medicinal agent.
Ointment
79
Drug form that stabilizes substances commonly considered unstable. Also may be used for drugs intended to be released slowly over a period of time (pro heart injection)
Microencapsulation
80
Name the five rights when administering a drug
```
Right patient
Right drug
Right dose
Right route
Right time and frequency
```
81
What are the three layers of the skin?
1. Epidermis
2. Dermis
3. Hypodermis/ subcutaneous fat
82
Name three functions of the skin
1. Provides barrier from environment
2. Sensation of heat cold, pain, touch, pressure, & other sensations
3. Aids in regulating body temperature.
83
What is the process whereby there is an excessive turnover rate of the cells (shedding of cells) resulting in excessive dandruff or scale
Desquamation
84
Increase scaling of the skin
Seborrhea
85
When a hair follicle becomes plugged with sebaceous secretions and keratin
Comedo (blackhead)
86
An agent that promotes loosening or separation of the horny layer of the epidermis.
Keratolytic
87
An agent that promotes normalization of the development of keratin
Keratoplastic
88
Any skin dz characterized by the presence or formation of pus
Pyoderma
89
Itching
Pruritus
90
Redness of the skin caused by congestion of the capillaries
Erythema
91
Name 5 Antiseborrheic drugs (keratolytics and keratoplastics)
```
Sulfur
Salicylic acid
Coal tar
benzoyl peroxide
Selenium sulfide
```
92
Used to treat seborrhea, has soothing effect and relieves itchiness. It is a keratolytic, keratoplastic, antipruitic, & antiseborrheic drug that comes in shampoos and ointments (May cause drying, itching or irritation)
Sulfur
93
Used to treat seborrheic disorders. Has some antipruritic, antibacterial, keratoplastic and keratolytic actions. (It is nonirritating and safe for cats)
Salicylic acid
94
Used in treating seborrhea oleosa. ( can be irritating, may stain light colors hair coats, it's a keratolytic keratoplastic and you can NOT USE on cats)
Coal tar
95
Used in cases involving oily skin, pyodermas, generalized demodicosis, and schnauzer Comedo syndrome. It is a keratolytic keratoplastic has some anti microbial actions too. Follicular flushing and degreasing. (May stain and bleach fabric)
Benzoyl peroxide
96
Keratoplastic and keratolytic, degreasing oiliness, used to treat seborrheic disorders and malassezia. Anti fungal too. (Do NOT USE of cats, can discolor jewelry and stain hair coats)
Selenium sulfide.
97
These two topical medications mixed with water are used when giving baths or used topically as a compress.
Aluminum acetate
| Magnesium sulfate
98
Name three bath oils that are used to manage s.sicca by normalizing the keratinization; dry skin and hair coat
Sodium lactate
Lanolin
Mineral oil
99
This is a noncorticosteroid, a topical antipruritic and antiinflammatory that is also known as burrows solution. It is also an astringent agent that treats superficial skin problems. Can help acute dermatitis.
Aluminum acetate
100
Name two nonsteroidal antipruritics. These topicals bring temp relief from itching.
Colloidal oatmeal
| Pramoxine HCL
101
Name 4 topical corticosteroids that relief from itching, burning and inflammation. (Treatment of inflammation and pruritus associated with moist dermatitis (hot spots)
Hydrocortisone
Triamcinolone
Flucinolone
Betamethasone
102
Name 6 antiseptics
Alcohols
Propylene glycol
Chlorhexidine (binds to keratin of skin)
Acetic acid (effect against superficial pseudomonas)
Iodine (req. contact time)
Benzalkonium chloride (anti fungal, antibacterial)
103
What two antiseborrheic drugs are you not suppose to use on cats
Coal tar
| Selenium sulfide
104
Condition characterized by scaling and excess lipid production that forms brownish yellow clumps, which adhere to the hair and skin
Seborrhea oleosa
105
Dry skin, & white to grey scales that do not adhere to the hair or skin.
Seborrhea sicca
106
Two living organisms of different species living together.
Symbiosis
107
What are the 5 types of symbiosis
- predator
- phoresis
- mutualism
- commensalism
- parasitism
108
Type of symbiosis. Means to hunt and capture
Predator. Prey.
109
Type of symbiosis. Means to carry from one place to another.
Phoresis
110
Type of symbiosis. Means both gain from each other.
Mutualism
111
Type of symbiosis. Means one benefits but the other is not harmed
Commensalism
112
Type is symbiosis. Means one lives at the expense of the other.
Parasitism
113
Parasites living on the inside of an animals body are known as
Endoparasites
114
Parasites living on the outside of an animals body are known as
Ectoparasites
115
An animal with ectoparasites is said to be
Infested
116
An animal with endoparasites is said to be
Infected
117
Name some examples of endoparasites
Hooks round worms liver flukes heartworm
118
Name some examples of ectoparasites
Fleas ticks mites
119
Helminths are divided into what two major groups
Nematode
| Platyhelminths
120
_____ are cylindrical, nonsegmented worms commonly called roundworms. ( hooks)
Nematodes
121
_____ are flattened worms that are subdivided into two groups:
- Cestodes (tapeworms)
- Trematodes (flukes)
Platyhelminths
122
__________ kill intestinal parasites
Antihelmintic
123
Name the three antihelmintics
Antinematodals
Anticestodals
Antitrematodals
124
_________ interfere with the worms energy level on a cellular basis. Work by interfering with energy metabolism of the worm.
Benzimidazoles (antinematodal)
125
Name some dosage forms of benzimidazoles (antinematodal)
Oxibendazole
Fenbendazole
Albendazole
126
________ consist of a group of insecticides that inactivate acetylcholinesterase. Without this enzyme, parasites are unable to move because these chemicals stop nerve transmission. Causes parasite to become paralyzed. Inhibit cholinesterase activity. Are neurotoxic to parasites.
Organophosphates
127
Name some dosage forms of Organophosphates
Dichlorvos (task, atgard)
| Coumaphos (baymix, dairy de wormer BX crumbles)
128
_________ mimic the action of ACh and cause paralysis of the worm. Effective against ascarids, pinworms, strongyles, and hookworms.
Tetrahydropyrimidines
129
Name some dosage forms of tetrahydropyrimidines
Pyrantel pamoate
| Pyrantel tartrate
130
_______ works by stimulating the Nematodes cholinergic nervous system, leading to paralysis of the parasite (therefore, not ovicidal) effective against ascarids, strongyles, whioworms, and hookworms
Imidazothiazoles
131
Name a dosage form of imidazothiazoles
Febantel
| Levamisole
132
________ bind to certain chloride channels in the parasite nerve and muscle cell, causing paralysis and death of the parasite. Used for heartworm prevention.
Avermectins
133
The representative of the the Avermectins group is _______
Ivermectin
134
Name some dosage forms of ivermectin (Avermectins)
Heartgard
| Heartgard plus
135
_______ Works by increasing the cestodes cell membrane permeability (this disintegrates the worms outer tissue covering) works on all cestode species (also used to eliminate fleas)
Praziquantel/ Pyrantel pamoate/ febantel
136
_____ caused disintegration of the cestode. Effective against Taenia and dipylidium but not Echinococcus
Epsiprantel
137
Name a dosage form of epsiprantel
Cestex
138
Which drug form that is listed under the benzimidazoles category is effective against Taenia species - tapeworm - and that is also considered an anticestodal
Fenbendazole
139
_____ works by inhibiting the Trematodes enzyme systems for energy production. Effective against Fasciola hepatica
Clorsulon
140
______ interferes with the energy metabolism of the worm. Also effective against some Nematodes.
Albendazole
141
_______ is a protozoal infection that causes intestinal disorders
Coccidiosis
142
Anticoccidial drugs are ________ (do not actually kill the parasite, so hygiene is crucial)
Coccidiostats
143
Name me an antiprotozoal/coccidial drug. This drug reduces the number of oocysts shed, thus reducing spread of dz
Sulfadimethoxine
144
Name me three antiprotozoal drugs that treat for giardia
Metronidazole
Albendazole
Fenbendazole
145
Blood protozoan ________ is transmitted by ticks
Babesia sp.
146
_____ has cholinergic effects on the protozoan. It is a tick prevention.
Imidocarb
147
_______ is effective in treating dogs with Babesia gibsoni infections. When used in combination with ________, it can be used to treat cytauxzonosis in cats.
Atovaquone
| Azithromycin
148
In pertains to heartworm treatment; __________ is an aresenic compound administered by deep IM injection in the lumbar region (epaxial muscles). Side effect include nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxic it's.
Melarsomine
149
name me four heartworm preventatives. (Not the dosage forms)
Moxidectin
Ivermectin
Milbemycin
Selamectin
150
Give me two dosage forms for Moxidectin
Pro heart
| Advantage multi
151
Give me a dosage form for ivermectin
Heartgard
152
Give me a dosage form of milbemycin
Interceptor
| Sentinel
153
Give me a dosage for of Selamectin
Revolution
154
______ is a topical solution that provides flea and tick control. The product collects in the oils of the skin and hair follicles. Kills newly emerged adult fleas and all stages of ticks.
Fipronil
155
Give me a dosage form of fipronil
Frontline
156
_______ is a topical solution that provides flea control and kills newly emerged adult fleas.
Imidacloprid
157
Name a dosage form for imidacloprid
Advantage
158
This is used in combination with imidacloprid and is used to treat ticks and fleas and to repel Mosquitos.
Permethrin
159
Give me a dosage form of permethrin and imidacloprid together
K9 advantix
160
______ is a monthly flea control administered orally. It's absorbed into fatty tissue and slowly released into the bloodstream. This controls fleas by preventing the development of chitin, the substance that makes up the fleas exoskeleton.
Lufenuron
161
Name two dosage forms of lufenuron
Program
| Sentinel
162
_____ can be used on cats 8 weeks or older. It is a topical spot on product that prevents flea infestation for up to 6 weeks. It attacks the fleas nervous system by blocking neuronal sodium channels, resulting in paralysis of and death of the flea.
Metaflumizone
163
Name me a dosage form of metaflumizone
ProMeris
164
____________ is a combination product that can be given to puppies 8 weeks or older for prevention of flea infestation for up to 6 weeks and tick infestation for 4. It disrupts the ticks normal nerve function, leading to reduced feeding and attachment, paralysis and death. It's a topical product.
Metaflumizone/ Amitraz
165
Give me a dosage form for metaflumizone/Amitraz
ProMeris Duo
166
_______ is a topical solution that provides flea and tick control. Migration of this drug occurs on the skin surface. It controls fleas, deer ticks, and brown dog ticks for up to 4 weeks and American dog ticks for 3. (Do not use on cats)
Permethrin
167
Give me a dosage form for permethrin
Defend ExSpot insecticide for dogs
168
______ is a topical solution applied monthly that prevents flea infestation in dogs and cats. Kills adult fleas, prevents flea eggs from hatching, and is a HW preventative. Also treatment for ear mite Infestation in dogs and cats and treatment of hookworm and roundworm infections in cats.
Selamectin
169
Name me a dosage form for Selamectin
Revolution.
170
______ monthly tablet for prevention of flea infestation. Can be used in dogs 14 weeks or older.
Spinosad
171
Name me a dosage for of spinosad
Comfortis
172
Name me four categories of insecticides
Pyrethrins
Organophosphates
Formamidines
Nitenpyram
173
What drug is both, ectoparasitic and endoparasitic
Organophosphates
174
The nervous system functions in harmony with what other system?
The endocrine system
175
What is the basic unit of the nervous system
Neuron
176
What are the three functions of the nervous system
1. Sensory
2. Integrative (analysis)
3. Motor (action)
177
The nervous system exerts control over the _________ through the influence of the ______ on the _________
Endocrine system, hypothalamus (brain), pituitary gland
178
The nervous system has two main divisions. What are they ?
The central nervous system (CNS)
| The peripheral nervous system (PNS)
179
The CNS is composed of the _____ and _____
Brain and spinal cord
180
What serves as the control center of the entire nervous system? (All information must be processed here before actions are rendered
The central nervous system - CNS
181
The nerve process that connects the CNS with the various glands, muscles and receptors in the body make up the _________
Peripheral nervous system PNS
182
The peripheral nervous system is divided into what two portions
Afferent
| Efferent
183
_______ is composed of nerve cells that carry information from receptors in the periphery of the body to the CNS
Afferent
184
_______ are nerve cells that carry impulses from the CNS to muscles and glands.
Efferent
185
Carries impulses toward the CNS
Sensory (afferent)
186
Carries impulses away from the CNS
Motor (efferent)
187
The peripheral nervous system is subdivided into what two other systems
The autonomic nervous system
| The somatic nervous system
188
The ________ is made of ______ nerves that carry impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscle tissue.
The somatic nervous system
| Efferent
189
This system is under voluntary or conscious control. Has 1 neuron that carries impulses to target structure.
Somatic nervous system.
190
The ______ consists of ______ nerve cells that carry information from the CNS to cardiac muscles, glands and smooth muscles.
Autonomic nervous system. ANS
| Efferent
191
This system is under involuntary or unconscious control (automatically) and has 2 neurons that carry impulses to target structures.
Autonomic nervous system.
192
The autonomic nervous system (ANS) has two subdivisions. What are they?
Sympathetic nervous system
| Parasympathetic nervous system
193
Regulates energy expending activities
Sympathetic nervous system
194
Regulates energy conversing activities. (Rest, conserve energy)
Parasympathetic nervous system
195
What are the tree parts of the neuron
Cell body
Dendrite
Axon
196
____ carry electric like messages away from the nerve cell.
Axons
197
______ carry electric like messages toward the nerve cell
Dendrites
198
This system controls unconscious body activities. It innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, salivary glands, and other viscera. It operates automatically and involuntary to control visceral functions such as GI motility, rate and force of heartbeat, secretions of glands and size of pupils.
Autonomic nervous system. ANS
199
Cholinergic
Parasympathetic
200
Adrenergic
Sympathetic
201
_______ regulates energy expending activities (fight or flight)
Sympathetic (adrenergic)
202
______ regulates energy conserving activities
Parasympathetic (cholinergic)
203
An action or receptor that is activated by acetylcholine (slows down, inhibits action)
Cholinergic (parasympathetic)
204
Describes an action or a receptor that is activated by epinephrine or norepinephrine
Adrenergic (sympathetic)
205
________ are the brain chemicals that communicate info throughout our brain & body. They relay signals between nerve cells, called "neurons". The brain uses this to tell your heart to beat, your lungs to breathe, and your stomach to digest.
Neurotransmitters
206
What are the two kinds of Neurotransmitters
Inhibitory
| Excitatory
207
_________ Neurotransmitters are what stimulate the brain
Excitatory
208
_______ Neurotransmitters are those that calm the brain and help create balance
Inhibitory
209
Neurotransmitter substances include
```
Acetylcholine
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Serotonin
GABA
```
210
What are the inhibitory Neurotransmitters
Serotonin
GABA
Dopamine
211
What are the excitatory Neurotransmitters
```
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
**********************************
Acetylcholine
Glutamate
```
212
This is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. It does not stimulate the brain. Adequate amounts are necessary for a stable mood. It also regulates many other processes such as carbohydrate cravings, sleep cycle, pain control and appropriate digestion, and regulating body temp. Low levels of this are associated with decreased immune system function.
Serotonin.
213
An inhibitory neurotransmitter. Contributes to motor control, vision, and many other cortical functions. It also regulates anxiety. When this neurotransmitter is out of range, it's likely that an excitatory neurotransmitter is firing too often in the brain. So this will be sent out to attempt to balance the stimulating over firing.
GABA (gamma - aminobyturic acid)
214
This is a special neurotransmitter that is considered to be both excitatory and inhibitory. It helps with depression as well as focus, it is involved in controlling movement and posture. It also modulates mood and plays a central role in positive reinforcement and dependency. When it is elevated or low, we can have focus issues. It's also responsible for our motivation. Stimulants and caffeine cause this to be pushed into the synapse so that focus is improved.
Dopamine.
215
This is an excitatory neurotransmitter. It is responsible for stimulatory process in the body. This can cause anxiety at elevated levels, low levels of this are associated with low energy, decreased focus ability and sleep cycle problems. Acts to regulate regular physiologic activity rather than being released in response to stress. It's a neurotransmitter that's important for attentiveness, emotions, sleeping, dreaming and learning.
Norepinephrine
216
This is an excitatory neurotransmitter that is reflective of stress. Will often be elevated when ADHD like symptoms are present. Long term stress or insomnia can cause this levels to be low. It also regulates heart rate and blood pressure. It's a catechu laminae hormone of the adrenal medulla that is the most potent stimulant of the SNS. Resulting in increase heart rate and force of contraction, vasoconstriction, relaxation of bronchioles and intestinal smooth muscle.
Epinephrine.
217
Excitatory neurotransmitter that triggers muscle contraction and stimulates the excretion of certain hormones in the CNS. It's involved in wakefulness, attentiveness, anger, aggression sexuality and thirst.
Acetylcholine.
218
Major excitatory neurotransmitter that's associated with learning and memory.
Glutamate
219
The cell body of the first neuron arises in the CNS - __________ for the sympathetic nervous system and in the ________ for the parasympathetic nervous system.
Thoracolumbar cord
| Craniosacral cord
220
The most basic impulse conduction system through the nervous system is _______. Composed of receptor sensory a center for synapsids a motor neuron and an effective muscle.
Reflex arc
221
Pertaining to the ANS- the axon of the first neuron leaves the _____ and travels to a ______, where it synapses with dendrites of the second neuron. The second neuron then travels to ______
CNS
ganglion
Target structure
222
Nerve cell cluster or a group of nerve cell bodies located in the autonomic nervous system.
Ganglion
223
Pertaining to the ANS - axons of the first neuron are called _____ and those of the second are called _______
Preganglionic
| Postganglionic
224
Pertaining to the ANS - Preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system are _____. And postganglionic are _____
Short
| Long
225
Pertaining to the ANS - Preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system are _____ and postganglionic are _______
Long
| Short
226
Pertaining to the SNS - T/F the preganglionic fibers end adjacent to the spinal cord
True
227
The sympathetic NS release what two Neurotransmitters directly into the bloodstream
Epinephrine
| Norepinephrine
228
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system include
```
Increase is HR & RR
Decrease GI activity
Pupil dilation
Constricts blood vessels to smooth m
Dilation of blood vessels to skeletal m
Dilation of bronchioles
Increase blood glucose levels
```
229
Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
Decrease HR & RR
Increase in GI activity
Constriction of the pupils
Constriction of the bronchioles
230
What are the receptors of the sympathetic nervous system
```
Alpha 1
Alpha 2
Beta 1
Beta 2
Dopaminergic
```
231
Alpha receptors are _______ and bets receptors are _______
Stimulatory
| Inhibitory
232
Which receptor pertains to smooth muscles of blood vessels. Constriction of arterioles to increase blood pressure. Increases force of heart contraction also.
Alpha 1
233
Which receptor pertains to postganglionic nerve endings, inhibit action of norepinephrine release, decreases BP and constriction of skeletal muscle
Alpha 2
234
This receptor pertains to the heart. It increases HR, and force of heart constriction
Beta 1
235
This receptor pertains to smooth muscles of lung. Bronchodialation and vasodilation of skeletal. Relaxes GIT
Beta 2
236
This receptor pertains to renal, mesenteric and cerebral. Dilation of coronary, renal and mesenteric blood vessels.
Dopaminergic
237
What are the receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system
Nicotinic
| Muscarinic
238
A _________ is determined by the _____________ in the effector organ and drugs ______________ for the receptor
Drugs effect
Number of receptors
Specificity
239
The primary Neurotransmitters for adrenergic (sympathetic) are
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
And dopamine
240
The Neurotransmitter for cholinergic (parasympathetic) is
Acetylcholine
241
Epinephrine equally stimulates ___ and ____ receptors and is therefore a potent stimulator of the heart and an equally powerful dilator of the bronchioles.
Alpha
| Beta
242
Acetylcholine combines with what two receptors
Nicotinic
| Muscarinic
243
Cholinergic sits are found where
In both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
244
Where are nicotinic receptors found
On all autonomic ganglia in the adrenal medulla.
| At the neuromuscular junction of the somatic NS
245
Where are muscarinic receptors found
At the synapse of postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system and at a few of the sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
246
______________ are drugs that stimulate receptor sites mediated by acetylcholine. They mimic the action of acetylcholine (________) or by inhibiting its breakdown(________)
Cholinergic agents
Direct- acting
Indirect - acting
247
Cholinergic agents are also called what
Parasympathomimetic
248
Acetylcholine is broken down by
Acetylcholinesterase
249
Name me three direct acting cholinergics
Bethanechol
Pilocarpine
Metoclopramide
250
_______________ are drugs that block the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Cholinergic blocking agents (anticholinergics)
251
Name me four anticholinergic drugs
Atropine
Methscopolamine
Glycopyrrolate
Pralidoxime
