Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

The leading cause of death in SOT recipients is due to…

A

infection

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2
Q

What are the 3 exogenous sources of infection post transplant?

A
  • the allograft itself
  • blood transfusions
  • environment (hospital, community)
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3
Q

Endogenous sources of post-transplant infection include…

A

reactivation of latent infections

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4
Q

What are the possible donor derived infections?

8 items

A
  • CMV
  • HIV
  • EBV
  • Fungal
  • Toxoplasma
  • Hepatitis
  • Syphilis
  • PPD (Tuberculosis)
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5
Q

What does a blood PCR test for?

A

active infection

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6
Q

What does a postive serum IgM result indicate?

A

a recent exposure, not active infection

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7
Q

What does a positive serum IgG result indicate?

A
  • A non-recent exposure
  • not an active infection
  • has antibody/immunity
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8
Q

What are the common bacterial pathogens post transplant?

4 items

A
  • staph
  • c. diff
  • salmonella
  • pseudomonas
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9
Q

What are the common viral pathogens post transplant?

5 items

A
  • Flu
  • Herpes
  • EBV
  • Varicella
  • CMV
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10
Q

What are the common fungal pathogens post transplant?

4 items

A
  • candida
  • aspergillus
  • PCP
  • histoplasma
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11
Q

What are the common parisitic pathogens post transplant?

2 items

A
  • toxoplasma
  • cryptosporidium
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12
Q

What 2 signs are the most reliable indicator of CNS infection?

A

unexplained fever + headache

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13
Q

CNS syndromes include…

4 items

A
  • acute meningitis
  • chronic/subacute meningitis
  • focal brain syndrome
  • progressive dementia
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14
Q

What are the 3 most common CNS pathogens?

A
  • listeria monocytogenes
  • cryptococcus neoformans
  • aspergillus fumigatus
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15
Q

What is the name of the serological testing for active viral infections?

A

PCR

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16
Q

CMV of the liver causes…

A

vanishing bile duct syndrome

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17
Q

CMV of the heart causes…

A

coronary artery vasculopathy

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18
Q

CMV of the lungs causes…

A

bronchiolitis obliterans

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19
Q

CMV of the kidney causes…

A

glomerulopathy

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20
Q

What is a superinfection?

A

a recipient is infected with a new exogenous strain

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21
Q

CMV risk is HIGH when the serology is…

A

Donor +
Recipient -

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22
Q

CMV risk is MODERATE when the serology is…

A
  • Donor +, Recipient -
  • Donor -, Recipient +
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23
Q

CMV risk is LOW when the serology is…

A

Donor -, Recipient -

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24
Q

CMV syndrome can include what signs/symptoms?

7 items

A
  • fever
  • fatigue
  • malaise
  • leukopenia
  • myalgia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • Elevated LFTs
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25
Q

What is the 1st choice preference for CMV prevention?

A

Valganciclovir

Other options include ganciclovir, acyclovir, valacyclovir

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26
Q

CMV preemptive therapy is given when for heart transplant patients? What is given?

A

During ATG for rejection, IV ganciclovir

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27
Q

What medication is given for CMV treatment?

A

IV ganciclovir followed by oral valgan

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28
Q

With what conditions would oral valgan not be given?

3 items

A
  • severe disease
  • GI disease
  • fluctuating renal function
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29
Q

What medication is given in place of ganciclovir for resistant organisms or for patients intolerant of gancivlovir?

A

Foscarnet

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30
Q

What is the incidence of EBV in transplant recipients on ATG therapy?

A

80%

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31
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of EBV?

6 items

A
  • Lymph node hyperplasia
  • splenomegaly
  • fever
  • pharyngitis
  • Abnormal LFTs
  • Atypical mononuclear leukocytes
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32
Q

When does PTLD most commonly occur?

A

Between 8-18 months post transplant

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33
Q

What are the risk factors for PTLD?

3 items

A
  • Primary EBV infection
  • Preceding CMV infection
  • Immunosuppressants
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34
Q

What signs/symptoms could you see in PTLD?

10 items

A
  • mono-like syndrome
  • weight loss, anorexia
  • fever of unknown origin
  • abdominal pain
  • jaundice
  • GI bleeding
  • renal and hepatic dysfunction
  • pneumothorax/pulmonary infilitrates
  • CNS changes
  • allograft involvement
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35
Q

What is the way to confirm PTLD?

A

tissue biopsy

absence of adenopathy does not rule out PTLD

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36
Q

What is used to treat EBV?

A

acyclovir

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37
Q

What are the treatment options for PTLD: Early Malignant Polyclonal Polymorphic B-cell Lymphoma?

3 items

A
  • ganciclovir
  • Gammaglobulin Anti-B cell antibodies
  • decrease immunosuppression
38
Q

What are the treatment options for PTLD: Monoclonal Polymorphic B-cell Lymphoma?

A
  • chemo
  • radiation
  • resection
  • decrease immunosuppression
39
Q

What is the treatment for VZV?

A
  • Varicella zoster hyperimmunoglobulin within 72 hours of exposure
  • IV acyclovir for lesions crusted over
40
Q

What are 2 antibiotics used to treat C. Diff?

A
  • flagyl
  • oral vancomycin
41
Q

Where in the body does the bacterial infection, Nocardia, affect?

3 items

A
  • brain (CNS effects)
  • lungs (pneumonia)
  • skin (most common) (cellulitis)
42
Q

Where is Nocardia found in the environment?

3 items

A
  • soil
  • organic matter
  • water
43
Q

How is Nocardia diagnosed?

3 items

A
  • Alveolar infiltrate
  • cavitation on xray
  • sputum culture
44
Q

What is the treatment for Nocardia?

A

Sulfas (ceftriaxone)

45
Q

What is the incidence of HCV in SOT recipients?

46
Q

What is the incidence of HBV in SOT recipients?

47
Q

What 2 liver effects can HBV lead to?

A
  • carcinoma
  • cirrhosis
48
Q

What is the treatment for HBV?

A
  • HBV immune globulin
  • Entevavir, tenofovir, lamivudine, adefovir, interferon
49
Q

Hep B Core Ab + means what?

A

Exposure to the actual disease

50
Q

Hep B Surface Ab + means what?

A

you had the vaccination and are protected

51
Q

Hep B Surface Ag + means what?

A

the disease is active

52
Q

What is the treatment for HCV?

A
  • ribavin
  • ledipasvir (sofosbuvir)
53
Q

What are the 2 strains of polyomavirus that can cause disease in humans?

54
Q

What percent of adults worldwide test positive for serologic infection of polyomavirus?

55
Q

Childhood infections of BK/JC is caused in what ways?

2 items

A
  • via the respiratory tract
  • contaminated food/water
56
Q

Where does BK/JC tend to reside in the body?

4 items

A
  • kidney
  • ureter
  • brain
  • spleen
57
Q

BK/JC is a(n) ___ infection and may cause ___
a. latent, reactivation
b. super, antibiotic resistance
c. fungal, organ rejection
d. viral, jaundice

58
Q

What does BK virus typically cause?

4 items

A
  • uretral ulceration
  • ureteral stenosis
  • graft rejection/loss
  • tubulo-interstitial nephritis
59
Q

What body part does the JC virus typically affect?

60
Q

What increases the risk of contracting BK?

3 items

A
  • Recipient -, donor + organs
  • prolonged ischemia times
  • Use of tacro and MMF
61
Q

When does BK reactivation typically occur?

A

1st three months post transplant

62
Q

When does late BK reactivation typically occur

A

1-2 years post transplant

63
Q

JC clinic manifestations typically involve…

A

CNS changes

64
Q

JC virus typically results in what within 2-6 months of onset of symptoms?

65
Q

How is JC diagnosed?

2 items

A
  • tissue sample
  • JCV DNA in CSF
66
Q

What is the treatment for JC and BK?

A
  • no specific antiviral treatment
  • reduction in immunosuppression
67
Q

What fungus is typically found only in the eastern US?

A

histoplasmosis and
blastomycosis

68
Q

What fungus is typically found only in Arizona (west and southwest)

A

coccidioidmycosis

69
Q

What are the 3 most common opportunistic fungal infections?

A
  • candida
  • cryptococci
  • aspergillus
70
Q

How are fungal infections treated?

A
  • fluconazole
  • voriconazole
  • micafungin
  • amphotericin B
  • nystatin
71
Q

What are the 3 major parasitic infections?

A
  • cryptosporidium
  • strongyloidosis
  • toxoplasma gondii
72
Q

How is cryptosporidum transmitted?

A
  • fecal-oral
  • animal-person
  • contaminated water
73
Q

How is cryptosporidium treated?

A

spiramycin

74
Q

How is strongyloidosis transmitted?

A
  • larvae penetrates skin (contaminated soil, ingestion, fecal-oral route)
75
Q

What is the mortality rate of strongyloidosis?

A

80% (difficult to diagnose)

76
Q

How is strongyloidosis treated?

3 items

A
  • albendazole
  • ivermectin
  • antibacterial agents (for concomitant disease)
77
Q

Which parasitic infection is common to the heart and lungs?

A

toxoplasmosis

78
Q

How is toxoplasmosis diagnosed?

79
Q

What is the treatment for toxoplasmosis?

3 items

A
  • Pyrimethamine + folinic acid
  • Sulfadiazone + Pyrimethamine + folinic acid
  • Clindamycin + Pyrimethamine + folinic acid
80
Q

The presence of which organisms in a positive blood culture are unlikely to indicate to bacteremia?

3 items

A
  • cornybacterium
  • non-anthracis bacillus
  • propionibacterium acnes
81
Q

The presence of which organism in a blood culture should be assumed to indicate true bacteremia unless proven otherwise?

A

coagulase-negative staphylococci

82
Q

The presence of which organisms in a blood culture are likely to indicate true bacteremia?

5 items

A
  • staph aureus
  • staph pneumoniae
  • enterobacteriaceae
  • p. aeruginos
  • c. albicans
83
Q

The disruption of which nerve causes heart or heart/lung recipients to be at greater risk for pneumonia?

84
Q

What viral pathogens are most concerning to heart or heart/lung recipients?

4 items

A
  • CMV
  • EBV
  • HSV 1 and 2
  • VZV
85
Q

What bacterial pathogens are most concerning to heart or heart/lung recipients?

4 items

A
  • listeria monocytogenes
  • nocardia asteroides
  • legionella pneumonphila
  • typical or atypical mycobacteria
86
Q

What is the likelihood of recurrence of Hep B without treatment for liver recipients?

A

60-90% within 5 years

87
Q

What is the likelihood of recurrence of Hep C without treatment for liver recipients?

A

100% within 2 years

88
Q

What is given to prevent recurrent Hep B in liver recipients?

A

lamivudine

89
Q

What is bacterial translocation in intestinal recipients?

A

Movement of bacteria from GI tract to other parts of body?

90
Q

What is gven to prevent bacterial translocation in intestinal recipients?

4 items

A
  • tobramycin
  • colistimethate
  • amphotericin B
  • IV antibiotics
91
Q

What transplant patients have the highest rate of PTLD? Why?

A

intestine, high levels of immunosuppression required d/t large amounts of lymphoid tissue in graft

92
Q

What is the most common site of CMV infection for heart transplant patients?