Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Reproductive > PHARM: STDs > Flashcards

PHARM: STDs Flashcards

1
Q

1st Line HSV.

A

Acyclovir, Famciclovir, Valacyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1st Line Syphilis.

A

Benzathine Penicillin G (IM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1st Line Chlamydia.

A

Azithromycin, Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2nd Line Chlamydia.

A

Erythromycin base, Levofloxacin, Ofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

1st Line Chancroid.

A

Azithromycin, Ceftriaxone, Ciprofloxacin, Erythromycin Base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1st Line Gonorrhea.

A

Ceftriaxone + azith or doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2nd Line Gonorrhea (Cervix, Uterus, Rectum).

A

Cefixime + azith or doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What STD/Pelvic Disorder has the same 1st and 2nd line treatment as Chlamydia?

A

Cervicitis/Urethritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you manage recurrent Cervicitis/Urethritis?

A

Metronidazole or Tinidazole + Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1st Line Trichomonas.

A

Metronidazole or Tinidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1st Line Bacterial Vaginosis.

A

Metronidazole or Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2nd Line Bacterial Vaginosis.

A

Tinidazole or Clindamycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1st Line Candidiasis.

A

“conazoles”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1st Line Genital Warts.

A

Podofilox, Imiquimod, Sinecatechins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HPV Prevention options.

A

Gardasil, Cervarix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What STD drugs requires requires intracellular kinase- dependent phosphorylation to be activated?

A

Acyclovir (and Valacyclovir)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which has a better oral bioavilability, Acyclovir or Valacyclovir?

A

Valacyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What must happen to Famcyclovir before it is active?

A

Must be de-acetylated to penciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

HPV Vaccines are made with what portion of the HPV virus?

A

L1 Capsid Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What mitotic spindle inhibitor (gel) is used for genital warts?

A

Podofilox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What immune response modifier (gel) is used for genital warts?

A

imiquimod

22
Q

What is the green tea extract antioxidant that is used for genital warts?

A

Sinecatechins

23
Q

What antibiotic is used to treat chlamydia in pregnant women?

A

amoxicillin

24
Q

Which antibiotic is given in an IM depot that is slow release?

A

Benzathine Penicillin G

25
Q

What is the only prescription antifungal of this block?

A

clotrimazole

26
Q

MOA: Competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerase (competes with dGTP and inserts into growing viral DNA strand to prevent further chain elongation (lacks 3’-OH group))

A

Acyclovir

Valacyclovir (pro-drug of Acyclovir)

27
Q

MOA: competes with dGTP at viral DNA polymerase (does not cause chain termination)

A

Famcyclovir

28
Q

MOA: Body develops antibodies against major antigen protein of the HPV-16 and -18 capsid

A

Cervarix

29
Q

MOA: Body develops antibodies against major antigen protein of the HPV-16, 18, 6, and 11 capsid

A

Gardisil

30
Q

MOA: Blocks microtubular activity (reduce but don’t eradicate HPV infectivity)

A

Podofilox

31
Q

MOA: binds PBPs and causes cell lysis

A

Beta Lactams: Amoxicillin, Cefixime, Ceftriaxone, Benzathine Penicillin G

32
Q

MOA: Binds 50S ribosomal subunit (bacteriostatic)

A

Azithromycin, Clindamycin, Erythromycin

33
Q

MOA: Binds 30S ribosomal subunit (bacteriostatic)

A

Doxycycline

34
Q

MOA: Bacteriocidal.
GN: inhibits DNA gyrase (topo II)
GP: inhibits topo IV

A

Levofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin
Ofloxacin

35
Q

MOA: Bacteriocidal; unionized drug taken up by anaerobic organisms and cells where it is reduced to its active form which disrupts DNA’s helical structure inhibiting bacterial nucleic acid synthesis (equally effecitive in dividing and non-dividing)

A

Tinidazole

Metronidazole

36
Q

MOA: Blocks ergosterol synthesis though interacting with 14-alpha demethylase (CYP for conversion of lanosterol to erg)

A 
Butoconazole
Clotrimazole
Fluconazole
Miconazole
Terconazole
Tioconazole
37
Q

TOXICITY: Neurotoxic (seizures); hydration to avoid crystalline nephropathy

A

Acyclovir and Valacyclovir

38
Q

TOXICITY: Does not cross placenta; minimal amounts in breast milk (may lead to diarrhea, candidiasis, and skin rash in feeding infants)

A

Amoxicillin

39
Q

TOXICITY: GI upset, vaginitis

A

Azithromycin

40
Q

TOXICITY: Diarrhea and GI upset; may increase clotting time; false positive for urinary glucose in diabetic patients

A

Cefixime

41
Q

TOXICITY: Distributed into genital tissues; crosses placenta/ breast milk

A

Ceftriaxone

42
Q

TOXICITY: Intravaginal use ONLY in first trimester before 16 weeks (or low birth weight, pre-term, etc.); excreted in breast milk; GI upset; contact toxicity (erythema, pruritis, discharge, swelling vaginal bleeding and pain)

A

Clindamycin

43
Q

TOXICITY: GI upset; hepatic damage (high dose/pregnancy); photo-sensitivity with tanning; CAT D

A

Doxycycline

44
Q

TOXICITY: GI upset; increases toxicity of CYP substrates; estolate preps may cause cholestatic jaundice; risk of sudden cardiac death with CYP3A4 inhibitors

A

Erythromycin

45
Q

TOXICITY: Taste disturbance; GI upset; BBW increased tendonitis and rupture; BBW of exacerbation of muscle weakness (not with myasthenia gravis); CAT C

A

Ofloxacin

46
Q

TOXICITY: Poor CNS penetration (not for neurosyphilis); hypersensitivity or skin rashes

A

Benzathine Penicillin G

47
Q

What is the strange and characteristic reaction that occurs in MOST secondary syphillis patients after the 1st injection of Benzathine Penicillin G?

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer Rxn (chills, fever, HA, myalgias, lesions look worse)

48
Q

Urinary discoloration; avoid in pregnancy and breastfeeding; GI upset; disulfiram-like effect; secondary malignancies in animals

A

Tinidazole

Metronidazole

49
Q

How long must you avoid alcohol (disulfiram-like effect) after completing Metronidazole? After completing Tinidazole?

A

avoid alcohol for 1 day (M) or 3 days (T) after completing therapy

50
Q

What drug class should be avoided in the 1st trimester? Why?

A

“Conazoles”- In fetus, high systemic doses produce abdominal wall defects and cleft palate. In mother, causes stress.

51
Q

Resistance mechanisms to Acyclovir/Valacyclovir?

A

resistance via decreased viral TK or mutation in DNA polymerase

Reproductive (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions