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Semester 3 > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

0
Q

What is Azathioprine and what is it used for?

A

An immunosuppressant used in IBD

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1
Q

What are the 5 mechanisms of drug resistance?

A 
Drug inactivators (b lactam -> penicilloic acid)
Decreased accumulation (pumped back out)
Altered binding site
Alternative pathways
Chromosomal mutation
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2
Q

Why should antacids not be taken with other oral drugs?

A

Decreased acidic environment leads to risk of malabsorption.

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3
Q

Name a PGE2 analogue

A

Misoprostol

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4
Q

What is sulcrafate and what is an example brand name?

A

Gel former at low pH (protects mucosa AND BUFFERS ACID) eg Gaviscon

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5
Q

What are the four types of malarial plasmodium and which is the nastiest?

A

Falciparum (most nasty), vivax/ovale and malariae

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6
Q

Which tetracycline antibiotic is used in mefloquine-resistant malaria?

A

Doxycycline

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7
Q

Which is the only liver schizonticide?

A

Primaquine

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8
Q

Which antimotility drug is the main one used for diarrhoea?

A

Loperamide

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9
Q

Which four areas of medications most commonly cause constipation?

A

Narcotics,
Diuretics
Anti epileptics
Antispasmodics

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10
Q

Name four diseases that often lead to constipation

A

MS, Parkinson’s, Stroke, Diabetes

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11
Q

In which organelle are the main drug-metabolising enzymes found?

A

Smooth ER

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12
Q

What are the two phases of drug metabolism? (With aim of increasing water solubility)

A

1 - Oxidation, Reduction, Hydrolysis (metabolites usually inactive, frequently undergo phase 2)
2 - Conjugation (metabolites almost always inactive -> excreted)

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13
Q

What is the treatment for C.diff?

A

Stop unnecessary ABs and start on Metronidazole or Vancomycin

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14
Q

Name the two PDIs used in Parkinson’s

A

Benserazide and Carbidopa

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15
Q

Name two general anaesthetics used for induction (rapid onset, short action, IV)

A

Thiopentone and propofol

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16
Q

Name two general anaesthetics used for maintenance (inhaled, slow onset)

A

Nitrous oxide, Isoflurane

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17
Q

How do NDMRs have their effect? And name one.

A

Non-depolarising Muscle Relaxants:
NMJ transmission by binding competitively at nACh-R
Tubocuraine

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18
Q

What effect does ketamine induce, and how does it do it?

A

Analgesia and paralysis with loss of consciousness, through NMDA-R antagonism.

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19
Q

What is a drug that decreases GABA function termed? And what effect do they have?

A

Benzodiazepine receptor inverse agonist = potent convulsants

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20
Q

Name the three subtypes of NSAIDs and give an example drug of each.

A

Salicylic acids (Aspirin), Propionic acids (Ibuprofen) and Acetic acids (Indometacin)

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21
Q

Which process normally leads to fever after bacterial infection, which NSAIDs can block?

A

Bacterial endotoxins usually increase PGE1 in the hypothalamus which increases temperature set-point.

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22
Q

Name 6 NSAIDs and identify which are the most COX-1 and COX-2 selective

A 
Piroxicam (COX-1)
Indometacin
Naproxen
Aspirin
Ibuprofen 
Rofecoxib (COX-2)
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23
Q

Name a NSAID and a 5HT antagonist used in migraine.

