Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

📍 CRACKIN' D BOARDS > Pharma > Flashcards

Pharma Flashcards

1
Q

Analog of clofibrate

More active in decreasing triglycerides

A

Gemfibrozil (Iopid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Bis-phenol in a sulfur linkage and is highly hydrophobic

A

Probucol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Reduces plasma cholesterol

A

Probucol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Peripheral catabolism of VLDL and chylomicrons

Decrease triglycerides

This also targets triglycerides

A

CLOFIBRATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Increases bile acid secretion

A

Probucol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

No effects on triglycerides

A

Probucol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Positive Coomb’s test associated with hemolytic anemia

A

Methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lactation (increase prolactin)

A

Methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Can cause impotence in males

A

Methyldopa

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Drugs that can cause lupus-like syndrome

A

Hydralazine, Methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rebound hypertension after sudden withdrawal

A

Clonidine (Catapres)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Aloha blockers

A

PraZOSIN, TeraZOSIN, DoxaZOSINe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Decreases peripheral resistance

A

Alpha blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Orthostatic hypertension

A

Alpha blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Blocks a1 adrenergic receptors

A

Alpha blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drug for pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bronchoconstriction

A

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Beta blockers

A

PropanOLOL, MetoprOLOL, AtenOLOL, LabetOLOL, CarvediLOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inhibit the effect of B-adrenergic stimulation

A

Renin release

Vasodilation

Bronchodilation

Dec PR and CO

Metabolic effects: inc insulin secretion, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis in both thebliver and the skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

B-blockers lowers BP by

A

Dec CO

Inhibiting the release of renin and the production of angiotensin II

Possible reducing NE release frim sympathetic neurons

Dec central vasomotor activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

B-blockers used for

A

Portal HPN

Migraine

Aortic aneurysms (dec HR)

Post MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pre eclampsia

A

Hydralazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hirsutism

A

Minoxidil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Used to treat mal baldness

A

Minoxidil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Direct vasodilator drugs

A

Hydralazine

Minoxidil

Sodium nitroprusside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dilates both resistance and capacitance vessels

A

Sodium nitroprusside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Used in hypertensive emergencies

A

Sodium nitroprusside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Rapid vasodilatation and hypotension

A

Sodium nitroprusside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Risk of toxicity of sodium nitroprusside

A

Cyanide and thiocyanide toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cyanide toxicity is reduced by

A

Sodium thiosulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Antihypertensive drugs most widely used acutely during pregnancy

A

Nifedipine

Labetalol

Hydralazine

Methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Blocks formation of angiotensin II

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Promoting vasodilation and decreased aldosterone

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Inc bradykinin and vasodilator prostaglandins by inhibiting kininase II

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

15-20% develop dry, hacking cough (duento bradykinin or substance P)

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Angioedema

A

ACE inhbitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Classifications of Diuretics

A

Osmotic diuretics

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Loop diuretics

Thiazide diuretics

Potassium sparing diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Proximal convulated tubule

A

Acetazolamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

A

Loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Distal convoluted tubule

A

Thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Selectively inhibit NaCl reabsorption

A

Loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Inhibit NaCl transport

A

Thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Toxicity: HYPOkalemic metabolic alkalosis, ototoxicity, HYPERuricemia, HYPOmagnesemia, allergic reactions, severe dehydration, HYPERcalcemia

A

Loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Loop diuretic drugs

A

Furosemide, Ethacrynic acid (not a sulfonamides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Prototype drug for Thiazides

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Thiazide drugs

A

Indapamide, Metolazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Compete with secretion of uric acid

A

Thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Enhance calcium reabsorption

A

Thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist in thencortical collecting tubule

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Blocks Na channels in the cortical collecting tubule

A

Triamterene, Amiloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Potassium Sparing Diuretics

A

Spironolactone (prototype), Eplerenone, Triamterene, Amiloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Toxicity of Potassium Sparing Diuretics

