Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Corticosteroids belong to what class of medications?

A

Interleukin 1 inhibitors

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2
Q

Which medications are calcineurin inhibitors?

2 items

A
  • tacro
  • cyclosporine
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3
Q

Which medications are antiproliferative agents?

2 items

A
  • azathioprine
  • mycophenolate mofetil
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4
Q

Which medications are mTOR inhibitors?

2 items

A
  • sirolimus
  • everolimus
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5
Q

Which medications are antibodies?

6 items

A
  • Atgam
  • thymoglobulin
  • basilixamab
  • rituximab
  • alemtuzumab
  • IVIG
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6
Q

Is ATG monoclonal or polyclonal?

A

polyclonal

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7
Q

What are the advantages of polyclonal induction agents?

2 items

A
  • stronger
  • can be used to treat rejection
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8
Q

What are disadvantages of polyclonal induction agents?

3 items

A
  • common acute side effects
  • higher infection (CMV) and malignancy rates
  • potential to develop antibodies
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9
Q

Is basiliximab monoclonal or polyclonal?

A

monoclonal

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10
Q

What are advantages of monoclonal induction agents?

* 2 items

A
  • no acute side effects
  • not associated with infection and malignancy
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11
Q

What are disadvantages of monoclonal induction agents?

2 items

A
  • weaker
  • cannot be used for rejection
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12
Q

Why would a polyclonal antibody (ATG) be used intraoperatively?

A

to reduce delayed graft function

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13
Q

Why would a polyclonal antibody (ATG) be used for induction?

A

to prevent acute rejection

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14
Q

Why would a polyclonal antibody (ATG) be used for rescue?

A

to treat rejection

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15
Q

What are polyclonal antibodies mechanism of action?

2 items

A
  • t-cell depletion
  • cytotoxic activities
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16
Q

What side effects (related to lab values) can be attributed to polyclonal antibodies?

2 items

A
  • leukopenia
  • thrombocytopenia
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17
Q

What is the mechanism of action for CNIs?

A

inhibition of t-cell activiation

This leads to reduced circulating t-cell activators.

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18
Q

The adverse effect of nephrotoxicity for cyclosporine and tacrolimus is…
1. worse for tacro
2. the same
3. worse for cyclosporine

A

2

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19
Q

The adverse effects of neurotoxicity for cyclosporine and tacrolimus is…
1. worse for tacro
2. the same
3. worse for cyclosporine

A

1

Side effects include tremors, HA, parasthesias, PRES

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20
Q

The adverse effects of hematological changes for cyclosporine and tacrolimus is…
1. worse for tacro
2. the same
3. worse for cyclosporine

A

2

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21
Q

CNIs can cause what hematological adverse effects?

3 items

A
  • HUS
  • Thrombocytopenic Purpura
  • Thrombocytopenia
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22
Q

The adverse effect of hyperlipidemia for cyclosporine and tacrolimus is…
1. worse for tacro
2. the same
3. worse for cyclosporine

A

3

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23
Q

The adverse effect of hyperglycemia for cyclosporine and tacrolimus is…
1. worse for tacro
2. the same
3. worse for cyclosporine

A

1

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24
Q

What is the most common side effect of CNIs?

A

HTN

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25
Q

What is the dermatological side effect of tacrolimus?

A

hair loss

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26
Q

What are the dermatological side effects of cyclosporine?

2 items

A
  • hair growth
    gingival hyperplasia
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27
Q

The gastrointestinal adverse effects for cyclosporine and tacrolimus are…
1. worse for tacro
2. the same
3. worse for cyclosporine

A

1

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28
Q

What GI adverse effects associated with cyclosporine?

5 items

A
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • anorexia
  • bloating
  • bad smell
29
Q

Drugs/foods that increase tacro/cyclosporine levels include…

7 items

A
  • antifungals (‘azole meds)
  • metoclopramide
  • grapefruit/pomegranate juice
  • simepravir
  • ‘mycin meds
  • diltizame, verapamil
  • amiodarone
30
Q

Drugs/foods that decrease tacro/cyclosporine levels include…

10 items

A
  • cholestyramine
  • kayexalate
  • ocreatide
  • probucol
  • Mg and Al antacids
  • rifampin
  • herbs
  • nafcillin
  • phenytoin
  • phenobarbitol
31
Q

mTOR inhibitors are structurally similar to what medication?

A

tacrolimus

32
Q

What is the mechanism of action for mTOR inhibitors?

A

inhibiting t-cell activation and proliferation

33
Q

When is sirolimus used?

3 items

A
  • adjunct to prevent chronic rejection
  • if intolerant of CNIs
  • used for steroid-free protocols
34
Q

When CNIs and sirolimus are used syngergistically, what does it allow for?
1. higher levels of CNIs and lower levels of sirolimus
2. lower levels of both CNIs and sirolimus
3. lower levels of CNIs and higher levels of siolimus

35
Q

What is the loading dose, maintenance dose, and target trough level for sirolimus?

A
  • 6-12 mg loading
  • 2-5 mg maintenance
  • trough level 6-12
36
Q

What 3 hematological lab results may be caused by sirolimus?

A
  • neutropenia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • leukopenia
37
Q

The incidence of anemia is increased when sirolimus is used with what other medication?
1. tacro
2. steroids
3. mycophenolate
4. phenytoin
5. phenobarbitol

38
Q

Sirolimus can cause which of the following?
1. hyperlipidemia and hypertriglyceridemia
2. hyperlipidemia and hypotriglyceridemia
3. hypolipidemia and hypertriglyceridemia
4. hypolipidemia and hypotriglyceridemia

39
Q

Sirolimus may cause what in relation to its inhibition of cell and muscle proliferation?

A

delayed wound healing

40
Q

How do nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea side effects compare between sirolimus and mycophenolate mofetil?
1. they are the same
2. worse in sirolimus
3. worse in mycophenolate mofetil

41
Q

What side effects of the mouth can be caused by sirolimus?

A

mouth ulcers

42
Q

What is the treatment for interstitial pneumonitis while on sirolimus?

A

discontinuation of drug

43
Q

How does sirolimus affect a UA?

A

causes proteinuria

44
Q

What are the 2 black box warnings for sirolimus?

A
  • hepatic artery thrombosis liver patients
  • bronchial anastomotic dehiscence lung transplant patients
45
Q

What is everolimus used for?

A

prevention of rejection in low-mod risk renal transpant recipients

46
Q

What 3 medications can everolimus be used with?

A
  • basiliximab
  • low dose cyclosporine
  • corticosteroids
47
Q

Everolimus is given at the same time as what other medication?

A

cyclosporine

48
Q

What is the dosing for everolimus?

A

0.75 mg PO BID

49
Q

What are the side effects of everolimus?

12 items

A
  • hypercholesterolemia
  • hypertriglyceridemia
  • leukopenia
  • anemia
  • mouth ulcers
  • acne
  • impaired wound healing
  • lymphocele
  • proteinuria
  • nephrotoxicity
  • graft thrombosis
  • rash

These are very similar to sirolimus

50
Q

When is azathioprine used?

A

for those who don’t tolerate mycophenolate

51
Q

What is the mechanism of action for azathioprine?

A

inhibits t-cell proliferation

52
Q

What is the dosing for azathioprine?

A

1-3 mg/kg/day

53
Q

What are the side effects of azathioprine?

9 items

A
  • leukopenia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • nausea/vomiting
  • macrocytic anemia
  • alopecia
  • pancreatitis
  • hepatotoxicity
  • malignancy
  • infection
54
Q

What drugs does azathioprine have an interaction with?

2 items

A
  • allopurinol
  • mycophenolate

Allopurinol: Switch to cellcept. Causes profound pancytopenia.
Mycophenolate: separate stopping and starting by 24 hours

55
Q

What is the mechanism of action of mycophenolate mofetil?

A

Inhibits T and B cell proliferation

56
Q

What delays mycophenolate absorption?

57
Q

What are the side effects of mycophenolate?

7 items

A
  • diarrhea
  • nausea/vomiting
  • anemia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • infections
  • CMV tissue invasion
  • malignancy
58
Q

What are the mycophenolate drug interactions?

6 items

A
  • ganciclovir, valgan…, acycl…
  • cyclosporine
  • sirolimus
  • aza
  • cholestyramine
  • aluminum/mag containing antacids
59
Q

Mycophenolate drug interactions ganciclovir, valganciclovir, acyclovir, and sirolimus may cause what?

A

increased risk of bone marrow suppression

60
Q

The drug interaction between mycophenolate and cyclosporine may cause what?

A

decreased level of MPA

61
Q

The drug interaction between mycophenolate and aza may cause what?

A

toxicity

24 hours between stopping one and starting another

62
Q

The drug interaction between mycophenolate and cholestyramine may cause what?

A

decrease in mycophenolate levels

63
Q

The drug interaction between mycophenolate and antacids may cause what?

A

decreased absorption

64
Q

What is plasmapheresis?

A

The removal of circulating antibodies.

Does not affect b cells.

65
Q

What is IVIG used for?

A

prevention and treatment of humoral rejection

66
Q

What is rituximab used for?

2 items

A
  • humoral rejection
  • PTLD
67
Q

What are the treatments for antibody mediated rejection?

6 items

A
  • plasmapheresis
  • IVIG
  • rituximab
  • antithymocyte globulin
  • cyclophosphamide
  • bortezomib
68
Q

What medications are used to prevent PCP?

* 4 items

A
  • sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprime
  • pentamidine inhalation
  • dapsone
  • atovaquone