A

NSAID - Tolfenamic acid

5HT antagonist - sumatriptan

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24
Name an antimuscarinic used in NV.
Hyoscine
25
Name two antihistamines used in NV
Cyclizine and Promethazine
26
Name the NK1-R antagonist used as an adjunct in antiemetic treatment with chemo
Aprepitant
27
What is clavulanic acid?
A b-lactamase inhibitor given WITH antibiotics to overcome resistance (NOT an AB itself!)
28
How do 5HT agonists (triptans) help treat migraine?
Inhibit trigeminal nerve transmission and co strict vascular smooth muscle
29
What is the active metabolite of omeprazole?
Sulphenamide
30
What happens in aspirin overdose?
Salicylism (tinnitus, vertigo, vomiting) and resp and met acidosis
31
What is Reye's syndrome? Which drug is it associated with?
Encephalopathy and liver damage, under 12 years of age, associated with aspirin use
32
Name an anti-TNF used in Crohn's
Infliximab
33
What are the 3 categories of broad-spectrum antibiotics?
Tetracyclines, Carbapenems and Cephalosporins
35
What condition is Primaquine contraindicated with?
G6PD deficiency
36
Name 4 TCAs
Amitriptyline Lofepramine Clomipramine Imipramine
37
Name the main serotonin-NA reuptake inhibitor in antidepressants
Venlafaxine
38
Name two MAOIs
Phenelzine | Moclobemide
39
What enzyme do Proguanil and Pyrimethamine inhibit?
Plasmodium Dihydrofolate Reductase
40
Which drug is Proguanil combined with to make Malarone?
Atovaquone
41
What is the basic structure of a local anaesthetic?
Aromatic (lipid soluble) --- Ester/Amide --- Amine (water soluble)
42
Which is the most commonly used local anaesthetic?
Lidocaine
43
What are the 5 main side effects of opioids?
``` Respiratory depression Nausea and vomiting Cough suppression Miosis Constipation ```
44
Name the first and second line rapid acting blood schizonticides
Chloroquine and Mefloquine
45
Name 3 dopamine antagonists used in NV
Metoclopramide Droperidol Domperidone
46
What receptor do triptans act on? | And what condition is sumatriptan use to treat?
5HT antagonists | Migraine
47
What are the 3 main antifungals and what are they each used for?
Fluconazole and itraconazole (both triazoles) - candida | Amphotericin (polyene) - IV for systemic fungal infection
48
What is the suffix for all 5-ASA anti inflammatory drugs used in IBD? And which is the only one used in Crohn's as well as UC?
-salazine | Sulfasalazine
49
What are four drugs given as prophylaxis for migraine?
``` Propranolol (b-blocker) Topiramate Gabapentin (both antiepileptics) Pizotifen (5HT Antagonist) (Also TCAs) ```
50
Name 3 anti-virals used in HIV
Enfurvitide, Zidovudine and Indinavir
51
Name a CA inhibitor used in glaucoma and describe why it works?
Acetozolamide - decreases intraocular pressure by decreasing aqueous production by ciliary epithelium
52
The co administration of which drug with paracetamol can protect against the liver damage caused by its toxic metabolite?
Methionine
53
Name an adsorbant used in diarrhoea and the cases in which it would be used?
Kaolin, following colostomy/iliostomy or diverticular disease
54
Name 3 anti-motility opiates used in diarrhoea
Cophenotrope, Loperamide Codeine
55
Name 3 anti-muscarinics used in diarrhoea and how they work
Atropine, Propanthelone, Dicycloverine | Antispasmodics that block PNS action on myenteric and submucosal plexuses
56
What receptor does Ondansetron act on? Name 3 S/Es
5HT3 in the CTZ | Constipation, flushing, headache
57
Name 2 antihistamines used in nausea/vomiting
Cyclizine | Promethazine
58
What receptor does Hyoscine act upon?
Muscarinic
59
Name 3 non-phenothiazine neuroleptics
Haloperidol Flupenthixol Pimozide
60
Name 3 phenothiazine neuroleptics and the main S/Es of Group 1 and 2
Chlorpromazine - sedation Pipothiazine - antimuscarinic Fluphenozine
61
What are the S/E of D2 antagonist neuroleptics associated with the hypothalamus?
Pituitary hormone release alteration: Increased prolactin -> sexual dysfunction Increased cortisol -> Cushing's Decreased GH
62
Name the 2 atypical neuroleptics with the fewest S/Es
Risperidone and Sulpiride
63
Which enzyme do Imidazoles and Triazoles inhibit?
Lanosterol Demethylase
64
Name 3 triazole antifungals
Fluconazole, Itraconazole, Variconazole
65
How do polyenes work? Name 2
Generate membrane pores, | Amphotericin and Nystatin
66
What is the active metabolite of Carbamazepine?
Eslicarbazepine
67
Which anti-epileptic has the most S/Es?
Phenytoin
68
Name the NMDA antagonist antiepileptic
Topiramate
69
Name a GABA antagonist that will cause convulsions
Picrotoxin
70
Name 4 drugs for tonic-clonic epilepsy and 3 add-on drugs
Sodium Valproate, Lamotrigine, Carbamazepine, Clonazepam | Add-on: Gabapentin, Pregabalin, Vigabatrin
71
Name 2 anti virals used against Influenza
Amantadine, Oseltamivir
72
Which DNA bases are each of the nucleic acid inhibitor anti virals analogues for?
Acyclovir - guanosine | Zidovudine - thymidine
73
What are the S/Es of zidovudine?
Anaemia, bone marrow suppression and liver toxicity
74
What are the S/Es of amantadine?
CNS dopaminergic - nervousness, anxiety, insomnia
75
What are the S/Es of indinavir?
Kidney stones, hyperlipidaemia
76
Name 2 antimuscarinics used as adjunct for tremor and rigidity in Parkinson's
Benzhexol and Procyclidine
77
Name 2 selective and 1 non-selective DA agonist used in Parkinson's
Bromocriptine and Lysuride | Apomorphine
78
Name 3 osmotics and 2 softeners used in constipation
Osmotics - Lactulose, Macrogols, Mg salts | Softeners - Docusate, Arachis oil
79
Name 2 bowel cleansers used before surgery and radiology
Sodium acid phosphate | Sodium picosulphate
80
Name 3 stimulants used in constipation and the S/Es
Bisacodyl, Dantron, Senna | S/E- cramp, diarrhoea, tolerance
81
Outline the 3 categories of anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs and name 2 drugs in each.
Barbiturates - phenobarbital, thiopental Benzodiazepines - diazepam, clonazepam Z drugs - zopiclone, zaleplom
82
Name 2 anxiolytic drugs given IV as anaesthetic pre-medication
Diazepam | Lorazepam
83
Name 2 rapid and 2 slow acting blood schizonticides
Rapid - Chloroquine, Mefloquine | Slow - Proguanil, Pyrimethamine
84
What is the name for pyrimathamine a) + dapson and b) + sulfadoxine?
+ dapson - Maloprim | + sulfadoxine - Fansidar
85
Name the three groups of Monoamine Reuptake Inhibitors used as antidepressants and name 2 drugs of each
SSRI - Fluoxetine, Citalopram Serotonin-NA RI - Venlafaxine, Duloxetine TCA - Amitryptaline, Imipramine
86
What is Agomelatine?
A melatonin-receptor agonist and 5HT2 antagonist used in depression
87
Name an antidepressant that acts as an autoreceptor antagonist
Mirtazapine
88
Name 2 Streptogramins
Quinupristin | Dalfopristin
89
Which enzyme do Sulphonamides inhibit? | And which does Trimethoprim inhibit?
Dihydropteroate Synthase | Dihydrofolate Reductase
90
What is the active metabolite of Azathioprine?
Mercaptopurine
91
Which opioid antagonist is given for acute opioid overdose?
Naloxone
92
Which type of patient must NOT be given PGE analogues?
Pregnant - spontaneous abortion

Semester 3 (6 decks)

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