Pharmacology Flashcards

0
Q

What is Azathioprine and what is it used for?

A

An immunosuppressant used in IBD

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1
Q

What are the 5 mechanisms of drug resistance?

A
Drug inactivators (b lactam -> penicilloic acid)
Decreased accumulation (pumped back out)
Altered binding site
Alternative pathways
Chromosomal mutation
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2
Q

Why should antacids not be taken with other oral drugs?

A

Decreased acidic environment leads to risk of malabsorption.

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3
Q

Name a PGE2 analogue

A

Misoprostol

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4
Q

What is sulcrafate and what is an example brand name?

A

Gel former at low pH (protects mucosa AND BUFFERS ACID) eg Gaviscon

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5
Q

What are the four types of malarial plasmodium and which is the nastiest?

A

Falciparum (most nasty), vivax/ovale and malariae

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6
Q

Which tetracycline antibiotic is used in mefloquine-resistant malaria?

A

Doxycycline

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7
Q

Which is the only liver schizonticide?

A

Primaquine

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8
Q

Which antimotility drug is the main one used for diarrhoea?

A

Loperamide

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9
Q

Which four areas of medications most commonly cause constipation?

A

Narcotics,
Diuretics
Anti epileptics
Antispasmodics

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10
Q

Name four diseases that often lead to constipation

A

MS, Parkinson’s, Stroke, Diabetes

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11
Q

In which organelle are the main drug-metabolising enzymes found?

A

Smooth ER

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12
Q

What are the two phases of drug metabolism? (With aim of increasing water solubility)

A

1 - Oxidation, Reduction, Hydrolysis (metabolites usually inactive, frequently undergo phase 2)
2 - Conjugation (metabolites almost always inactive -> excreted)

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13
Q

What is the treatment for C.diff?

A

Stop unnecessary ABs and start on Metronidazole or Vancomycin

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14
Q

Name the two PDIs used in Parkinson’s

A

Benserazide and Carbidopa

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15
Q

Name two general anaesthetics used for induction (rapid onset, short action, IV)

A

Thiopentone and propofol

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16
Q

Name two general anaesthetics used for maintenance (inhaled, slow onset)

A

Nitrous oxide, Isoflurane

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17
Q

How do NDMRs have their effect? And name one.

A

Non-depolarising Muscle Relaxants:
NMJ transmission by binding competitively at nACh-R
Tubocuraine

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18
Q

What effect does ketamine induce, and how does it do it?

A

Analgesia and paralysis with loss of consciousness, through NMDA-R antagonism.

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19
Q

What is a drug that decreases GABA function termed? And what effect do they have?

A

Benzodiazepine receptor inverse agonist = potent convulsants

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20
Q

Name the three subtypes of NSAIDs and give an example drug of each.

A

Salicylic acids (Aspirin), Propionic acids (Ibuprofen) and Acetic acids (Indometacin)

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21
Q

Which process normally leads to fever after bacterial infection, which NSAIDs can block?

A

Bacterial endotoxins usually increase PGE1 in the hypothalamus which increases temperature set-point.

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22
Q

Name 6 NSAIDs and identify which are the most COX-1 and COX-2 selective

A
Piroxicam (COX-1)
Indometacin
Naproxen
Aspirin
Ibuprofen 
Rofecoxib (COX-2)
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23
Q

Name a NSAID and a 5HT antagonist used in migraine.

A

NSAID - Tolfenamic acid

5HT antagonist - sumatriptan

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24
Q

Name an antimuscarinic used in NV.

A

Hyoscine

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25
Q

Name two antihistamines used in NV

A

Cyclizine and Promethazine

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26
Q

Name the NK1-R antagonist used as an adjunct in antiemetic treatment with chemo

A

Aprepitant

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27
Q

What is clavulanic acid?

A

A b-lactamase inhibitor given WITH antibiotics to overcome resistance (NOT an AB itself!)

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28
Q

How do 5HT agonists (triptans) help treat migraine?

A

Inhibit trigeminal nerve transmission and co strict vascular smooth muscle

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29
Q

What is the active metabolite of omeprazole?

A

Sulphenamide

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30
Q

What happens in aspirin overdose?

A

Salicylism (tinnitus, vertigo, vomiting) and resp and met acidosis

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31
Q

What is Reye’s syndrome? Which drug is it associated with?

A

Encephalopathy and liver damage, under 12 years of age, associated with aspirin use

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32
Q

Name an anti-TNF used in Crohn’s

A

Infliximab

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33
Q

What are the 3 categories of broad-spectrum antibiotics?

A

Tetracyclines, Carbapenems and Cephalosporins

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35
Q

What condition is Primaquine contraindicated with?

A

G6PD deficiency

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36
Q

Name 4 TCAs

A

Amitriptyline
Lofepramine
Clomipramine
Imipramine

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37
Q

Name the main serotonin-NA reuptake inhibitor in antidepressants

A

Venlafaxine

38
Q

Name two MAOIs

A

Phenelzine

Moclobemide

39
Q

What enzyme do Proguanil and Pyrimethamine inhibit?

A

Plasmodium Dihydrofolate Reductase

40
Q

Which drug is Proguanil combined with to make Malarone?

A

Atovaquone

41
Q

What is the basic structure of a local anaesthetic?

A

Aromatic (lipid soluble) — Ester/Amide — Amine (water soluble)

42
Q

Which is the most commonly used local anaesthetic?

43
Q

What are the 5 main side effects of opioids?

A
Respiratory depression
Nausea and vomiting
Cough suppression
Miosis
Constipation
44
Q

Name the first and second line rapid acting blood schizonticides

A

Chloroquine and Mefloquine

45
Q

Name 3 dopamine antagonists used in NV

A

Metoclopramide
Droperidol
Domperidone

46
Q

What receptor do triptans act on?

And what condition is sumatriptan use to treat?

A

5HT antagonists

Migraine

47
Q

What are the 3 main antifungals and what are they each used for?

A

Fluconazole and itraconazole (both triazoles) - candida

Amphotericin (polyene) - IV for systemic fungal infection

48
Q

What is the suffix for all 5-ASA anti inflammatory drugs used in IBD? And which is the only one used in Crohn’s as well as UC?

A

-salazine

Sulfasalazine

49
Q

What are four drugs given as prophylaxis for migraine?

A
Propranolol (b-blocker)
Topiramate
Gabapentin (both antiepileptics)
Pizotifen (5HT Antagonist)
(Also TCAs)
50
Q

Name 3 anti-virals used in HIV

A

Enfurvitide, Zidovudine and Indinavir

51
Q

Name a CA inhibitor used in glaucoma and describe why it works?

A

Acetozolamide - decreases intraocular pressure by decreasing aqueous production by ciliary epithelium

52
Q

The co administration of which drug with paracetamol can protect against the liver damage caused by its toxic metabolite?

A

Methionine

53
Q

Name an adsorbant used in diarrhoea and the cases in which it would be used?

A

Kaolin, following colostomy/iliostomy or diverticular disease

54
Q

Name 3 anti-motility opiates used in diarrhoea

A

Cophenotrope,
Loperamide
Codeine

55
Q

Name 3 anti-muscarinics used in diarrhoea and how they work

A

Atropine, Propanthelone, Dicycloverine

Antispasmodics that block PNS action on myenteric and submucosal plexuses

56
Q

What receptor does Ondansetron act on? Name 3 S/Es

A

5HT3 in the CTZ

Constipation, flushing, headache

57
Q

Name 2 antihistamines used in nausea/vomiting

A

Cyclizine

Promethazine

58
Q

What receptor does Hyoscine act upon?

A

Muscarinic

59
Q

Name 3 non-phenothiazine neuroleptics

A

Haloperidol
Flupenthixol
Pimozide

60
Q

Name 3 phenothiazine neuroleptics and the main S/Es of Group 1 and 2

A

Chlorpromazine - sedation
Pipothiazine - antimuscarinic
Fluphenozine

61
Q

What are the S/E of D2 antagonist neuroleptics associated with the hypothalamus?

A

Pituitary hormone release alteration:
Increased prolactin -> sexual dysfunction
Increased cortisol -> Cushing’s
Decreased GH

62
Q

Name the 2 atypical neuroleptics with the fewest S/Es

A

Risperidone and Sulpiride

63
Q

Which enzyme do Imidazoles and Triazoles inhibit?

A

Lanosterol Demethylase

64
Q

Name 3 triazole antifungals

A

Fluconazole, Itraconazole, Variconazole

65
Q

How do polyenes work? Name 2

A

Generate membrane pores,

Amphotericin and Nystatin

66
Q

What is the active metabolite of Carbamazepine?

A

Eslicarbazepine

67
Q

Which anti-epileptic has the most S/Es?

68
Q

Name the NMDA antagonist antiepileptic

A

Topiramate

69
Q

Name a GABA antagonist that will cause convulsions

A

Picrotoxin

70
Q

Name 4 drugs for tonic-clonic epilepsy and 3 add-on drugs

A

Sodium Valproate, Lamotrigine, Carbamazepine, Clonazepam

Add-on: Gabapentin, Pregabalin, Vigabatrin

71
Q

Name 2 anti virals used against Influenza

A

Amantadine, Oseltamivir

72
Q

Which DNA bases are each of the nucleic acid inhibitor anti virals analogues for?

A

Acyclovir - guanosine

Zidovudine - thymidine

73
Q

What are the S/Es of zidovudine?

A

Anaemia, bone marrow suppression and liver toxicity

74
Q

What are the S/Es of amantadine?

A

CNS dopaminergic - nervousness, anxiety, insomnia

75
Q

What are the S/Es of indinavir?

A

Kidney stones, hyperlipidaemia

76
Q

Name 2 antimuscarinics used as adjunct for tremor and rigidity in Parkinson’s

A

Benzhexol and Procyclidine

77
Q

Name 2 selective and 1 non-selective DA agonist used in Parkinson’s

A

Bromocriptine and Lysuride

Apomorphine

78
Q

Name 3 osmotics and 2 softeners used in constipation

A

Osmotics - Lactulose, Macrogols, Mg salts

Softeners - Docusate, Arachis oil

79
Q

Name 2 bowel cleansers used before surgery and radiology

A

Sodium acid phosphate

Sodium picosulphate

80
Q

Name 3 stimulants used in constipation and the S/Es

A

Bisacodyl, Dantron, Senna

S/E- cramp, diarrhoea, tolerance

81
Q

Outline the 3 categories of anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs and name 2 drugs in each.

A

Barbiturates - phenobarbital, thiopental
Benzodiazepines - diazepam, clonazepam
Z drugs - zopiclone, zaleplom

82
Q

Name 2 anxiolytic drugs given IV as anaesthetic pre-medication

A

Diazepam

Lorazepam

83
Q

Name 2 rapid and 2 slow acting blood schizonticides

A

Rapid - Chloroquine, Mefloquine

Slow - Proguanil, Pyrimethamine

84
Q

What is the name for pyrimathamine a) + dapson and b) + sulfadoxine?

A

+ dapson - Maloprim

+ sulfadoxine - Fansidar

85
Q

Name the three groups of Monoamine Reuptake Inhibitors used as antidepressants and name 2 drugs of each

A

SSRI - Fluoxetine, Citalopram
Serotonin-NA RI - Venlafaxine, Duloxetine
TCA - Amitryptaline, Imipramine

86
Q

What is Agomelatine?

A

A melatonin-receptor agonist and 5HT2 antagonist used in depression

87
Q

Name an antidepressant that acts as an autoreceptor antagonist

A

Mirtazapine

88
Q

Name 2 Streptogramins

A

Quinupristin

Dalfopristin

89
Q

Which enzyme do Sulphonamides inhibit?

And which does Trimethoprim inhibit?

A

Dihydropteroate Synthase

Dihydrofolate Reductase

90
Q

What is the active metabolite of Azathioprine?

A

Mercaptopurine

91
Q

Which opioid antagonist is given for acute opioid overdose?

92
Q

Which type of patient must NOT be given PGE analogues?

A

Pregnant - spontaneous abortion