A

Hypercholeremic metabolic acidosis

Gynecomastia

Acute renal failure

Kidney stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Drugs that can cause gynecomastia

A

Cimitidine, Spironolactine, Ketoconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Osmotic diuretic drugs

A

Mannitol (prototype)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Inc tubular osmolarity, producing inc urine flow

A

Osmotic diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

DOC for AV nodal arrythmias (SVT)

A

Adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Treatment for digitalis toxicity

A

K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Treatment for torsade de pointes/digoxin toxicity

A

Mg++

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Na-K-ATPase blocker

Inc refractory period and dec AV node conduction time

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

For SV arrythmias and CHF

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Low molecular weight heparin

A

Enoxaparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Acts more on factor Xa

A

Enoxaparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Better availability, 2 to 4 times longer half-life

A

Enoxaparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Can be administered subcutaneously without laboratory monitoring

A

Enoxaparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Interferes with normal synthesis and y-carboxylation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Affects extrinsic pathway

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Acetylates and irriversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (both COX-1 and COX-2) to prevent conversion of arachidonic acid to TXA2

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Inhibit platelet aggregation by irreversibly blocking ADP receptors

A

Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Nitrogen mustards

A

Mechlorethamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Alkylation

A

Methochlorethamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Metabolized in the P450 system

A

Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Drugs for brain tumors

A

Carmustine, Lomustine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Specially toxic to beta cells of Islets of Langerhans

A

Streptozocin

74
Q

Treatment for insulinomas

A

Streptozocin

75
Q

Adverse effects of Nitrosureas

A

CNS toxicity

Nausea and vomiting

Bone marriw suppression

SKIN FLUSHING

76
Q

Platinum coordination complex

A

Carboplatin, Cisplatin

77
Q

Adverse effects of Cisplatin

A

Nephrotoxicity

Ototoxicity

Paresthesia

AXONAL NEUROPATHY

78
Q

Binds to double helix of DNA and for complex with it that inhibits RNA polymerase

A

Dactinomycin

79
Q

For Wilm’s tumor

A

Dactinomycin

80
Q

Kaposi sarcoma

A

Dactinomycin

81
Q

Adverse effects: bone marrow suppression, skin reactions, GI irritation

A

Dactinomycin

82
Q

Drugs that can cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

Bleomycin or Busulfan
Amiodaron
Nitrofurantoin
Methotrexate

83
Q

Folic acid antagonist that prevents conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate and decreases synthesisnof thymidilate, aa, purine nucleotides

A

Methotrexate

84
Q

Purine analog

A

6-Mercaptopurine

85
Q

For ALL and AML

A

6-Mercaptopurine

86
Q

Adverse effects: Bone marrow, hepatotoxicity

Used as oral

A

6-Mercaptopurine

87
Q

Pyrimidine analog

A

Cytarabine

5-Fluorouracil

88
Q

For treating AML only

A

Cytarabine

89
Q

Inhibits thymidilate synthetase

Also inhibits RNA synthesis

A

5-Fluorouracil

90
Q

For breast cancer and GI cancer

A

5-Fluorouracil

91
Q

For Hodgkin’s disease, testicular CA

AE: bone marrow suppression

A

Vinblastine

92
Q

For hodgkin’s lymphoma, leukemias, Wilm’s tumor, Ewing’s sarcoma

AE: peripheral neuropathy

A

Vincristine

93
Q

Prevent the formation of mitotic spindle

A

Vinca Alkaloids

94
Q

Inhibits topoisomerase I

A

Camptothecins

95
Q

Inhibit topoisomerase II

A

Podophyllotoxins

96
Q

Inhibits DNA topoisomerase II-DNA complex

Single stranded DNA breaks

A

Etoposide

97
Q

Promote microtubule assembly and stabilization thus inhibiting cell division

A

Taxanes

98
Q

Promotes microtubule formation butbprevents dissassembly

Malformed microtubules

A

Paclitaxel

99
Q

For Ovarian and Breast CA

A

Paclitaxel

100
Q

Estrogen antagonist

A

Tamoxifen

101
Q

Competitive inhibitor of estradiol

A

Tamoxifen

102
Q

Treatment of ER + breast ca

A

Tamoxifen

103
Q

Inhibits translocation of androgen receptor to the nucleus

A

Flutamide

104
Q

For prostate ca

A

Flutamide

105
Q

Inhibits release of FSH and LH

A

Leuprolide

106
Q

For prostate CA and endometriosis

A

Leuprolide

107
Q

May trigger apoptosis and may even work on nondividing cells

A

Prednisone

108
Q

Used in CLL, Hodgkin’s lymphomas

A

Prednisone

109
Q

Toxicities associated with steroid use

A

Prednisone

110
Q

Philadelphia chromosome bcr/abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor

A

Imatinib (Gleevec)

111
Q

Used for CML, GI stromal tumors

A

Imatinib (Gleevec)

112
Q

Toxicity: fluid retention

A

Imatinib (Gleevec)

113
Q

Monoclonal antibody against HER-2 (erb-B2)

A

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

114
Q

Helps kill breast cancer cells that overexpress HER-2, possibly through antibody dependent cytotoxicity

A

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

115
Q

Used for metastatic breast cancer

A

Tradtuzumab (Herceptin)

116
Q

Toxicity: cardiotoxicity

A

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

117
Q

Degrades asparagine

A

L-asparaginase

118
Q

Childhood ALL

A

L-asparaginase

119
Q

Bactericidal

A 
Aminoglycosides
Quinolone
Cycloserine
Vancomycin
Carbapenems
Penicillins
Cephalosporins
120
Q

All anti-TB meds are bactericidal except

A

Ethambutol

121
Q

Bacteriostatic

A 
Chloramphenicol
Nitrofurantoin
Clindamycin
Tetracycline
Erythromycin
Trimethoprim
Lincomycin
Sulfonamides
Ethambutol
122
Q

Can penetrate the CNS if meninges are inflamed (menigitis)

A

Penicillin

123
Q

1st gen cephalosporins

A 
CEFAdroxil
CEFAzolin
CEPHAlexin
CEPHAlothin
CEPHApirin
CEPHradin
124
Q

2nd gen cephalosporins

A 
CEFmetazole
CEFAclor
CEFAmandole
CEFOxitin
CEFOtetan
CEFOranide
CEFUroxime
COFOnicid
125
Q

3rd gen cephalosporins

A 
CefoTaxime
CefTazidime
CefTriaxone
CefbuTen
Cefoperazone
Cefixime
126
Q

4th gen cephalosporin

A

Cefipime

127
Q

Increased activity against pseudomonas and gram positive organisms

A

Cefipime

128
Q

Resistant to B-lactamase

A

Carbapenems

129
Q

Usually combined with CILASTATIN to prevent inactivation by dihydropeptidase enzyme in the brush border of proximal tubule

A

Imipenem

130
Q

Adverse effects: seizures, GI effects

A

Imipenem

131
Q

Binds to D-alanyl-D-alanine portion of cell wall precursors that inhibits peptidoglycan ploymerization

A

Vancomycin

132
Q

Blocks transfer of peptidoglycan unit to growing cell wall

A

Bacitracin

133
Q

For topical use only

A

Bacitracin

134
Q

Analog of D-alanine 2nd line drug for TB

A

Cycloserine

135
Q

Because of potential toxicity, should be employed only in well-defined and indicated conditions

A

Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin)

136
Q

Adverse reaction of Chloramphenicol

A

Anemia
Aplastic anemia
Gray baby syndrome
Bone marrow suppression

137
Q

They lack UDP-glucuronyl transferase

A

Gray baby syndrome

138
Q

Narrow spectrum antibiotic used as a substitute for penicillin G

A

Erythromycin

139
Q

Antimicrobial activity:
Very effective against gram-positive bacteria

Bacteriostatic at low concentrations

Bacteriocidal at high concentrations

A

Erytnhromycin

140
Q

Macrolide drugs

A

Erythromycin (prototype)
Clarithromycin
Azithromycin

141
Q

Anti-TB causing hepatitis

A

Pyrazinamide

142
Q

Increased bioavailability of erythromycin

A

Digoxin

143
Q

Inhibits protein synthesisnby binding to 50s subunitnof bacterial ribosome (like erythromycin)

A

Clindamycin

144
Q

Exhibits cross-resistance with macrolides

A

Clindamycin

145
Q

Clinical use of Clindamycin

A

Tx of severe anaerobic infections

Treat penetrating wounds of abdomen and gut

Female genital tract infections

Aspiration pneumonia

146
Q

Drug thatbm is very specific for Neisseria only

A

Spectinomycin

147
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

Norfloxacin
Levofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin
Ofloxacin

148
Q

DNA gyrase inhibitor (topoisomerase II)

A

Fluoroquinolones

149
Q

Modern sulfa drugs

A

Sulfonamides

150
Q

PABA analog

A

Sulfonamides

151
Q

Most common cause of SJS

A

Sulfonamides

152
Q

Adverse effects of Trimethoprim

A

Megaloblastic anemia
Leukopenia
Granulocytopenia

153
Q

Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor

A

Trimethoprim

154
Q

Antifungal drugs

A 
Amphotericin B
Flucytosine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Itraconazole
Grieseofulvin
Terbinafine
155
Q

DOC for systemic mycotic infection

A

Amphotericin B

156
Q

Binds to ergosterol

A

Amphotericin B

157
Q

Inhibits thymidylate synthethase

A

Flucytosine

158
Q

For cutaneous chronomycoses

A

Flucytosine

159
Q

Antifungals for superficial infection

A 
Griseofulvin
Nystatin
Miconazole
Clotrimazole
Econazole
160
Q

Inhibits microtubule function

A

Griseofulvin

161
Q

Used to treat aspergillosis

A

Caspofungin

162
Q

Inhibits mycolic acid

A

Isoniazid

163
Q

Antifreeze

Metabolic acidosis

A

Ethyl glycol

164
Q

Snowstorm blindness

A

Methanol

165
Q

Adverse effects: gout, arthralgia, myalgia

A

Pyrazinamide

166
Q

Adverse effects: optic neuritis or red-green blindness, gout

A

Ethambutol

167
Q

Leprosy meds

A

Dapsone
Clofazimine
Rifampicin

168
Q

Used for both MTB and leprosy

A

Rifampicin

169
Q

Antistaphylococcal Penicillins

A 
Methicillin
Nafcillin
Oxacillin
Dicloxacillin
Cloxacillin
170
Q

Drug that can cause interstitial nephritis

A

Methicillin

171
Q

Antipseudomonal penicillin

A 
Mezlocillin
Piperacillin
Azlocillin
Carbenicillin
Ticarcillin
172
Q

Drug that can cause platelet dysfunction

A

Ticarcillin

Carbenicillin

173
Q

Binds to outer membrane thereby disrupting membrane integrity

A

Aminoglycosides

174
Q

Binds to 30s ribosomal unit

A

Aminoglycosides

175
Q

Accumulat in the renal cortex and endolymph of the inne ear

A

Aminoglycosides

176
Q

Postantibiotic effect: concentration dependent, explains why it can be given in single daily doses depsite the short half-life

A

Aminoglycosides

177
Q

All are given IV except for neomycin which is given topically

A

Aminoglycosides

178
Q

For aerobic gram negative enteric bacteria such as E coli, Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas

A

Aminoglycosides

179
Q

Adverse effects: the triple punch of “a mean guy”

Ototoxicity
Nephrotixicity -> acute tubular necrosis
Neuromuscular blockade

A

Aminoglycosides

180
Q

Must not take with milk or antacids that are divalent cations inhibit its absorption in the gut

A

Tetracyclines

181
Q

Most common side effects of tetracyclines

A

Nausea and vomiting

182
Q

Narrow spectrum antibiotic used as a substitute for penicillin G

A

Erythromycin

📍 CRACKIN' D BOARDS (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions