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vtne > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Penicillins

A

Inhibits formation of petidoglycan cross-links of bacterial cell wall; bacteriacidal; beta lactams

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2
Q

Cephalosporins

A

Inhibits formation of petidoglycan cross-links of bacterial cell wall; bactericidal;

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3
Q

Gentamicin

A

Binds to 30s ribosomal subunit thereby; bactericidal; Nephrotoxic; Caution in animals with renal dz or hypovolemia; ototoxic

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4
Q

Enrofloxacin

A

Inhibits DNA gyrase necessary for bacterial DNA replication; bactericidal; Can damage cartilage in young animals

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5
Q

Tetracycline & Doxycycline

A

Binds to 30s ribosomal subunit thereby interfering with protein synthesis, bactericidal; Nephrotoxic Discoloration of teeth GI upset

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6
Q

Metronidazole

A

breakage in dna, bactericidal; can have neuro side effects, anorexia

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7
Q

Clostridium haemolyticum

A

Affects: cattle and sheep
Pedisposing factors: Damage to liver by the fluke Fasciola hepatica
Features and facts: Hemoglobinuria, icterus, anemia

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8
Q

Clostridium chauvoei

A

Affects: mainly sheep, also cattle
Predisposing Factors: Damage or bruising to muscles from transport, injections, rough handling
Features/ Facts: Crackling of swollen lesion when touched, rancid butter odor on postmortem

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9
Q

Clostridium septicum

A

Affects: Mainly sheep; cattle and goats
Predisposing Factors: Deep wounds such as bites, surgical sites, parturition injuries
Facts/Features: Open wound with swelling and without gas accumulation

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10
Q

Clostridium perfringens type D

A

Affects: sheep, cattle, goats
Predisposing Factors: Increased dietary intake
Facts/ Features: Associated with overeating. “Pulpy kidneys” due to rapid postmortem decomposition

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11
Q

Clostridium perfringens type C

A

Affects: Mainly cattle
Predisposing Factors: Increased dietary intake
Facts/ Features: “Purple gut” with sections of extremely reddened small bowel that is filled with hemorrhagic fluid

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12
Q

Clostridium novyi

type B

A

Affects: Mainly sheep; cattle
Predisposing Factors: Damage to liver by the Fluke Fasciola Hepatica
Facts/ Features: Large necrotic black lesions in liver

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13
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Affects: Mainly horsed and cattle; all animals
Predisposing Factors: Puncture wounds
Facts/ Features: General body stiffness; sensitivity ti noise, sound and movement

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14
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Affects: Uncommon in animals
Predisposing Factors: Ingestion of preformed toxin in feed
Facts/ Features: Ascending paralysis

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15
Q

Clostridium sordellii

A

Affects: mainly cattle
Predisposing Factors: Unknown
Facts/ Features: Sudden death syndrome

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16
Q

Ctenocephalides Felis or Canis

A

dog/ cat fleas

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17
Q

Xenopsylla Cheopis

A

Oriental rat flea; plague

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18
Q

Dipylidium Caninum

A

Tapeworms

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19
Q

Ixodes

A

Deer tick; transmits Borrelia Burgdorferi (lyme dz)

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20
Q

Dermacentor

A

American Dog tick; Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Rickettsia rickerrsii)

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21
Q

Rhipicephalus

A

Brown Dog tick; Ehrlichia spp

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22
Q

Otobius megnini

A

Ear Tick; most commonly in livestock; body is covered in spines

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23
Q

Demodex

A

Not pruritic; not contagious; located in hair follicle; treated with oral ivermectin or lyme sulfur dip

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24
Q

Scabies

A

Very Pruritic; can be zoonotic but species specific; superficial dweller- multiple scrapes; treated with selamectin, lime sulfur dip, or milbemycin.
Scarcoptes scabies- Canine
Notoedres Cati- feline

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25
Q

Cheyletiella

A

Very Pruritic; walking dandruff; superficial

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26
Q

Ear Mites

A

Very pruritic; mineral oil swab; treated with topical ivermectin; dark coffee ground look in ears
Otodectes Cynotis- Dog and cat

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27
Q

Lice

A

Pediculosis; pruritic; host specific; transmitted via direct contact; biting or sucking; seen with naked eye; 6 legs and wingless; treated with Fipronil or Selamectin.
Hematopinus- sucking cattle
Trichodectes Canis- Chewing
Linognathus- Sucking

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28
Q

Cyrstalloids

A

Isotonic with plasma; LRS, 0.9% Sodium Chloride, and Normosol-R; used for maintenance of normal hydration deficits. NEVER bolus a crystalloid that has an additive- especially KCL-> arrhythmias and death.

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29
Q

Maintenance rate

A

Dog: (KgxKgxKg)√√ x 132 ÷ 24= ml/hr

Cat: (KgxKgxKg)√√ x 70 ÷ 24= ml/hr

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30
Q

Anesthetic Rate

A

dog: 5 ml/kg/hour
cat: 3ml/kg/hr

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31
Q

Shock Dose

A

Dogs: 90 ml/kg
Cats: 45 ml/kg

Generally given in 1/4 boluses; Preferred Isotonic Crystalloids- LRS & Normosol- R

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32
Q

Dextrose Solutions

A

When Dextrose is added to a crystalloid; should not be given as maintenance fluid- will lead to dilution of electrolytes; SQ will cause tissue necrosis; solution is ideal for bacterial growth so aseptic technique must be used.

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33
Q

Synthetic Colloids

A

Hetastarch, Dextran 40, Dextran 70
Expands plasma volume, useful in resuscitative or replacement fluids; IV and IO only
Hetastarch: 20 ml/kg/day
Dextran: 2 ml/kg/ hr

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34
Q

Colloids

A

Albumin, fresh frozen plasma, whole blood
Expansion of interstitial space in event of a plasma volume deficiency from traumatic or septic shock & for replacement of lost blood volume.
IV, Can also be given IO

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35
Q

Signs of Dehydration

A

5%-6%: Dry or sticky mm
6%-8%: Above and mild/moderate decrease skin turgor, sunken eyes
10%-12%: Above and Dry mm, Weak&Rapid pulses, slow CRT, Mod/Marked mental depression

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36
Q

Signs of overhydration

A 
Serous nasal discharge
SubQ Edema
Increase Urine Output
Coughing/ Pulmonary edema
Increased RR
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37
Q

HYPERadrenocorticism: Cushing DZ

A

Excessive circulating cortisol (produced by adrenal glands) Most cases are pituitary dependent.
Pituitary secretes ACTH-> adrenal to produce cortisol.
Will see PU/PD, Potbelly, hairless, panting.
Horses will have abnormal long/wavy hair coat
Elevated AlkPhos, +/- Proteinuria, dilute urine, +/- UTIs.
ACTH Stem Test or Low Dose Dex test
TREATMENT: Vetoryl (trilostane)

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38
Q

Feline Hyperthyroidism

A

Increased secretion of Thyroid Hormone.
TEST: Serum Total T4 Level
SIGNS: weight loss w/ rav. appetite, Thyroid Nodule Slip, Hyperactivity, vomiting and increased vocalization, Tachycardia, Heart Murmur or Gallop, Thyrotoxic cardiomyopathy.
TREATMENT: oral/ transderm. meds (methimazole), SX- thyroidectomy, RADIOACTIVE IODINE

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39
Q

Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3)

A

Increase metabolic rate, O2 consumption, HR, Erthopoiesis, catecholamine response.

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40
Q

HYPOadrenocorticism: Addison’s DZ

A

Inability of the adrenal glands to produce cortisol

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41
Q

CAUSES of HYPOadrenocorticism

A

Autoimmune/idiopathic, granulomatous, distruction of the adrenal cortex, secondary to distrupt. of adren/pituit axis

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42
Q

HYPOadrenocorticism commonly affects

A

Standard Poodles, Port. Water dogs, Rotes, Westies

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43
Q

HYPOadrenocorticism Clinic signs

A

weakness, vomiting, diarrhea, finicky appetite, dehydration, bradycardia and low BP

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44
Q

HYPOadrenocorticism Labs

A

increased Potassium, low Sodium and Chloride, Hypoglycemia, Increased BUN & Creat.

45
Q

HYPOadrenocorticism Tests!

A

ACTH Stem Test

46
Q

HYPOadrenocorticism Treatment

A

Fluid Therapy and steroids

47
Q

CANINE HYPOTHYROIDISM

A

Insufficient levels of Thyroid, Common in older dogs
SIGNS: Weight Gain, Obesity, Lethargy, Alopecia, Heat Seaking, Muscle Weakness, Skin DZ
DIAGNOSIS: Serum T4 Levels
TREATMENT: Oral Levothyroxine (Synthyroid, Soloxine). T4 levels should be monitored after starting and during treatment.

48
Q

OPIODS

A 
mu agonists or partial mu agonists, reversed with naloxone
• Fentanyl
• Morphine
• Hydromorphone
• Buprenorphine
• Butorphanol
• Tramadol
49
Q

Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatories

A

all NSAIDS cause increased risk of GI ulceration and may have effects on the liver and kidneys, labwork should be monitored

50
Q

Ketamine

A

dissociative anesthetic, causes muscle rigidity (used with diazepam because of this)

51
Q

Tiletamine

A

dissociative anesthetic, part of Telazol (along with zolazepam)

52
Q

Valium

A

benzodiazepine (end in the suffix –pam), causes skeletal muscle relaxation and sedation by enhancing GABA

53
Q

Propofol

A

short acting hypnotic agent/injectable anesthetic, given slowly, may cause apnea and hypotension, white opaque in color

54
Q

Lidocaine/ Bupivacaine

A

local anesthetics

Lidocaine also given as anti-arrhythmic

55
Q

Dexmedatomadine

A

(Dexdomitor)- alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, reversed with atipamezole (Antesedan-an
alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist), should not be used in pets with cardiac disease or that are debilitated

56
Q

Xylazine

A

alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, reversed with yohimbine-an alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist)

57
Q

Acepromazine

A

phenothiazine tranquilizer, may lower seizure threshold (this is controversial but could be asked on boards)

58
Q

Apomorphine

A

used to cause vomiting (emetic), injectable or comes in a tablet which can be placed in the conjunctival sac in the eye, opioid

59
Q

Thiopental

A

short acting thiobarbiturate, not recommended for greyhounds or other sighthounds due to slow metabolism of this drug

60
Q

Furosemide ( Lasix)

A

Loop diuretic most often used in congestive heart failure

61
Q

Enalapril/Benazapril

A

ace-inhibitors (end in suffix –pril),
used in treating heart failure and hypertension,
sometimes used in chronic renal failure, causes vasodilation

62
Q

Pimobendan (Vetmedin)

A

inodilator, used in treating congestive heart failure

63
Q

Atropine

A

anticholinergic, used to increase heart rate; used in CPCR and also during anesthesia to treat bradycardia

64
Q

Fenbendazole (Panacur)

A

general anthelmentic, also commonly used to treat Giardia

65
Q

Sulfadimethoxine (Albon)

A

treats coccidia

66
Q

Pyrantel

A

used primarily for ascarids

67
Q

Emodepside and Praziquantel (Profender)

A

Topical dewormer for felines (Praziquantel is the treatment for tapeworms)

68
Q

Praziquantel, Pyrantel, and Febantel (Drontal plus)

A

dewormer for canine or feline

69
Q

Selamectin (Revolution)

A

topical parasite prevention (ear mite tx, flea control, hooks, rounds, heartworm prevention), treatment for Sarcoptes

70
Q

Ivermectin (Heartgard or injectable)

A

heartworm prevention, hooks, rounds, demodex treatment with injectable, contraindicated in Collie type breeds

71
Q

Milbemycin (Interceptor)

A

(dogs or cats) heartworm prevention, hooks, rounds, whips

72
Q

Famotidine (Pepcid AC)

A

H2 receptor blocker

73
Q

Carafate (Sucralfate)

A

gastroprotectant, also known as a “band-aid” for the GI tract, may impair absorption of some oral medications

74
Q

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

A

Upper GI pro-kinetic agent, may cause excitement or hyperactivity in cats, anti-emetic: prevents nausea by blocking dopamine in the chemo-receptor trigger zone (CRTZ)

75
Q

Maropitant (Cerenia)

A

anti-nausea/anti-vomiting agent

76
Q

Cisapride

A

pro-motility agent for upper and lower GI, used in cats with megacolon (not commercially available, must get compounded)

77
Q

Omeperazole (Prilosec)

A

proton pump inhibitor, used for treating and preventing GI ulcers

78
Q

Misoprostol

A

Misoprostol- prostaglandin E1 analog, used to prevent gastric ulceration

79
Q

Methocarbamol (Robaxin)

A

muscle relaxant

80
Q

Fluconazole/ketoconazole/itraconazole

A

anti-fungals, potentially hepatotoxic

81
Q

Trilostane (Vetoryl)

A

adrenal steroid synthesis inhibitor, used in treating hyperadrenocorticism

82
Q

Levothyroxine

A

thyroid hormone, treats hypothyroidism

83
Q

Methimazole (Tapazole)

A

inhibits synthesis of thyroid hormone, treatment for hyperthyroidism

84
Q

Epinephrine

A

alpha and beta- adrenergic agonist, used mostly in anaphylaxis and cardiac resuscitation

85
Q

Guafenisen

A

muscle relaxant/ oral expectorant used primarily in large animal anesthesia for the muscle relaxation

86
Q

Pentobarbital* (Beuthanasia, Fatal Plus, others)

A

barbiturate, mostly used for euthanasia in vet med

87
Q

Phenobarbital*

A

barbiturate, anti-seizure medication

88
Q

Mirtazapine

A

tetracyclic antidepressant/ 5-HT3 antagonist- used as appetite stimulant in dogs and cats

89
Q

Primary urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence

A

Also referred to as hormone (estrogen) responsive incontinence o Occurs most commonly in spayed female dogs

90
Q

Ectopic Ureter

A

Ureters bypass the bladder and open directly into the urethra, distal to the internal sphincter
Most commonly a continuous incontinence starting at a very young age

91
Q

Patent urachus

A

Urine dripping from the ventral abdomen from the time of birth

92
Q

Prostatic disease

A

The urethral sphincter is located within the prostatic urethra and can be affected with prostatic disease

93
Q

Vaginal anomalies

A

Examples include vaginal bands, vestibulovaginal constrictions, and rectal- or vaginalurethral fistulas

94
Q

Large Bladder Incontinence

A 
Lower Motor Neuron DZ
Upper Motor Neuron DZ
Brainstem DZ
Urethral Obstruction
Dyssynergia
Detrusor atony
95
Q

Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)

A

o α-adrenergic agonist
o Increases internal urethral sphincter tone
o A drug of choice for treatment of urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence o Side effects- hypertension, hyperactivity

96
Q

Ephedrine/pseudoephedrine

A

o Also α-adrenergic agonist

o Used as a substitute for PPA

97
Q

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

A

o Also used for treatment of urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence
o No longer commercially available due to potential side effects of bone marrow suppression, specifically
aplastic anemia

98
Q

Propantheline (Probanthine)

A

o Anticholinergic

o Reduces muscle contractions allowing better bladder filling o Used to treat dogs with urge incontinence

99
Q

Oxybutinin (Ditropan)

A

o Anticholinergic and antispasmodic

o Used to treat dogs with urge incontinence and occasionally cats with FLUTD

100
Q

Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)

A

o α-adrenergic antagonist
o Allows relaxation of internal urethral sphincter
o Used in cases of urethral outflow obstruction (upper motor neuron disease, urethritis)

101
Q

Bethanechol (Urecholine)

A

o Strong muscarinic agent that stimulates cholinergic receptors on detrusor
o Used to treat bladder atony
o Usually combined with phenoxybenzamine because it can increase urethrospasm due to weak nicotinic
effect

102
Q

What medication requires special handling because it can cause aplastic anemia in humans?

A

Chloramphenicol

103
Q

What is used to treat coccidia in cats and dogs?

A

Sulfadimethoxine (Albon)

104
Q

Tensilon test is used to diagnose?

A

Myasthenia gravis

105
Q

Which of the following is expected from a positive inotropic drug?

A

Increase in cardiac contractility

106
Q

what are Mirtazapine and Cyproheptadine commonly used for?

A

appetite stimulants

107
Q

What is Spironolactone used for?

A

It is a diuretic for her pet’s congestive

108
Q

Parenteral means

A

intravenous

109
Q

Which chemotherapy drug is contraindicated in cats?

A

Cisplatin cannot be used in cats as it causes pulmonary toxicity.

vtne (7 decks)

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