Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharma written final > pharma past 2 > Flashcards

pharma past 2 Flashcards

1
Q 
Which compound forms (as byprod.) in the demethylation reaction of dextrometorphan?
A. Trichloracetic acid
B. Ammonium acetate
C. Acetylacetone
D. Formaldehyde
A

D. Formaldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
What is the effect of bromhexine based on
A. Dissolve the mucus
B. Activate serous glands
C. All of them
D. Increase ciliary movement
A

C. All of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
From the listed drugs, which har pronounced post-antibiotic effect?
A. Doxycyline
B. Lincomycine
C. Marbofloxacin
D. Erythromycin
A

C. Marbofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Among the listed quinolone carboxilic acid derivatives this agent also acts against anaerobes:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ibafloxacin
C. Marbofloxacin
D. Pradofloxacin
A

D. Pradofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
Which part of the prescription tells the pharmacist the name and formulation of the drug?
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Signature
D. Subscription
A

B. Inscription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
Are the waterbased hand dis. allowed to be rinsed before surgery?
A. No, prohib.
B. Yes, w sterile water
C. Yes, w water
D. Yes, but not necessery
A

B. Yes, w sterile water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
In how many groups can medicinal substances be classified based on 37/2010 EC?
A. Three tables
B. Four tables
C. Two tables
D. One table
A

C. Two tables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
Which attribute of a new chemical is tested in the AMES test?
A. Dermal toxicity
B. Enviroment toxicity
C. Mutagenicity
D. Teratogenicity
A

C. Mutagenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
Which lab animal is used most freq. at determination of tissue irritation effect?
A. Rat
B. Mouse
C. Gerbil
D. Rabbit
A

D. Rabbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
In the case of coli-septicaemia in swine, which drug would you apply in medicated water?
A. Tyrosine
B. Lincomycine
C. Gentamicin
D. Enrofloxacin
A

D. Enrofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
Which of the followings are lipid-soluble ingredients?
A. Wool fat
B. Sunflower oil
C. Both
D. Neither
A

C. Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
Its action is delayed, thereby one single injection can be appropriate for the treatment of respiratory tract infections
A. Ceftiofur crystalline free acid
B. Ceftiofur + clavulanic acid
C. Ceftiofur hydrochloride
D. Ceftiofur sodium
A

A. Ceftiofur crystalline free acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
This antibiotic can be used for the treatment of mastitis by pencillinase-producing Staphylococcus aureus:
A. Oxacillin
B. Benzathine penicillin
C. Penethamat
D. Benzylpenicillin Na
A

A. Oxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
Which combination causes significant potentiating effect (incr. inhibition of the CNS)?
A. Xylazine + ketamine
B. Xylazine + medetomidine
C. Ketamine + tiletamine
D. Diazepam + midazolam
A

A. Xylazine + ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Which of the following administration route of diazepam would you recommend in case of status epilepticus?
A. Subcutaneous
B. Topically as a cream
C. Rectal
D. Oral
A

C. Rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Important indication for the use of tetracyclines:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Treatment of intestinal infections
C. Swine dysentery
D. Metritis, foot rot, local treatment of wounds

A

D. Metritis, foot rot, local treatment of wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
Excellent NSAID for perioperative administration as it does not prolong bleeding time
A. Ketoprofen
B. Flunixin
C. Tolfenamic acid
D. Meloxicam
A

D. Meloxicam

18
Q 
Among the listed sulphonamides this derivative is used for topical treatment (eg. in eye ointment)
A. Sulfacetamide
B. Sulfaguanidine
C. Sulfadimetoxine
D. Sulfamethoxazole
A

A. Sulfacetamide

19
Q 
Locally and systemically available antifungal drug
A. Naftifine
B. Enilconazole
C. Terbinafine
D. Acriflavine
A

C. Terbinafine

20
Q 
The oral bioavailability if aminoglycosides is (except apramycin):
A. 0-10%
B. 60-70%
C. 90-100%
D. 30-40%
A

A. 0-10%

21
Q

When supplying this drug, one copy of this has to be kept by the registered feed compounder?
A. Prescription
B. Special prescription
C. Legislation on requisition (written reauisition)
D. Prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (PMF)

A

D. Prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (PMF)

22
Q 
This dosage form is required when prescribing gastro-irritant substances:
A. Film-coated tablet
B. Soft gelatine capsule
C. Oral suspension
D. Bolus
A

A. Film-coated tablet

23
Q

Which effect is NOT characteristic to dopamine antagonist antiemetic agents?
A. They increase the tone of cardiac sphincter
B. They induce relaxation of the pyloric sphincter
C. They induce sedation
D. They increase the gastric motility

A

C. They induce sedation

24
Q 
Usual dosage of tylosin in poultry via drinking water?
A. 50 mg/l
B. 10-20 mg/l
C. 2-10 mg/l
D. 500 mg/l
A

D. 500 mg/l

25
Q 
Loop diuretic, it has pronounced and rapid action
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Mannit
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
A

A. Furosemide

26
Q 
This antiprotozoal drug can be applied in food producing mammals and birds
A. Ronidazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Furazolidone
D. Halofuginone
A

D. Halofuginone

27
Q

When the apparent volume of distribution value of a given medicine is declining
A. Both answers are correct
B. Both answers are incorrect
C. The Cmax value is increasing after IM injection
D. The C0 value is increasing after IV injection

A

A. Both answers are correct

28
Q

Is the veterinarian allowed to prescribe human licensed amoxicillin-clavulanate containing antibiotic tablet to a dog, if there is a vet licensed amoxicillin-clavulanate containing tablet available?
A. Yes, if the owner is a physician
B. Yes, if the strength of the tablet is much more fitting to the dog treated
C. No
D. Yes, if the human licensed drug is much cheaper

A

C. No

29
Q 
Serious tissue irritation is NOT characteristic for this anaesthetic, hence it can be applied IM:
A. Metomidate
B. Ketamine
C. Thiopental
D. Etomidate
A

B. Ketamine

30
Q 
This non-toxic anthelmintic drug is very effective against tapeworms, inc the Echinococcus spp., but quite ineffective against roundworms:
A. Nitroscanate
B. Praziquantel
C. Mebendazole
D. Flubendazole
A

B. Praziquantel

31
Q 
Sedative drug with no analgesic properties:
A. Romifidine
B. Xylazine
C. Butorphanol
D. Chlorpromazine
A

D. Chlorpromazine

32
Q 
How is it NOT possible to perform rehydration with a large amount of infusion
A. Intraperitoneally
B. Subcutaneously
C. Intramuscularly
D. Intraosseally
A

C. Intramuscularly

33
Q 
In the case of prescribing a multidose powder, we declare the total amount of the ingredients required and after the inscription, we declare the number of doses the mixture should be divided to. Which dividation method should be performed?
A. Dividatio
B. Dispensatio
C. Either of these
D. None of these
A

A. Dividatio

34
Q 
Which drug formulation belongs to incoherent heterogeneous system?
A. Colloidal
B. Solution
C. Suspension
D. Tincture
A

C. Suspension

35
Q 
This drug - because of its strong cycloplegic properties - can be applied as an eye drop in uveitis to decrease pain
A. Procaine
B. Tetracaine
C. Pilocarpine 
D. Atropine
A

D. Atropine

36
Q 
This drug may cause dose-dependent, reversible aplastic anemia
A. Tildipirosin
B. Tylvalosin
C. Florfenicol
D. Clindamycin
A

C. Florfenicol

37
Q 
Which drug has GnRH activity?
A. Denaverin
B. Aglepriston
C. Deslorelin
D. Proligeston
A

C. Deslorelin

38
Q

What is a CD written requisition?
A. Records that contain the administered quality and quantity of the given CD
B. None of these
C. An order from a vet to the pharmacist when Schedule 2 and 3 drugs are obtained
D. A label on the package of a Schedule 2 or 3 drug

A

C. An order from a vet to the pharmacist when Schedule 2 and 3 drugs are obtained

39
Q 
What is the pain-inducing source at the "tail-flick" test?
A. Strong clippers
B. Focused infrared light
C. Hot metal plate
D. Hot water bath
A

B. Focused infrared light

40
Q 
Appropriate for the treatment of enteritis caused by E.coli and Salmonella:
A. Phenoxymethyl-penicillin
B. Bacitracin
C. Gentamicin
D. Erythromycin
A

C. Gentamicin

Pharma written final (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions